Extra Multiple Choice Questions PDF

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Hey, good people. Here’s what’s up – try not to sweat too much how many of these questions you get right. If you’re getting a little more than half right for each competency, for example, that’s probably good. Just read the questions, get used to “seeing” the course concepts through the vehicle of multiple choice questions. Get comfortable looking at the course like this. It’s helpful. All of the questions are first; all of the answers are at the bottom. If you have a “why is this the right answer to this question” question, shoot it to [email protected] Strongly consider working with a course instructor, see what types of “working sessions” they might offer. Working with a course instructor to discuss the questions/answers from your Pre-Assessment coaching report is probably an efficient step you can take to ready for this course. Here’s a useful video: 17th Ed. Supplemental Video Competency One - Individual Behavior Ch 5-7 CHAPTER 5 QUESTIONS

1) Esther Lugo has gone for an interview at an advertising firm in Manhattan and has been asked to complete a self-report survey to help interviewers understand if she is the right candidate for the job. From the interview, they have found that she is extroverted, empathic, scrupulous, and cooperative in nature, which are key characteristics needed for the job. These characteristics about Lugo indicate her ________. A) talent B) skill C) knowledge D) genealogy E) personality 2) Which of the following does the heredity approach state? A) An individual's personality is determined by the social background one is brought up in. B) An individual's personality is determined by molecular structure of the genes. C) An individual's personality is influenced by the economic settings he/she is surrounded by. D) A person's personality traits are created by the company he/she keeps i.e., his/her friends and family. E) A person's personality traits are largely influenced by global trends and characteristics.

3) Elaine Chamberlain works as a research executive at an environmental organization. Though her colleagues are helpful and friendly, because of her shy nature, she often eats her lunch at her desk and has limited interactions with them. She is glad that her nature of work does not require

her to interact with her co-workers to a high extent. Which of the following types is Chamberlain most likely to be characterized as according to the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator (MBTI) classification? A) social B) introverted C) exhibitionist D) gregarious E) extraverted 4) Which dimension of the Big Five model is a measure of reliability? A) extraversion B) agreeableness C) conscientiousness D) openness to experience E) emotional stability 5) Which of the following statements is true about people with positive core self-evaluations? A) They are committed to their goals and set ambitious goals. B) They view themselves as powerless over their environment. C) They tend to question their capabilities and capacities. D) They lack persistence to achieve goals. E) They tend to be disliked by superiors and co-workers. 6) Individuals scoring ________ have a strong ability to adjust their behavior to external, situational factors and can behave differently in different situations. A) low on openness B) high on narcissism C) low on agreeableness D) high on self-monitoring E) low on conscientiousness

7) Milton Rokeach created the Rokeach Value Survey (RVS), which consists of two sets of values, namely ________ values and ________ values. A) instrumental; terminal B) fluid; stable C) flexible; essential D) unique; general E) flexible; enduring 8) Which of the following is an instrumental value according to the Rokeach Value Survey? A) economic success B) social recognition C) personal discipline D) happiness E) meaning in life

CHAPTER SIX QUESTIONS

1) ________ is the process by which individuals organize and interpret their sensory impressions in order to give meaning to their environment. A) Sensation B) Impression C) Apprehension D) Attribution E) Perception 2) Alicia Akers works as a marketing executive. She always talks in a high pitch and often draws a lot of attention wherever she is. Which of the following statements best explains the reason behind people noticing Akers? A) Perception of reality depends on the perceiver's past experiences. B) Perception of reality depends on the perceiver's personality. C) Characteristics of the target affect people's perception. D) The time at which we observe behavior affects perception. E) Motives and interests of the perceiver affects perception of behavior. 3) A manager doing performance appraisals gives more weight to recent employee behaviors than to behaviors of six or nine months earlier. This shows that the manager's perception is affected by ________ bias. A) self-serving B) availability C) impact D) distinction E) hindsight 4) Which of the following is an example of internally (intrinsically) caused behavior? A) An employee was late for a team meeting because of a heavy downpour. B) An employee was laid off because the company was attempting to cut costs by laying off employees. C) An employee was fired from work because he violated a company policy. D) An employee could not attend an interview because of a delayed flight. E) An employee could not come to work because he met with an accident.

5) Janice Yoder works in an environmental campaigning organization and often needs to interact with a large team for project implementation activities. However, she always finds it difficult to work as a part of a team. She always seems to have major disagreements with team members which lead to antagonistic relations between them. Though she has moved from one team to another, her relations with colleagues always seem to be hostile and cold. How would the attribution theory describe this behavior? A) low on consensus

B) high on reliability C) high on adaptability D) high on consistency E) high on distinctiveness 6) Johanna Springer, who works as a sales executive at Pascal's Bank, is upset at the way her manager, Emma Womack, always calls her in for one-on-one meetings to discuss her underperformance. Though Springer makes a higher number of sales calls and works longer hours than last year, her sales figures are still low. She knows that the main reason behind her underperformance is the recent economic meltdown in the country. However, her manager feels that Springer's underperformance is the result of her laid-back attitude and has nothing to do with external factors. In this situation, Womack's behavior is characterized by a(n) ________. A) anchoring bias B) contrast effect C) fundamental attribution error D) self-fulfilling prophecy E) Pygmalion effect 7) Jane Allen, a campaign manager at a non-profit organization, often takes full credit for project successes even when her team members' contributions play a big role in achieving milestones. However, when projects receive setbacks, she blames her team members and sometimes states that the situation was beyond her control. Allen's behavior is an example of ________ bias. A) impact B) anchoring C) confirmation D) distinction E) self-serving 8) You are more likely to notice a car like your own due to ________. A) stereotyping B) self-serving bias C) halo effect D) selective perception E) contrast effect

9) A process of making decisions by constructing simplified models that extract the essential features from problems without capturing all their complexity is known as ________. A) optimal decision making B) intuitive decision making C) bounded rationality D) rational decision making E) incremental decision making

10) Sarah Covington, a sales manager at Synergy Corporation Bank, often keeps low expectations of her team. She feels that they are underqualified for their job and do not have substantial experience to sell a large number of accounts. Covington's team does not feel motivated enough and invariably underperforms and misses targets on a regular basis. Which of the following concepts best explains Covington's team's poor performance? A) hindsight bias B) self-fulfilling prophecy C) confirmation bias D) contrast effect E) bandwagon effect CHAPTER 7 QUESTIONS 1) ________ is defined as the processes that account for an individual's intensity, direction, and persistence of effort toward attaining a goal. A) Leadership B) Management C) Learning D) Emotional labor E) Motivation 2) According to Maslow's hierarchy of needs, which of the following is a lower level need? A) social-belongingness B) safety-security C) esteem D) self-actualization E) recognition 3) Which of the following is a motivational factor according to Herzberg's two-factor theory? A) quality of supervision B) recognition C) pay D) relationships with others E) company policies

4) Which of the following statements is true according to McClelland's theory of needs? A) People with a high achievement need prefer tasks that have a high level of risk. B) People with a high achievement need are interested in motivating others to do well. C) People with a high need for power and affiliation often make good managers in large firms. D) People with a high achievement need experience great satisfaction from success that comes by luck. E) People with a high need for power and a low need for affiliation often make the best

managers. 5) Which of the following theories proposes that people prefer to feel they have control over their actions, so anything that makes a previously enjoyed task feel more like an obligation than a freely chosen activity will undermine motivation? A) self-serving theory B) motivation-hygiene theory C) two-factor theory D) self-determination theory E) goal setting theory 6) According to goal-setting theory, goals are more likely to have a stronger impact on performance when ________. A) goals are kept private B) where feedback on the tasks is not given C) when the individual has an external locus of control D) goals are easy rather than difficult E) goals are specific as opposed to general 7) ________ refers to an individual's belief that he or she is capable of performing a task. A) Emotional contagion B) Affect intensity C) Self-efficacy D) Self-determination E) Reinforcement 8) Which of the following ways of increasing self-efficacy is generally used by motivational speakers? A) arousal B) enactive mastery C) focused training D) vicarious modeling E) verbal persuasión

9) To get the best results while using reinforcement theory, rewards should be ________. A) small and given only once B) large and given at irregular intervals C) given prior to the desired behavior response D) given immediately following the desired behavior E) presented publicly with a large number of witnesses

10) In equity theory, individuals assess the ________. A) cost-benefit ratio B) efficiency-effectiveness trade-off C) quantity-quality trade-off D) outcome-input ratio E) quality of outcome 11) Oscar is looking for a new job. He used to be the company's top sales representative and was eagerly expecting to be promoted. However, one of the regional manager's friends was promoted to district manager instead. According to the expectancy theory, Oscar's dissatisfaction with his current job stems from a breakdown in the ________ relationship. A) performance-reward B) effort-performance C) reward-personal goal D) satisfaction-effort E) personal goal-self actualization Competency Two – Group Development 9,14 Chapter 9 Questions 1) Which of the following is true regarding formal groups? A) They are natural formations that arise in response to the need for social contact. B) They lack clearly defined structures and roles for their members. C) They have negligible impact on employee performance and behavior. D) A group of people who come together to protest against a new law make up a formal group. E) They are marked by stipulated behaviors in pursuit of organizational goals. 2) Our tendency to take personal pride or offense for the accomplishments of a group we are a part of is the territory of the ________ theory. A) social exchange B) expectancy C) social identity D) reinforcement E) equity

3) Most people assume that police officers should behave in a lawful manner, refrain from demonstrating favoritism to any particular group, and do their best to uphold the law. Which of the following terms best represents these beliefs? A) diversity B) similarity C) role expectation D) uncertainty reduction

E) dispersion of responsibility 4) Michael is devout and very active in his church. He is also a very dedicated employee. His manager offers him a promotion, but the new role will require him to work Sundays. Michael would like the promotion but realizes that it would force him to miss some church activities. In this situation, Michael is most likely to experience ________. A) role conflict B) social loafing C) groupthink D) role fuzziness E) groupshift 5) ________ refers to the adjustment of one's behavior to align with the norms of the group. A) Deviance B) Conflict C) Divergence D) Conformity E) Appearance 6) According to status characteristics theory, which of the following factors does not determine status? A) control over the resources needed by the group B) contribution to goals C) ability to conform to group norms D) personality E) talent 7) Which of the following is an effective means of countering social loafing? A) increasing the rewards the group is given if it succeeds B) increasing the amount by which the group's progress is monitored C) ensuring that individual contributions to the group's outcome are identified D) increasing the size of the group E) increasing the group's workload

8) ________ refers to the degree to which members are attracted to each other and motivated to stay in the group. A) Assertiveness B) Social dominance C) Authoritativeness D) Cohesiveness E) Diversity

9) When compared to individual decision making, group decision making has a disadvantage in the area of ________. A) diversity B) creativity C) acceptance of final solutions D) speed E) accuracy 10) Which of the following steps can be taken by a manager to minimize groupthink? A) increase the group size B) encourage group leaders to develop a stronger sense of group identity C) prevent all team members from engaging in a critical evaluation of ideas at the beginning D) ask the group members to first focus on the positives of an alternative rather than the negatives E) seek input from employees before the group leader presents his or her opinions 11) In discussing a given set of alternatives and arriving at a solution, group members tend to exaggerate the initial positions they hold. This phenomenon is called ________. A) social desirability bias B) groupshift C) halo effect D) social loafing E) ingroup favoritism Chapter 14 Questions 1) According to the traditional view of conflict, all conflict is ________. A) harmful and must be avoided B) natural and helps generate discussion C) necessary and improves creativity of a group D) healthy and improves productivity E) rational and cannot be avoided

2) Studies demonstrate that ________ conflicts are almost always ________. A) relationship; formal B) relationship; informal C) relationship; dysfunctional D) relationship; functional E) task; reactive

3) A party who seeks to appease an opponent may be willing to place the opponent's interests above his or her own, sacrificing to maintain the relationship. We refer to this conflict-handling intention as ________. A) collaborating B) avoiding C) compromising D) competing E) accommodating 4) Conflict is dysfunctional when it ________. A) provides a medium to release tension B) reduces group cohesiveness C) fosters an environment of self-evaluation D) provides a means for expressing frustration E) leads to change

Competency Three – Teams and Team Building Ch 10 1) What is the primary purpose of a workgroup? A) to generate positive synergy B) to improve collective performance C) to inculcate a climate of trust D) to share relevant information E) to enhance team efficacy 2) A work team is characterized by ________. A) the goal of sharing information B) the presence of neutral to negative synergy C) the availability of complementary skills among members D) the individual accountability for outcomes and results E) the mere accumulation of individual efforts

3) A team consists of employees from the same department who meet for a few hours each week to discuss ways of improving the work environment, but they do not have the authority to unilaterally implement any of their suggestions. This is most likely to be a(n) ________ team. A) cross-functional B) virtual C) self-managed work

D) problem-solving E) independent 4) Which of the following statements is true regarding self-managed work teams? A) Self-managed work teams typically consist of forty to fifty employees. B) Self-managed work teams typically manage conflicts well. C) Members of self-managed work teams typically report lower job satisfaction. D) Self-managed work teams are typically composed of employees from different departments who work independent of each other. E) In the case of self-managed work teams, supervisory positions take on decreased importance. 5) GoAir, a low-cost airline, has created a team made up of employees from production, planning, quality control, tooling, design engineering, and information systems to automate the company's C-17 program. This team is most likely to be an example of a ________ team. A) command B) cross-functional C) self-managed work D) problem-solving E) task 6) Which of the following types of teams allows for collaboration between team members who are physically dispersed? A) problem-solving teams B) self-managed work teams C) task teams D) virtual teams E) command teams 7) The team effectiveness model classifies the key components of effective teams into three general categories: context, composition, and process. Which of the following variables belongs to the composition category? A) adequate resources B) conflict level C) team efficacy D) performance evaluation system E) personality of team members

8) Which of the following statements is true regarding team composition? A) A team's performance is merely the summation of its individual members' abilities. B) High-ability teams find it hard to adapt to changing situations. C) Agreeableness is the only personality dimension that aids the ability to work in groups. D) In successful teams, members should be selected to ensure all the various roles are filled. E) A high-ability team will function well irrespective of the deficits in the abilities of the leader.

9) Which of the following is true with regard to the impact of diversity on team effectiveness? A) High levels of diversity among team members benefit the group immediately B) Diversity has no impact on team performance. C) Leadership has a negligible role to play in diverse teams because the members manage themselves autonomously. D) Elements of diversity are undesirable as they interfere with team processes in the long run. E) Cultural diversity serves as an asset for tasks that call for a variety of viewpoints once the team has worked out its differences. 10) Which of the following statements represents a strategy that is desirable for making effective teams? A) Combining people with extremely high and extremely low abilities helps make a balanced team. B) Individuals should ideally have one role in a team as multiple roles reduce their effectiveness and efficiency. C) Diversity should be avoided as diverse teams involve a lot of conflict in day-to-day functioning. D) If a natural work unit is larger, its size must be maintained for the nature of the job requires large teams. E) The preference of individual members to work as a part of groups must be considered when forming teams. 11) Which of the following is not a common characteristic of an effective team? A) The team has adequate resources. B) The team has effective leadership. C) The team has a climate of trust. D) The team has a performance and evaluation system that reflects team contributions...