Ig (8th Edition) Med-Surg C65 Assessment of the Renal Urinary Systems PDF

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A nurse reviews the urinalysis of a client and notes the presence of glucose. Which action should the nurse take? a. a. Document findings and continue to monitor the client. b. b. Contact the provider and recommend a 24-hour urine test. c. c. Review the client's recent dietary selections. d. d. Perf...

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1. A nurse reviews the urinalysis of a client and notes the presence of glucose.

Which action should the nurse take? a. a. Document findings and continue to monitor the client. b. b. Contact the provider and recommend a 24-hour urine test. c. c. Review the client's recent dietary selections. d. d. Perform a capillary artery glucose assessment. Answer: Perform a capillary artery glucose assessment. Glucose normally is not found in the urine. The normal renal threshold for glucose is about 220 mg/dL, which means that a person whose blood glucose is less than 220 mg/dL will not have glucose in the urine. A positive finding for glucose on urinalysis indicates high blood sugar. The most appropriate action would be to perform a capillary artery glucose assessment. The client needs further evaluation for this abnormal result; therefore, documenting and continuing to monitor is not appropriate. Requesting a 24-hour urine test or reviewing the client's dietary selections will not assist the nurse to make a clinical decision related to this abnormality. 2. A nurse reviews the health history of a client with an oversecretion of renin.

Which disorder should the nurse correlate with this assessment finding? a. a. Alzheimer's disease b. b. Hypertension c. c. Diabetes mellitus d. d. Viral hepatitis Answer: Hypertension Renin is secreted when special cells in the distal convoluted tubule, called the macula densa, sense changes in blood volume and pressure. When the macula densa cells sense that blood volume, blood pressure, or blood sodium levels are low, renin is secreted. Renin then converts angiotensinogen into angiotensin I. This leads to a series of reactions that cause secretion of the hormone aldosterone. This hormone increases kidney reabsorption of sodium and water, increasing blood pressure, blood volume, and blood sodium levels. Inappropriate or excessive renin secretion is a major cause of persistent hypertension. Renin has no impact on Alzheimer's disease, diabetes mellitus, or viral hepatitis. 3. A nurse reviews the urinalysis results of a client and notes a urine osmolality of

1200 mOsm/L. Which action should the nurse take? a. a. Contact the provider and recommend a low-sodium diet. b. b. Prepare to administer an intravenous diuretic. c. c. Obtain a suction device and implement seizure precautions. d. d. Encourage the client to drink more fluids.

Answer: Encourage the client to drink more fluids. Normal urine osmolality ranges from 300 to 900 mOsm/L. This client's urine is more concentrated, indicating dehydration. The nurse should encourage the client to drink more water. Dehydration can be associated with elevated serum sodium levels. Although a low-sodium diet may be appropriate for this client, this diet change will not have a significant impact on urine osmolality. A diuretic would increase urine output and decrease urine osmolality further. Low serum sodium levels, not elevated serum levels, place the client at risk for seizure activity. These options would further contribute to the client's dehydration or elevate the osmolality. 4. A nurse assesses a client with renal insufficiency and a low red blood cell count.

The client asks, "Is my anemia related to the renal insufficiency?" How should the nurse respond? a. a. "Red blood cells produce erythropoietin, which increases blood flow to the kidneys." b. b. "Your anemia and renal insufficiency are related to inadequate vitamin D and a loss of bone density." c. c. "Erythropoietin is usually released from the kidneys and stimulates red blood cell production in the bone marrow." d. d. "Kidney insufficiency inhibits active transportation of red blood cells throughout the blood." Answer: "Erythropoietin is usually released from the kidneys and stimulates red blood cell production in the bone marrow." Erythropoietin is produced in the kidney and is released in response to decreased oxygen tension in the renal blood supply. Erythropoietin stimulates red blood cell production in the bone marrow. Anemia and renal insufficiency are not manifestations of vitamin D deficiency. The kidneys do not play a role in the transportation of red blood cells or any other cells in the blood. 5. A nurse contacts the health care provider after reviewing a client's laboratory

results and noting a blood urea nitrogen (BUN) of 35 mg/dL and a creatinine of 1.0 mg/dL. For which action should the nurse recommend a prescription? a. a. Intravenous fluids b. b. Hemodialysis c. c. Fluid restriction d. d. Urine culture and sensitivity Answer: Intravenous fluids Normal BUN is 10 to 20 mg/dL. Normal creatinine is 0.6 to 1.2 mg/dL (males) or 0.5 to 1.1 mg/dL (females). Creatinine is more specific for kidney function than

BUN, because BUN can be affected by several factors (dehydration, high-protein diet, and catabolism). This client's creatinine is normal, which suggests a non-renal cause for the elevated BUN. A common cause of increased BUN is dehydration, so the nurse should anticipate giving the client more fluids, not placing the client on fluid restrictions. Hemodialysis is not an appropriate treatment for dehydration. The lab results do not indicate an infection; therefore, a urine culture and sensitivity is not appropriate 6. A nurse cares for a client with an increased blood urea nitrogen (BUN)/creatinine

ratio. Which action should the nurse take first? a. a. Assess the client's dietary habits. b. b. Inquire about the use of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs). c. c. Hold the client's metformin (Glucophage). d. d. Contact the health care provider immediately. Answer: Assess the client's dietary habits. An elevated BUN/creatinine ratio is often indicative of dehydration, urinary obstruction, catabolism, or a high protein diet. The nurse should inquire about the client's dietary habits. Kidney damage related to NSAID use most likely would manifest with elevations in both BUN and creatinine, but no change in the ratio. The nurse should obtain more assessment data before holding any medications or contacting the provider. 7. A nurse cares for a client with a urine specific gravity of 1.040. Which action

should the nurse take? a. a. Obtain a urine culture and sensitivity. b. b. Place the client on restricted fluids. c. c. Assess the client's creatinine level. d. d. Increase the client's fluid intake. Answer: Increase the client's fluid intake. Normal specific gravity for urine is 1.005 to 1.030. A high specific gravity can occur with dehydration, decreased kidney blood flow (often because of dehydration), and the presence of antidiuretic hormone. Increasing the client's fluid intake would be a beneficial intervention. Assessing the creatinine or obtaining a urine culture would not provide data necessary for the nurse to make a clinical decision. 8. A nurse reviews laboratory results for a client who was admitted for a myocardial

infarction and cardiogenic shock 2 days ago. Which laboratory test result should the nurse expect to find? a. a. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) of 52 mg/dL

b. b. Creatinine of 2.3 mg/dL c. c. BUN of 10 mg/dL d. d. BUN/creatinine ratio of 8:1

Answer: Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) of 52 mg/dL Shock leads to decreased renal perfusion. An elevated BUN accompanies this condition. The creatinine should be normal because no kidney damage occurred. A low BUN signifies overhydration, malnutrition, or liver damage. A low BUN/creatinine ratio indicates fluid volume excess or acute renal tubular acidosis. 9. A nurse cares for a client with a urine specific gravity of 1.018. Which action

should the nurse take? a. a. Evaluate the client's intake and output for the past 24 hours. b. b. Document the finding in the chart and continue to monitor. c. c. Obtain a specimen for a urine culture and sensitivity. d. d. Encourage the client to drink more fluids, especially water. Answer: Document the finding in the chart and continue to monitor. This specific gravity is within the normal range for urine. There is no need to evaluate the client's intake and output, obtain a urine specimen, or increase fluid intake 10. A nurse cares for a client who has elevated levels of antidiuretic hormone (ADH).

Which disorder should the nurse identify as a trigger for the release of this hormone? a. a. Pneumonia b. b. Dehydration c. c. Renal failure d. d. Edema Answer: Dehydration ADH increases tubular permeability to water, leading to absorption of more water into the capillaries. ADH is triggered by a rising extracellular fluid osmolarity, as occurs in dehydration. Pneumonia, renal failure, and edema would not trigger the release of ADH

11. A nurse reviews a female client's laboratory results. Which results from the

client's urinalysis should the nurse recognize as abnormal? a. a. pH 5.6 b. b. Ketone bodies present c. c. Specific gravity of 1.020 d. d. Clear and yellow color Answer: Ketone bodies present Ketone bodies are by-products of incomplete metabolism of fatty acids. Normally no ketones are present in urine. Ketone bodies are produced when fat sources are used instead of glucose to provide cellular energy. A pH between 4.6 and 8, specific gravity between 1.005 and 1.030, and clear yellow urine are normal findings for a female client's urinalysis. 12. A nurse reviews the allergy list of a client who is scheduled for an intravenous

urography. Which client allergy should alert the nurse to urgently contact the health care provider? a. a. Seafood b. b. Penicillin c. c. Bee stings d. d. Red food dye Answer: Seafood Clients with seafood allergies often have severe allergic reactions to the standard dyes used during intravenous urography. The other allergies have no impact on the client's safety during an intravenous urography. 13. A nurse cares for a client with diabetes mellitus who is prescribed metformin

(Glucophage) and is scheduled for an intravenous urography. Which action should the nurse take first? a. a. Contact the provider and recommend discontinuing the metformin. b. b. Keep the client NPO for at least 6 hours prior to the examination. c. c. Check the client's capillary artery blood glucose and administer prescribed insulin. d. d. Administer intravenous fluids to dilute and increase the excretion of dye. Answer: Contact the provider and recommend discontinuing the metformin. Metformin can cause lactic acidosis and renal impairment as the result of an interaction with the dye. This drug must be discontinued for 48 hours before the procedure and not started again after the procedure until urine output is well established. The client's health care provider needs to provide alternative therapy for the client until the metformin can be resumed. Keeping the client NPO, checking the client's blood glucose, and administering intravenous fluids should

be part of the client's plan of care, but are not the priority, as the examination should not occur while the client is still taking metformin. 14. A nurse teaches a client who is recovering from a urography. Which instruction

should the nurse include in this client's discharge teaching? a. a. "Avoid direct contact with your urine for 24 hours until the radioisotope clears." b. b. "You may have some dribbling of urine for several weeks after this procedure." c. c. "Be sure to drink at least 3 liters of fluids today to help eliminate the dye faster." d. d. "Your skin may become slightly yellow from the dye used in this procedure." Answer: "Be sure to drink at least 3 liters of fluids today to help eliminate the dye faster." Dyes used in urography are potentially nephrotoxic. A large fluid intake will help the client eliminate the dye rapidly. Dyes used in urography are not radioactive, the client should not experience any dribbling of urine, and the dye should not change the color of the client's skin. 15. A nurse cares for a client who is recovering from a closed percutaneous kidney

biopsy. The client states, "My pain has suddenly increased from a 3 to a 10 on a scale of 0 to 10." Which action should the nurse take first? a. a. Reposition the client on the operative side. b. b. Administer the prescribed opioid analgesic. c. c. Assess the pulse rate and blood pressure. d. d. Examine the color of the client's urine. Answer: Assess the pulse rate and blood pressure. An increase in the intensity of pain after a percutaneous kidney biopsy is a symptom of internal hemorrhage. A change in vital signs can indicate that hemorrhage is occurring. Before other actions, the nurse must assess the client's hemodynamic status. 16. A nurse obtains a sterile urine specimen from a client's Foley catheter. After

applying a clamp to the drainage tubing distal to the injection port, which action should the nurse take next? a. a. Clamp another section of the tube to create a fixed sample section for retrieval. b. b. Insert a syringe into the injection port and aspirate the quantity of urine required.

c. c. Clean the injection port cap of the drainage tubing with povidone-iodine

solution. d. d. Withdraw 10 mL of urine and discard it; then withdraw a fresh sample of urine. Answer: Clean the injection port cap of the drainage tubing with povidone-iodine solution. It is important to clean the injection port cap of the catheter drainage tubing with an appropriate antiseptic, such as povidone-iodine solution or alcohol. This will help prevent surface contamination before injection of the syringe. The urine sample should be collected directly from the catheter; therefore, a second clamp to create a sample section would not be appropriate. Every sample from the catheter is usable; there is the need to discard the first sample. 17. A nurse cares for a client who is having trouble voiding. The client states, "I

cannot urinate in public places." How should the nurse respond? a. a. "I will turn on the faucet in the bathroom to help stimulate your urination." b. b. "I can recommend a prescription for a diuretic to improve your urine output." c. c. "I'll move you to a room with a private bathroom to increase your comfort." d. d. "I will close the curtain to provide you with as much privacy as possible." Answer: "I will close the curtain to provide you with as much privacy as possible." The nurse should provide privacy to clients who may be uncomfortable or have issues related to elimination or the urogenital area. Turning on the faucet and administering a diuretic will not address the client's concern. Although moving the client to a private room with a private bathroom would be nice, this is not realistic. The nurse needs to provide as much privacy as possible within the client's current room. 18. After delegating to an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) the task of

completing a bladder scan examination for a client, the nurse evaluates the UAP's performance. Which action by the UAP indicates the nurse must provide additional instructions when delegating this task? a. a. Selecting the female icon for all female clients and male icon for all male clients b. b. Telling the client, "This test measures the amount of urine in your bladder."

c. c. Applying ultrasound gel to the scanning head and removing it when

finished d. d. Taking at least two readings using the aiming icon to place the scanning head Answer: Selecting the female icon for all female clients and male icon for all male clients The UAP should use the female icon for women who have not had a hysterectomy. This allows the scanner to subtract the volume of the uterus from readings. If a woman has had a hysterectomy, the UAP should choose the male icon. The UAP should explain the procedure to the client, apply gel to the scanning head and clean it after use, and take at least two readings 19. A nurse reviews a client's laboratory results. Which results from the client's urinalysis should the nurse identify as normal? (Select all that apply.) a. a. pH: 6 b. b. Specific gravity: 1.015 c. c. Protein: 1.2 mg/dL d. d. Glucose: negative e. e. Nitrate: small f. f. Leukocyte esterase: positive Answer: pH: 6 Specific gravity: 1.015 Glucose: negative The pH, specific gravity, and glucose are all within normal ranges. The other values are abnormal. 20. A nurse assesses clients on the medical-surgical unit. Which clients are at risk

for kidney problems? (Select all that apply.) a. a. A 24-year-old pregnant woman prescribed prenatal vitamins b. b. A 32-year-old bodybuilder taking synthetic creatine supplements c. c. A 56-year-old who is taking metformin for diabetes mellitus d. d. A 68-year-old taking high-dose nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) for chronic back pain e. e. A 75-year-old with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who is prescribed an albuterol nebulizer Answer: A 32-year-old bodybuilder taking synthetic creatine supplements A 56-year-old who is taking metformin for diabetes mellitus A 68-year-old taking high-dose nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) for chronic back pain Many medications can affect kidney function. Clients who take synthetic creatine supplements, metformin, and high-dose or long-term NSAIDs are at risk for

kidney dysfunction. Prenatal vitamins and albuterol nebulizers do not place these clients at risk. 21. A nurse assesses a client recovering from a cystoscopy. Which assessment

findings should alert the nurse to urgently contact the health care provider? (Select all that apply.) a. a. Decrease in urine output b. b. Tolerating oral fluids c. c. Prescription for metformin d. d. Blood clots present in the urine e. e. Burning sensation when urinating Answer: Decrease in urine output Blood clots present in the urine The nurse should monitor urine output and contact the provider if urine output decreases or becomes absent. The nurse should also assess for blood in the client's urine. The urine may be pink-tinged, but gross bleeding or blood clots should not be present. If bleeding is present, the nurse should urgently contact the provider. Tolerating oral fluids is a positive outcome and does not need intervention. Metformin would be a concern if the client received dye; no dye is used in a cystoscopy procedure. The client may experience a burning sensation when urinating after this procedure; this would not require a call to the provider 22. A nurse prepares a client for a percutaneous kidney biopsy. Which actions

should the nurse take prior to this procedure? (Select all that apply.) a. a. Keep the client NPO for 4 to 6 hours. b. b. Obtain coagulation study results. c. c. Maintain strict bedrest in a supine position. d. d. Assess for blood in the client's urine. e. e. Administer antihypertensive medications. Answer: Keep the client NPO for 4 to 6 hours. Obtain coagulation study results. Administer antihypertensive medications. Prior to a percutaneous kidney biopsy, the client should be NPO for 4 to 6 hours. Coagulation studies should be completed to prevent bleeding after the biopsy. Blood pressure medications should be administered to prevent hypertension before and after the procedure. There is no need to keep the client on bedrest or assess for blood in the client's urine prior to the procedure; these interventions should be implemented after a percutaneous kidney biopsy.

23. A nurse plans care for an older adult client. Which interventions should the nurse

include in this client's plan of care to promote kidney health? (Select all that apply.) a. a. Ensure adequate fluid intake. b. b. Leave the bathroom light on at night. c. c. Encourage use of the toilet every 6 hours. d. d. Delegate bladder training instructions to the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP). e. e. Provide thorough perineal care after each voiding. f. f. Assess for urinary retention and urinary tract infection. Answer: Ensure adequate fluid intake. Leave the bathroom light on at night. Provide thorough perineal care after each voiding. Assess for urinary retention and urinary tract infection. The nurse should ensure that the client receives adequate fluid intake and has adequate lighting to ambulate safely to the bathroom at night, encourage the cli...