Endodontics and Periodontics Answer Key PDF

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ENDODONTICS AND PERIODONTICS ANSWER KEY1. This refers to the separation of an individual root from the crown structure of the tooth and the remaining apical area of the crown and furcation region are recontoured similar to the shape of Pontic for oral hygiene purposes: a. Hemisection b. Separation c...

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c. ENDODONTICS AND PERIODONTICS ANSWER KEY 1.

This refers to the separation of an individual root from the crown structure of the tooth and the remaining apical area of the crown and furcation region are recontoured similar to the shape of Pontic for oral hygiene purposes: a. Hemisection b. Separation c. Root amputation d. Bicuspidation

2.

Osseous recontouring is to: a. To cure periodontal disease b. To eliminate the existing microflora c. To eliminate dental pockets d. To change the existing microflora

3.

Curettage refers to: a. Soft tissue debridement of the gingival wall of a periodontal socket b. Removal of calcified deposits from the gingival sulcus and/or periodontal pockets c. Scaling and/or planning of the root surface d. Removal of dental plaque from the coronal surfaces of teeth

4.

Which of the statement is not true regarding flap design a. Full thickness periodontal flaps involve reflecting all of the soft tissue, including the periosteum to expose the underlying bone b. The partial thickness periodontal flap includes only the epithelium and a layer of the underlying connective tissue c. Both full thickness and partial thickness periodontal flaps can be displaced d. Flaps from the palate are considered easier to be displaced than any other region

d.

Essentially an invasion and penetration of the periodontium by microorganisms Formation of bacterial enzymes detrimental to the periodontium

8.

Polymorphonuclear leukocytes contain packets of biologically active enzymes which may play an important role in inflammatory periodontal disease. These packets are termed a. Cristae b. Lysosomes c. Lyzozymes d. Mitochondria

9.

Contraindications for gingivectomy, except: a. The need for bone surgery or examination of the bone shape and morphology b. Situations in which the bottom of the pocket is apical to the mucogingival junction c. Esthetic considerations, particularly in the anterior maxilla d. Elimination of gingival enlargements

10. The primary objective and advantage of surgical flap procedures in the treatment of periodontal disease is: a. Reduce or eliminate periodontal pockets b. To provide access to root surfaces for debridement c. Maintenance of biological width d. Establishment of adequate soft tissue contours 11. This procedure is commonly used to correct the tissue contours that result from ANUG a. Gingivectomy b. Gingivoplasty c. Free gingival graft d. Pedicle graft

5.

Which is not true regarding proximal wedge procedure a. Performed after wisdom tooth extraction b. Performed in the maxillary tuberosity region c. Performed in the mandibular molar triangle d. Performed when an insufficient space exist distal to the last molar

12. All describes the modified Widman flap, except: a. For exposing the root surface for meticulous instrumentation b. For removal of pocket lining c. Uses three horizontal incision not beyond the mucogingival line d. Reduces pocket depth

6.

Premature contacts of the dentition are MOST harmful if the patient a. Has maligned tooth b. Wears a partial denture c. Clenches and grinds his teeth d. Consume a high non detergent diet

13. The basis for normal gingival color is all of the following except a. Thickness of gingiva b. Degree of keratinization c. Subpapillary venous plexus d. Absolute amount of reduced hemoglobin

7.

The presently accepted relationship between chronic destructive periodontal disease and microorganism is a. An infectious disease satisfying each of Koch’s postulates b. Demineralization of alveolar bone by bacterial toxins

14. The most common osseous defect is: a. One-wall intrabony defects b. Two-wall intrabony defects (osseous craters) c. Three-wall intrabony defects d. Through-and-through furcation defects

15. Trauma from occlusion is least likely to affect

a.

bone

b. c. d.

cementum epithelial attachment periodontal ligament

16. Mediators produced as a part of the host response that contribute to tissue destruction include all of the following except a. Free radicals b. Proteinases c. Prostaglandins d. Cytonkines 17. Localized gingival hypertrophy may commonly result form a. Smoking b. Chemical burns c. Intake of Dilantin sodium d. Vigorous horizontal tooth brushing e. Local irritant plus hormonal imbalance 18. Which of the following is the least important diagnostic aid in recognizing the early stage of gingivitis? a. Bleeding upo probing b. Gingival color c. Pocket depths d. Stippling of the gingival tissue 19. In a clinically healthy periodontium, the microbial flora is largely composed of a. Gram-negative obligate microorganisms b. Gram-negative facultative microorganisms c. Gram-positive obligate microorganisms d. Gram-positive facultative microorganisms 20. Gingival bleeding, which is associated with chronic marginal gingivitis, occurs because the a. Lack of vitamin C affects capillary permeability b. Epithelial attachment is destroyed and vessels from the periodontal ligament are injured c. Periodontium is easily injured by tooth brushing d. Epithelium of the soft tissue wall of the gingival sulcus contains micro-ulcerations 21. Which of the following is not a diagnostic feature for occlusal trauma a. Loss of alveolar bone b. Increase in tooth mobility c. Periodontal pocket formation d. Increased width of the periodontal ligament space 22. The oral cavity is usually sterile after birth and microorganism appear 1012 hours after birth. However, these microorganisms do not appear until teeth are present

a. b. c. d.

S. Salivarius and Staphylococci S. mutans and S. sanguis Actinomyces and Fusobacterium All of the bacterial strains mentioned

23. An outstanding feature of this type of periodontitis is the relative absence of plaque to explain the severe periodontal destruction which occurs around puberty in the incisors and first molar area. a. Localized aggressive periodontitis b. Generalized aggressive periodontitis c. Refractory periodontitis d. Chronic periodontits 24. The most dominant bacteria in the type of periodontitis mentioned above is: a. Eubacterium species b. P. Gingivalis c. A. Actinotherapeutics d. Treponema species 25. This type of periodontitis involves around permanent teeth with P. Gingivalis as the most dominant bacteria a. Localized aggressive periodontits b. Generalized aggressive periodontits c. Refractory periodontits d. Chronic periodontits 26. These diseases clinically present as desquamative gingivitis, except: a. Lichen planus b. Pemphigoid c. Chronic ulcerative stomatitis d. Leukemia 27. Desquamative gingivitis may be due to the following, except: a. Plaque induced gingivitis b. Lichen planus c. Pemphigus d. Pemphigoid 28. Which of the following statement regarding Periodontits is incorrect? a. Periodontitis does not always begin with gingivitis b. Gingivitis and periodontitis cannot be induced without bacteria c. There are no radiographic features of gingivitis d. Presence of pockets cannot be determined from radiographs 29. Gingivitis during pregnancy results from radiographs a. Increase in local irritation by an alteration of the saliva b. Alteration of tissue response to local irritation c. Overgrowth of tissue which is unrelated to local irritation d. All of the above 30. An early effect of primary traumatic occlusions is a. Generalized alveolar bone loss

b.

Undermining resorption of alveolar bone

c.

Hemorrhage and thrombosis in the periodontal ligament

d.

Vertical pocket formation

31. Root planning is used in the treatment of a. Patients with marked gingival hyperplasia b. Patients with no furcation involvement c. Limited cases of periodontitis because it always leaves some niches in the cementum d. All cases of periodontitis to remove cementum and prepare a favorable environmental for healing 32. A cup like resorptive area at the crest of alveolar bone is a radiographic finding of a. Gingivitis b. Occlusal trauma c. Early periodontitis d. Acute necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis 33. Extensive horizontal bone loss and extensive bony defects is seen in a. Early periodontitis b. Moderate periodontitis c. Advanced periodontitis d. ANUG 34. Which of the following is most significant in regard to the prognosis of a periodontally involved tooth a. Pocket depth b. Attachment loss c. Anatomical crown length d. Bleeding upon probing 35. Which of the following needs to be evident in order to make a diagnosis of periodontitis? a. Bleeding b. Pocket depths of 5mm or more c. Radiographic evidence of bone loss d. A change in tissue color and tone 36. Occlusal wear due to functional contacts with opposing teeth resulting in wear facets on the occlusal surfaces of teeth a. Erosion b. Abrasion c. Attrition d. Abfraction e. Root hypersensitivity 37. Chronic inflammatory gingival enlargement with ballooning of interdental papilla and marginal gingiva is scored as a. Grad 0 b. Grade 1 c. Grade 2 46. Microorganism that colonized periodontal abscess a. Gram-positive aerobic cocci

d.

Grade 3

38. The most important plaque retentive factor is a. Subgingival and/or overhanging margins of restorations b. Carious lesions that extend sublingually c. Calculus d. Furcations exposed by loss of attachment and bone 39. To successfully treat periodontitis, it is MOST essential to a. Reduce the occlusal trauma b. Reduce pocket depth to 2 or 2 mm c. Make adequate dietary and nutritional adjustments d. Remove the colonized masses of microorganisms and calculus and prevent their recolonizing 40. The purpose of the periodontal dressing is to a. Prevent overgrowth of granulation tissue by forming a matrix over the wound b. Make the patient more comfortable after periodontal surgery c. Protect the wound from foreign material d. All of the above 41. in the treatment of a patient with periodontal disease, prognosis is poor when a. Malocclusion is present b. The patient is uncooperative c. Severe gingival inflammation is present d. Periodontal pockets 5mm in depth 42. Which cell control all three stages of inflammation a. Plasma cells b. Red blood cells c. Leukocytes d. Sertoli cells 43. Aside from the lymphocyte, the main cell involved in chronic infection: a. Plasma cells b. Mast cells c. Neutrophils d. Macrophages 44. The purpose of periodontal flaps, except: a. Stop persistent bleeding b. Maintain the sutured position of the flaps c. Improve patient comfort d. Prevent mechanical injury ti healing tissues 45. Gingival fibers consist of: a. Type I collagen b. Type II collagen c. Type III collagen d. Type IV collagen b. c.

Gram-negative aerobic rods Gram-negative anaerobic rods

d.

Gram-positive anaerobic cocci

47. The instrument best suited for definitive root planning is the a. Hoe b. File c. Scaler d. Chisel e. Curette 48. Clinical signs of bruxism, except: a. TMJ symptoms b. Muscle soreness c. Periodontal pocket formation d. Cracked teeth or fillings e. Wear facets on teeth 49. Cellular cementum a. Cementum that is resorbing b. Newly formed cementum c. That part of the cementum that is adjacent to the enamel d. Cementum that contains cementocytes 50. Which of the following is not true regarding cementum? a. It is produced by cells of the periodontal ligament b. The main function is to compensate for tooth wear c. The deposition of new cementum continues periodically throughout life whereby root fractures may be repaired d. The cementum is indistinguishable on radiographs 51. Which of the following teeth is most likely to have two canals? a. Maxillary 1st PM b. Maxillary 2nd PM c. Mandibular 1st PM d. Mandibular 2nd PM 52. Aging of the pulp is marked by an increase in a. Vascularity b. Cellular elements c. Fibrous elements of the pulp d. Non calcified areas within the pulp 53. By which of the following routes can microorganisms gain access to the pulp? a. Anachoresis b. Vascular channels c. Exposed dentinal tubules d. All e. None

b. c.

Acute apical periodontitis An acute exacerbation of a chronically inflamed pulp

54. In pulps undergoing repair, odontoblast may be derived from a. Histiocytes b. Macrophages c. Plasma cells d. Undifferentitated mesenchymal cells e. Any of the above 55. Which of the following is not used for canal irrigation during RCT a. Urea peroxide (Gly-Oxide) b. Hydrogen peroxide c. Sodium hypochlorite d. Calcium hydroxide 56. EDTA, except: It is a chelating agent with the capability to remove the mineralized portion of the smear layer a. Normally it is used in a concentration of I7 o/o b. RC-Prep and EDTAC are other preparations of EDTA c. The decalcifying process induced by EDTA is self-limiting d. It is also an excellent irrigation solution 57. The most acceptable method to achieve adequate root canal debridement a. To obtain clean shavings of the canal b. To attain a clean irrigating solution c. To achieve glassy smooth walls of the canal d. All of the above criteria are reliable e. None of the above criteria is acceptable 58. The most common cause of root canal failure is: a. Incomplete debridement of root canal b. Incomplete disinfection of root canal c. Leakage from a poorly filled canal d. All 59. The primary function of a root canal sealer is to: a. To act as a lubricant, facilitating the placement of gutta percha b. To fill in the discrepancies between the core filling material and the dentin wall c. To exert antibacterial activity d. All mentioned 60. All are objectives of access preparation, except: a. To create a smooth, tapered preparation b. To create a straight line access c. Conservation of tooth structure d. Unroofing of pulp chambers to remove pulp horns 61. Overnight, a patient develops a constant, severe, throbbing pain. It is centered around a tooth that is very painful to touch or percussion. The MOST likely diagnosis is a. Early acute pulp disease d.

An incomplete fracture of the root due to bruxism

62. The precursor of the dental pulp during tooth formation is the a. Golgi zone b. Hertwig sheath c. Dental lamina d. Dental papilla 63. The PRIMARY function of a non-specific root canal medicament, such as CMCP, is to a. Sterilize the root canal b. Destroy certain types of bacteria in the root canal c. Maintain an environment within the root canal that is not conductive to bacterial growth d. Act as an anodyne to the periapical tissues that may have been irritated by canal instrumentation 64. Which of the following has the POOREST prognosis for a traumatized tooth? a. Vertical fracture of the root b. Horizontal fracture of the apical third c. Coronal fracture level with the gingiva d. Coronal fracture involving dentin and the pulp chamber 65. Which 2 bacteria are the most commonly found bacteria in endodontic infections? a. Porphyromonas species and acteroides melaninogenica b. Eubacterium and Fusobacterium c. Actinomycetes and Spirochetes d. Wolinella and Veilonella species 66. Which of the following are not found in pulp tissue? a. Reticulin fibers b. Collagen fibers c. Unmyelinated nerve fibers d. Proprioceptor nerve fibers 67. The absence of which layer in the dentin predisposes it to internal resorption? a. Mantle dentin b. Circumpulpal dentin c. Predentin d. Secondary dentin 68. What surgical procedure is indicated MOST frequently following endodontic therapy on a mandibular molar having both periodontalbifurcation involvement and extensive bifurcation caries a. Hemisection b. Fenestration c. Root amputation d. Apical curettage

69. Which of the following is characteristic of sensory fibers of pulp? a. Can selectively differentiate thermal stimuli b. Have special neuronal endings that are specific for proprioception c. Are non-selective to all stimuli indicating only pain when the threshold has been exceeded d. None of the above 70. An apical lesion that develops as an acute exacerbation of a chronic or suppurative apical periodontitis is called a. An apical cyst b. A phoenix abscess c. An acute apical abscess d. A chronic apical abscess e. Acute apical periodontitis 71. In cases involving conventional endodontics, the most frequent cause of failure is a. External root resorption b. Apical overfilling of the canal c. Inadequate filling of accessory canals d. Incomplete obliferation of the main canal 72. With a mechanically exposed pulp, the BEST prognosis is offered by a. Pulpotomy b. Direct pulp cap c. Indirect pulp cap d. Pulpectomy and root canal obturation e. Resection 73. Pain to percussion is an indication a. That the tooth is vital b. Thath the tooth is non-vital c. Of inflammation in the periodontal ligament d. Of presence of abscess 74. Poor prognosis is determined when a. A tooth is non-vital b. There is referred pain c. There are movable segments on either side of the occlusal crack d. There is a draining abscess 75. The tooth is non-vital, radiograph image exhibits a periradicular radiolucency, negative to percussion but with intermittent drainage through an associated sinus tract, diagnosis is a. Chronic periradicular abscess b. Acute periradicular abscess c. Symptomatic apical periodontitis d. Asymptomatic apical periodontitis 76. An endodontically treated teeth appears discolored because

a.

They have been restored with tooth-colored fillings that have become stained

b. c.

Of leakage in the restoration Improper irrigation

d.

Of presence of crack or fracture

77. After the pulp chamber has been unroofed, the canal orifices are located with a. An explorer b. An excavator c. A #10 file d. Radiograph 78. The smallest canal diameter located 0.5mm to 0.7mm coronal to the canal terminus is called a. Apical foramen b. Radiographic apex c. Apical constriction d. Canal orifice 79. Common method for obturation and can be used in most clinical situations which provides for length control during compaction a. Lateral compaction b. Warm vertical compaction c. Continuous wave compaction d. Warm lateral compaction 80. A material developed specifically as a root-end filling, it has proven to have a superior invitro sealing ability and biocompatibility to other commonly used materials and composed of calcium silicate, bismuth oxide, calcium carbonate, calcium sulfate and calcium aluminate a. Mineral trioxide aggregate b. IRM c. Amalgam d. Calcium e. Hydroxide 81. A band that encircle the external dimension of the residual tooth it significantly reduces the incidence of fracture in a non-vital tooth by reinforcing the tooth at its external surface and dissipating force that concentrates at the narrowest circumference of the tooth a. Core b. Post c. Ferrule d. Undercut 82. They are formed when a localized area of root sheath is fragmented prior to dentin formation, they are clinically significant as they present avenues along which disease in pulp may extend to periodontium or disease in periodontium may extend to pulp a. Lateral canals b. Apical foramens

c. d.

Canal orifices Pulp horns

83. A form of irreversible pulpitis that is usually asymptomatic, it appears as a reddish cauliflower-like outgrowth of connective tissue into caries that has resulted in large occlusal exposure a. Hyperplastic pulpitits b. Internal resorption c. External resorption d. Pulp calcification e. Pulp stone 84. The pulp is transformed in vascularized inflammatory tissue with dentinoclastic activity that resorbs the dentinal walls, advancing from the center to the periphery a. Hyperplastic pulpitis b. Internal resorption c. External resorption d. Pulp calcification e. Pulp stone 85. Treatment for Symptomatic Apical Periodontitis with the following clinical features: normal response to thermal test, marked sensitivity to percussion test and normal PDL space and intact lamina dura a. Root canal treatment b. Pulpotomy c. Pulp capping d. Occlusal adjustment 86. Periapical pathosis which is the result of a long standing lesion that has r...