Mastering A&P Answers PDF

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Topic 1: Anatomical terms and Integumentary system 1. Which of the following is incorrectly paired? a. Tactile cells: anchor the skin to the body 2. Eyebrow hairs are always shorter than hairs on your head because ________. a. eyebrow follicles are only active for a few months 3. The reason the hypodermis acts as a shock absorber is that ________. a. the major part of its makeup is adipose, which serves as an effective shock absorber 4. The most common type of skin cancer is: a. basal cell carcinoma. 5. The dermis is rich in blood vessels and nerve fibers. a. True 6. Your friend broke a rib while playing in a pickup basketball game. Which of the following descriptions helps you understand precisely where he is experiencing pain? a. extreme discomfort just lateral to the sternum on the left side 7. A surgeon removed a section of tissue along a transverse plane for microscopic examination. What are two names that correctly identify this section? a. Cross section or transverse section 8. Which of the following can be described as cuts made diagonally between the horizontal and the vertical planes? a. Oblique sections 9. Which directional term is used to describe the relationship of the skin relative to the skeletal muscles? a. superficial 10. Male pattern baldness has a genetic switch that turns on in response to ________. a. male hormones 11. We are told that every surface we touch is teeming with bacterial cells, and bacteria are found in the pools we swim in, the water we wash with, and on the hands of friends. Why are we not inundated with bacterial infections on our skin? a. all of these answers are correct 12. A needle would pierce the epidermal layers of the forearm in which order? a. corneum, granulosum, spinosum, basale 13. Burns are devastating and debilitating because of loss of fluids and electrolytes from the body. How do physicians estimate the extent of burn damage associated with such dangerous fluid loss? a. by using the "rule of nines" 14. The protein found in large amounts in the outermost layer of epidermal cells is collagen. a. False 15. The 68-year-old patient was admitted to the hospital medical floor with a diagnosis of chronic bronchitis. His wife asks the nurse why his skin looks blue. How would you explain cyanosis to this patient and his wife?

a. Cyanosis is a dusky bluish or grayish discoloration of the skin and mucous membranes that occurs with reduced oxygen levels. 16. A light-skinned person may appear pink when they become over heated. The best explanation for this is ________. a. the blood vessels of the dermis have undergone vasodilation, bringing a greater volume of blood to the skin 17. The major regions of a hair shaft include all of the following except ________. a. external root sheath 18. The anatomical position is characterized by all of the following except ________. a. palms turned posteriorly 19.

20. Susan sat out in the sun watching a baseball game. She developed small blisters on her unprotected shoulders and neck. What type of burn is represented by the formation of the blisters? a. second-degree burn 21. In thick skin, you would expect the __________ to be more prominent than it is in thin skin. a. stratum lucidum 22. The thoracic cavity contains the ________. It is found ________ to the vertebral cavity. a. heart and lungs; anterior 23. Albinos commonly contract skin cancer. What seems to be the reason, and what can be done to reduce the risk of skin cancer? a. Albinos lack melanin and have thus lost their main defense against the damaging UV light that can cause skin cancer. They can cover all body areas and avoid bright sunlight.

24. The dermis has two major layers; which of the following constitutes 80% of the dermis and is responsible for the tension lines in the skin? a. the reticular layer 25. Despite its apparent durability, the dermis is subject to tearing. How might a person know that the dermis has been stretched and/or torn? a. The appearance of visible, silvery-white scars is an indication of stretching of the dermis. 26. ________ are pigment-producing cells in the epidermis. a. melanocytes 27. Which layer of the epidermis is responsible for regenerating the most superficial layers? a. stratum basale 28.

29. Which skin appendages aid in cooling the skin when the body temperature or the external environmental temperature is high? a. eccrine sweat glands 30. The composition of the secretions of the eccrine glands is ________. a. 99% water, sodium chloride, trace amounts of wastes, and vitamin C 31. What is the most common cell type in the epidermis? a. keratinocytes

Topic 2: Bone Tissue 1. Which of the following is not a function of the skeletal system and bone tissue? a. communication 2. An imbalance that activates these bone cells would lead to a loss of bone density. a. osteoclasts 3.

4. Which type of cartilage is NOT properly matched with its function? a. skeletal cartilage; reinforce airways 5. At an archeological site you discover a bone that is cylindrical in shape, about one inch long and a quarter of an inch wide. Choose the correct classification. a. long 6. Match the following terms to their definitions: a. spine: sharp, slender, often pointed projection

b. foramen: round or oval opening through a bone c. facet: smooth, nearly flat articular surface d. ramus: armlike bar of bone e. trochanter: very large, blunt, irregularly shaped process 7. The main role of the axial skeleton is to protect and support vital organs. Is this statement true or false? a. True 8. Which of the following statements is FALSE? a. Long bones include all limb bones except the patella. 9. The periosteum is a tissue that serves only to protect the bone because it is not supplied with nerves or blood vessels. a. False 10. What is the structural unit of compact bone? a. the osteon 11. Which pairing is NOT correct? a. axial skeleton; bones of the limbs 12. Which of the following statements is true? a. After 21, most people will not experience longitudinal growth of bones. 13. During infancy and childhood, the most important stimulus of epiphyseal plate activity is __________. a. growth hormone 14. What would be the physical sign that a bone CANNOT continue longitudinal growth? a. an epiphyseal line 15. Which structure allows the diaphysis of the bone to increase in length until early childhood? a. epiphyseal plate 16. The collagen in the osteoid bone matrix makes the overall bone matrix stronger by allowing flexibility. Is this statement true or false? a. true 17. Choose which bone marking type would likely increase in size when a weight lifter repeatedly exercises muscles that attach to it. a. trochanter 18. Bones do NOT have a role in __________. a. waste removal

19.

20. What tissue forms the model for endochondrial ossification? a. cartilage 21. Lengthwise, long bone growth during infancy and youth is exclusively through ________. a. interstitial growth of the epiphyseal plates 22. Which statement is NOT true about the osteon? a. The osteon absorbs stress in all directions equally. 23. Bones are covered and lined by a protective tissue called periosteum. The inner (osteogenic) layer consists primarily of ________. a. osteogenic cells 24. The central (Haversian) canal that runs through the core of each osteon is the site of ________. a. blood vessels and nerve fibers 25. Flat bones consist of spongy bone sandwiched between compact bone. Is this statement true or false? a. true 26. The process of bones increasing in thickness is known as ________.

a. appositional growth 27. Which of the following refers to a bone disorder found most often in the aged and resulting in the bones becoming porous and light? a. osteoporosis 28. Cranial bones develop ________. a. within fibrous membranes 29. Which of the following is UNLIKELY to affect bone remodeling? a. glucagon

Topic 3 + 4: Human Skeleton and Joints 1.

2.

3. A person who has been diagnosed with a sprained ankle has an injury to the ligaments that attach to that joint. a. true 4. Functional classification of joints is based on ________. a. the amount of movement allowed by the joint 5. An example of an interosseus fibrous joint is ________. a. the radius and ulna along its length 6. When you hit your elbow and say that you hit your "funny bone," you have actually hit a nerve that runs across the bone surface. Over which bone can this nerve be found? a. humerus

7.

8.

9. Fibrous joints are classified as ________. a. sutures, syndesmoses, and gomphoses 10. Which of the following is NOT a factor that contributes to joint stability? a. amount of synovial fluid in the joint cavity 11. The ________ is the only bone in the body that does not directly articulate with any other bone. a. hyoid bone 12. The most common site of fracture in the humerus is the anatomical neck. a. false 13. What is the major function of the axial skeleton? a. provide central support for the body and protect internal organs 14. Pregnant women may experience an abnormal spinal curvature called lordosis, or swayback. Which curvature is affected during pregnancy? Select from letters A-D. a. C (second lower part of spine) 15. What is the major function of the intervertebral discs? a. absorb shock 16. Which joint has sacrificed stability to provide great freedom of movement? a. shoulder 17. Which forms the largest portion of the coxal bone?

a. ilium 18. Which of the following is the only movable bone of the skull? Select from letters A-D. a. D (jaw) 19. The shoulder and hip are examples of ________. a. ball-and-socket joints 20. Along with support, the anterior ligament of the vertebral column also acts to ________. a. prevent hyperextension of the spine 21. Which movement increases the angle between articulating bones? a. extension 22. When a person makes a pinching motion with their thumb and forefinger they are performing a movement called ________. a. opposition 23. Only the ________ vertebrae have transverse foramina. a. cervical 24.

25. How are the male and female pelves different? a. The pelvic inlet is heart-shaped in the male.

26. The superior nasal concha is a part of which bone? a. ethmoid 27. If a torn anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) is not properly repaired, the consequences could include the inability to prevent ________. a. forward sliding of the tibia on the femur 28.

29. The only movement allowed between the first two cervical vertebrae is flexion. a. false 30. Which joint in the figure is capable of multiaxial movement? a. A (shoulder) 31. Synovial joints are classified into six main categories based on ________. a. the shape of their articular surfaces 32. Joints A, B, C, and D in the figures below are all classified as ______. a. cartilaginous joints 33. What is moving a limb away from the median plane of the body along the frontal plane called? a. abduction

34. Which of the following is one difference between bursae and tendon sheaths? a. Bursae are flattened fibrous sacs wedged between adjacent structures, while tendon sheaths are elongated fibrous sacs that wrap around tendons. 35. The MAIN contributors to hip joint stability are __________. a. the deep socket of the joint and strong capsular ligaments 36. Most facial bones articulate with the ________. a. maxillary bones 37. Which bone forms the prominence of the cheek? a. zygomatic bone 38. After having a severe cold accompanied by nasal congestion, Jamila complained that she had a headache just above her eyes and that the right side of her face ached. What specific bony structures probably became infected by the bacteria or viruses causing the cold? a. The frontal sinus located in the frontal bone, and the right maxillary sinus located in the right maxilla 39.

40. Which vertebra does not have a body? a. atlas 41. Which of the following are CORRECTLY paired? a. synchondrosis: a plate of hyaline cartilage unites the bones

42. Football players often sustain lateral blows to the extended knee. Which of the ligaments is (are) damaged as a result? a. medial collateral, medial meniscus, and anterior cruciate 43. What are menisci? a. semilunar cartilage pads

Topic 5: Muscles 1. Paralysis of which of the following would make an individual unable to flex the thigh? a. iliopsoas and rectus femoris 2. The medial muscles of the hip joint that insert on the linea aspera are the __________. a. adductor magnus, adductor brevis, and adductor longus 3. The ________ is a synergist of the latissimus dorsi; it extends, medially rotates, and adducts the humerus. a. teres major 4. What benefit would an improved muscle tone from strengthening the quadriceps femoris muscles provide? a. better-stabilized knee joint 5. Severing of the patellar tendon would inactivate the hamstring group. a. false 6. A motor neuron and all the muscle cells that it stimulates are referred to as a motor end plate. a. false 7. The ball and socket joint in the hip is similar to the ball and socket joint of the shoulder but is designed more for __________ than ___________. a. power; precision

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9. Which muscle group is involved when a "pulled groin" occurs? a. thigh adductors

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11. Although all skeletal muscles have different shapes, the fascicle arrangement of each muscle is exactly the same. a. false

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13. Which of the following is not true of the deep fascia of the leg? a. an insertion for the majority of lower leg muscles

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15. Which of the following muscles is involved in crossing one leg over the other while in a sitting position? a. the sartorius 16. The connective tissue that covers structure A is continuous with which of the following? a. tendon 17. All of the muscles that originate from the medial epicondyle of the humerus have one of two functions. Which of the following pairs is correct? a. wrist flexion and forearm pronation 18. Which functional group has the major responsibility for countering a specific movement? a. antagonists 19. Which group of muscles flexes and rotates the neck? a. the scalenes 20. What do the geniohyoid, hyoglossus, and stylohyoid muscles have in common? a. all act on the tongue 21. Why are the muscles that move the fingers and wrist located in the forearm?

a. This design allows the hand to maintain fine motor control and strength without the interference of bulky muscles. 22. The forearm muscles can be divided into anterior flexors and posterior extensors, as well as __________. a. deep and superficial layers 23. The anterior muscles of the thigh that originate on the os coxae are __________. a. sartorius; rectus femoris 24. Which is(are) the most important muscle(s) of inspiration (inhalation)? a. diaphragm 25. The rotator cuff is a term used to describe the group of muscles and tendons that stabilize and reinforce the __________. a. glenohumeral joint 26. All the tendons of the rotator cuff muscles combine at which location? a. humeral head 27. Which joint is considered the most flexible joint in the body? a. the shoulder joint 28. Muscles of the shoulder can be divided into groups based on __________. a. distribution and functional relationships 29. Which of the following groups of muscles are not muscles of the shoulder? a. the anterior flexor muscles 30. To allow movement of the tendons within the carpal tunnel zone, each tendon is encased in a __________. a. sheath 31. Carpal tunnel syndrome is characterized by __________. a. inflammation of the flexor retinaculum and/or tendon sheaths 32. The term aponeurosis refers to ________. a. a sheetlike indirect attachment to a skeletal element 33. Which of the following muscles is named for its origin and insertion? a. sternocleidomastoid 34. Name the muscle at D.

a.

inferior rectus

35. Tennis players often complain about pain in the arm (forearm) that swings the racquet. What muscle is usually strained under these conditions? a. the brachioradialis 36. Paralysis of which of the following would make an individual unable to flex the thigh? a. iliopsoas and rectus femoris 37. What is the functional unit of a skeletal muscle called?

a. a sarcomere 38. Muscle spasms of the back often are due to the erector spinae contraction. a. true 39.

40. A young pregnant woman went to a childbirth class and the instructor informed them about strengthening the muscles of the pelvic floor. What are these muscles, and why should she strengthen them? a. Levator ani and coccygeus; strengthening these muscles helps in the delivery of the child by resisting downward forces when "pushing." 41. The anterior compartment of the thigh is involved in lower leg extension. a. true 42. Donna was rushing to class and slipped on a patch of ice and fell backward. An x-ray revealed a broken coccyx. All the associated muscles were bruised. Which muscles were they? a. Levator ani and coccygeus 43. The deltoid is a prime mover of the arm that acts in adduction. a. false 44. What muscle is primarily responsible for preventing foot drop? a. extensor digitorum longus 45. The actions of the muscles that cross the hip do not include __________. a. inversion

Topic 6: Neuroanatomy 1. Which of the following is not part of the basal nuclei? a. substantia nigra 2. Commissural fibers connect the cerebrum to the diencephalon. a. false 3. Important nuclei of the indirect (multineural) system that receive impulses from the equilibrium apparatus of the inner ear and help to maintain balance by varying muscle tone of postural muscles are the ________. a. vestibular nuclei 4. Which of the following is (are) involved with motor activity (either initiation or coordination)? a. red nuclei 5. At age 79, Mrs. X is diagnosed with a disorder that severely impairs her logical judgment. Medical imaging techniques show that this has been most likely caused by brain damage in a ______. a. frontal lobe 6. What structural classification describes this neuron? a. multipolar 7. After Joe has a stroke, his doctor asks Joe to touch his right pointer finger to his chin— but Joe is unable to move his right hand. However, when the doctor stimulates Joe's pointer finger with a painful stimulus, Joe's muscles quickly move his hand away from the stimulus. The doctor concludes that ______. a. based on the doctor's observations, none of the listed answers are correct conclusions 8. Two terms for the massive motor tracts serving voluntary movement are ________. a. pyramidal and corticospinal

9.

10. The blood-brain barrier is effective against ________. a. metabolic waste such as urea 11. Which part of the brain is considered the "gateway" to the cerebral cortex? a. thalamus 12. The arbor vitae refers to ________. a. cerebellar white matter 13. Which of these would you not find in the cerebral cortex? a. fiber tracts 14. Which protective covering of the brain releases cerebrospinal fluid into the dural sinuses? a. arachnoid mater 15. Patients who have lesions involving Broca's area __________. a. can understand language, but have difficulty speaking 16. Which part of the brain stem houses the reflex centers for respiration and cardiovascular functioning? a. medulla oblongata

17. Which protective covering of the brain provides passageways for cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) to drain into the superior sagittal sinus? a. arachnoid mater 18. Which criterion is used to functionally classify neurons? a. the direction in which the nerve impulse travels relative to the central nervous system 19. A patient is admitted to the rehabilitation unit five days after having a stroke. The nurse assesses his muscle strength and determines that he has right-sided weakness. Based on this assessment data, what part of the brain was injured? a. There was damage to localized areas of the primary motor cortex in the left cerebral hemisphere. 20. A patient reports that she has become completely deaf—she can't hear anything. Thorough tests on her ears indicate that her ears have not been damaged. Additional tests reveal that her deafness has been caused by damage to her ______...