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Chapter 18 multiple choice question...

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Chapter 18 MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1) A vaccine against HIV proteins made by vaccinia virus is a(n) A) conjugated vaccine. B) subunit vaccine. C) nucleic acid vaccine. D) inactivated whole-agent vaccine. E) toxoid vaccine. Answer: B 2) In a direct ELISA test to screen for drugs in a patient’s urine, what is the third step in the test process? A) enzyme-labeled antibodies against the drug being tested B) substrate for the enzyme C) the patient’s urine sample D) antibody against the drug being tested Answer: A 3) Haemophilus capsule polysaccharide plus diphtheria toxoid is a(n) A) inactivated whole-agent vaccine. B) attenuated whole-agent vaccine. C) conjugated vaccine. D) subunit vaccine. E) toxoid vaccine. Answer: C Table 18.1 Antibody Titer Day 1 Day 7 Day 14 Patient A Patient B Patient C Patient D

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4) In Table 18.1, who is most likely protected from the disease? A) Patient A B) Patient B C) Patient C

D) Patient D

Answer: D 5) A DNA plasmid encoding a protein antigen from West Nile virus is injected into muscle cells of a horse. This is an example of a(n) A) conjugated vaccine. B) subunit vaccine. C) attenuated whole-agent vaccine. D) nucleic acid vaccine. E) live whole-agent vaccine. Answer: D 1

6) A reaction between antibody and particulate antigen is called a(n) A) neutralization reaction. B) agglutination reaction. C) immunofluorescence. D) precipitation reaction. E) complement fixation. Answer: B 7) The following steps are used to produce monoclonal antibodies. What is the fourth step? A) A B cell is activated to produce antibodies. B) Isolate antibody -producing B cells. C) Culture the hybridoma. D) Vaccinate a mouse. E) Fuse a B cell to a myeloma cell. Answer: E Table 18.1 Antibody Titer Day 1 Day 7 Day 14 Patient A Patient B Patient C Patient D

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8) In Table 18.1, who probably has the disease? A) Patients A and B B) Patients C and D C) Patients A and C D) Patients B and C E) Patients A and D Answer: A 9) What type of vaccine involves host synthesis of viral antigens? A) nucleic acid vaccine B) attenuated whole-agent vaccine C) subunit vaccine D) conjugated vaccine E) toxoid vaccine Answer: A

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10) A patient shows the presence of antibodies against diphtheria toxin. Which of the following statements is FALSE? A) The patient may have the disease. B) The patient may have had the disease and has recovered. C) The patient may have been vaccinated. D) The patient was near someone who had the disease. E) A recent transfusion may have passively introduced the antibodies. Answer: D 11) A test used to identify antibodies against Treponema pallidum in a patient's serum is the A) direct fluorescent-antibody test. B) direct ELISA test. C) indirect fluorescent-antibody test. D) direct agglutination test. E) hemagglutination-inhibition test. Answer: C 12) Toxoid vaccines, such as the vaccines against diphtheria and tetanus, elicit a(n) A) TC cell response. B) dendritic cell proliferation. C) antibody response against gram -positive bacteria. D) immune complex. E) antibody response against these bacterial toxins. Answer: E 13) Purified protein from Bordetella pertussis is used in a(n) A) nucleic acid vaccine. B) conjugated vaccine. C) subunit vaccine. D) attenuated whole-agent vaccine. E) toxoid vaccine. Answer: C 14) All of the following are generally used in vaccines EXCEPT A) inactivated viruses. B) antibodies. C) live, attenuated bacteria. D) parts of bacterial cells. E) toxoids. Answer: B 15) Live polio virus can be used in a(n) A) inactivated whole-agent vaccine. B) attenuated whole-agent vaccine. C) conjugated vaccine. D) subunit vaccine. E) toxoid vaccine. Answer: B

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16) Hepatitis B virus surface antigen can be used in a(n) A) inactivated whole-agent vaccine. B) attenuated whole-agent vaccine. C) conjugated vaccine. D) subunit vaccine. E) toxoid vaccine. Answer: D Table 18.1 Antibody Titer Day 1 Day 7 Day 14 Patient A Patient B Patient C Patient D

Day 21

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17) In Table 18.1, who showed seroconversion during these observations? A) Patient A B) Patient B C) Patient C

D) Patient D

Answer: A 18) Which of the following statments about measles is FALSE? A) It is preventable by vaccination. B) The disease has been eradicated in the United States. C) Complications include pneumonia, encephalitis, and death. D) It is a serious disease. E) Annually, it kills thousands of children worldwide. Answer: B 19) A patient’s serum, Mycobacterium, guinea pig complement, sheep red blood cells, and anti-sheep red blood cell antibodies are mixed in a test tube. What happens if the patient has antibodies to Mycobacterium? A) Hemagglutination -inhibition occurs. B) Hemolysis occurs. C) Bacteria fluoresce. D) Hemagglutination occurs. E) No hemolysis occurs. Answer: E 20) Monoclonal antibodies are used in diagnostic tests and disease treatments because they A) are highly specific. B) can be produced in large quantities. C) contain a mixture of antibodies. D) are highly specific and they can be produced in large quantities. E) are highly specific, they can be produced in large quantities, and they contain a mixture of antibodies. Answer: D

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21) A reaction between an antibody and soluble antigen-forming lattices is called a(n) A) immunofluorescence. B) neutralization reaction. C) precipitation reaction. D) agglutination reaction. E) complement fixation. Answer: C 22) A hybridoma results from the fusion of a(an) A) antigen with a B cell. B) antigen with an antibody. C) myeloma cell with a virus. D) B cell with a myeloma cell. E) B cell with a T cell. Answer: D 23) In an immunodiffusion test to diagnose histoplasmosis, a patient's serum is placed in a well in an agar plate. In a positive test, a line forms as the serum diffuses from the well and meets material diffusing from a second well. What type of test is this? A) an ELISA test B) a direct test C) a complement-fixation test D) an agglutination reaction E) a precipitation reaction Answer: E 24) Which of the following is a test to determine a patient's blood type by mixing the patient's red blood cells with antisera? A) direct agglutination reaction B) passive agglutination reaction C) immunofluorescence D) neutralization reaction E) precipitation reaction Answer: A 25) Which of the following is a test to determine the presence of soluble antigens in a patient's saliva? A) direct agglutination reaction B) passive agglutination reaction C) immunofluorescence D) neutralization reaction E) precipitation reaction Answer: E

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Figure 18.1

26) Figure 18.1 is an illustration of a(an) A) direct ELISA test. B) hemagglutination test. C) indirect ELISA test. D) complement fixation test. E) precipitation test. Answer: C 27) Which of the following tests is MOST useful in determining the presence of AIDS antibodies? A) agglutination B) complement fixation C) indirect ELISA D) neutralization E) direct fluorescent-antibody Answer: C 28) Palivizumab is used to treat respiratory syncytial virus disease. This antiviral drug is a(n) A) immunosuppressive. B) monoclonal antibody. C) nucleoside analog. D) vaccine. E) toxoid. Answer: B 29) In an immunodiffusion test to diagnose histoplasmosis, a patient's serum is placed in a well in an agar plate. In a positive test, a precipitate forms as the serum diffuses from the well and meets material diffusing from a second well. In this test process, what is in the second well? A) fungal cells B) red blood cells C) antibodies D) mycelia E) a fungal antigen Answer: E 30) A test used to detect anti -Rickettsia antibodies in a patient's serum is the A) indirect fluorescent-antibody test. B) direct fluorescent-antibody test. Answer: A

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31) Which of the following is a pregnancy test used to find the fetal hormone HCG in a woman's urine using anti-HCG and latex spheres? A) direct agglutination reaction B) indirect agglutination reaction C) immunofluorescence D) neutralization reaction E) precipitation reaction Answer: B 32) Which of the following uses fluorescent-labeled antibodies? A) agglutination B) flow cytometry C) complement fixation D) precipitation E) neutralization Answer: B 33) Patient's serum, influenza virus, and red blood cells are mixed in a tube. What happens if the patient has antibodies against influenza virus? A) hemolysis B) agglutination C) hemagglutination D) hemagglutination-inhibition E) complement fixation Answer: D 34) A test used to identify Streptococcus pyogenes in a patient's throat swab is the A) hemagglutination test. B) indirect ELISA test. C) indirect fluorescent-antibody test. D) hemagglutination-inhibition test. E) direct fluorescent-antibody test. Answer: E 35) In an agglutination test, eight serial dilutions to determine antibody titer were set up. Tube #1 contained a 1:2 dilution; tube #2, a 1:4, etc. If tube #6 is the last tube showing agglutination, what is the antibody titer? A) 32 B) 64 C) 6 D) 1:6 E) 1:32 Answer: B 36) A reaction that uses the absence of hemolysis of red blood cells to indicate an antigenantibody reaction is called a(n) A) neutralization reaction. B) agglutination reaction. C) immunofluorescence. D) complement fixation. E) precipitation reaction. Answer: D

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37) Which of the following are sources of antibodies for serological testing? A) vaccinated animals B) monoclonal antibodies C) viral cultures D) vaccinated animals and monoclonal antibodies E) vaccinated animals, monoclonal antibodies, and viral cultures Answer: D 38) Which of the following is NOT an advantage of live attenuated vaccine agents? A) They elicit lifelong immunity. B) The immune response generated by the vaccine closely mimics a real infection. C) They occasionally revert to virulent forms. D) They stimulate by cell-mediated and humoral immune responses. E) They require few or no booster immunizations. Answer: C Figure 18.1

39) Which component in Figure 18.1 came from the patient in this ELISA test? A) a B) b C) c D) d Answer: B 40) What type of vaccine is the live measles virus? A) subunit vaccine B) toxoid vaccine C) attenuated whole-agent vaccine D) conjugated vaccine E) nucleic acid vaccine Answer: C 41) Which item is from the patient in a direct ELISA test? A) antibodies against the antigen C) antigen Answer: C

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B) antihuman immune serum D) substrate for the enzyme

E) e

42) The clumping of test cells indicates a negative test result in the A) indirect agglutination test. B) precipitation test. C) viral hemagglutination inhibition test. D) direct agglutination test. E) complement-fixation test. Answer: C 43) Dead Bordetella pertussis can be used in a(n) A) inactivated whole-agent vaccine. B) attenuated whole-agent vaccine. C) conjugated vaccine. D) subunit vaccine. E) toxoid vaccine. Answer: A 44) An ELISA for Hepatitis C has 95 percent sensitivity and 90 percent specificity. This means that the test A) detects 5 percent of the true positive samples and has 90 percent false positive results. B) detects 95 percent of the true positive samples and has 90 percent false positive results. C) detects 90 percent of the true positive samples and has 5 percent false positive results. D) detects 95 percent of the true positive samples and has 10 percent false positive results. E) detects 5 percent of the true positive samples and has 10 percent false positive results. Answer: D 45) Inactivated tetanus toxin is a(n) A) conjugated vaccine. B) subunit vaccine. C) nucleic acid vaccine. D) inactivated whole-agent vaccine. E) toxoid vaccine. Answer: E TRUE/FALSE. Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 46) Blood typing tests are examples of hemagglutination reactions. Answer:

True

False

47) The home pregnancy test kit is an example of a direct ELISA. Answer:

True

False

48) Vaccines are preparations of organisms or fractions of organisms that are used to induce protective immune responses. Answer:

True

False

49) In a vaccine preparation, the term “attenuated” means that the agent does NOT replicate. Answer:

True

False

50) Western blotting uses antibodies to detect specific proteins in a mixture of proteins. Answer:

True

False

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51) Agglutination tests use particulate antigens while precipitation tests use soluble antigens. Answer:

True

False

52) Adjuvants such as aluminum salts are used as additives in vaccines to enhance immune responses. Answer:

True

False

53) An injection of “naked” DNA into muscle cells to induce an immune response against the proteins encoded by the DNA is an example of a subunit vaccine. Answer:

True

False

54) A positive complement-fixation test in indicated by the lysis of the sheep red blood cells added in the indicator phase of the test. Answer:

True

False

55) A highly specific diagnostic test will have very few false negative reactions. Answer:

True

False

ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper. 56) Describe an ELISA test to detect the presence of HIV antibodies in a patient. Answer: 57) In your work in a county public health clinic, you encounter parents of a three-month-old who are considering not vaccinating their child. What concerns might the parents raise regarding vaccine safety? As a microbiology student and public health care worker, what do you say to these parents regarding the risks of not vaccinating their child? Answer: 58) Design a serological test to detect botulinum toxin in food. Answer:

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