Midterm 1 practice question and notes PDF

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In the diagram, which is the mastoid process?

a) J

b) K

c) G

d) H

e) I

Answer: a Osteoporosis is most common in elderly women because of the lack of __, which would inhibit ___. a) hGH; osteoclast activity b) estrogen; osteoclast activity c) IGFs; chondrocyte activity d) PTH; osteoblast activity e) Calcitonin; osteoclast activity Answer: b Which of the following selections correctly lists the sequence of events that occur during intramembranous ossification? a) Ossification center develops > Calcification > Formation of trabeculae > Development of new periosteum. b) Calcification > Ossification center develops > Formation of trabeculae > Development of new periosteum. c) Ossification center develops > Formation of trabeculae > Calcification > Development of new periosteum. d) Development of new periosteum > Ossification center develops > Calcification > Formation of trabeculae. e) Ossification center develops > Calcification > Development of new periosteum > Formation of trabeculae. Answer: a

In endochondral ossification, what is the original source of osteoblasts? a) endoderm b) mesenchyme c) mucus connective tissue d) osteoprogenitor cells e) ectoderm Answer: d During endochondral ossification in a fetus, bones initially develop as a cartilage model that was formed from a) periosteum. b) endosteum. c) perichondrium. d) mesenchyme. e) mucous connective tissue. Answer: d

Contraction of myofibrils within a muscle fiber begins when a) sodium enters the muscle fiber b) acetylcholine binds to ligand gates c) calcium is released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum d) an action potential travels t-tubules e) calcium is moved into the sarcoplasmic reticulum Answer: c Skeletal muscle contraction is triggered to begin when calcium is released from a) myofibrils b) mitochondria c) terminal cisterns of sarcoplasmic reticulum d) T-tubules Answer: c

All of the muscle fibers within the muscle are fully contracted in

a) A

b) B

c) C

d) D

Answer: D Diltiazem is a calcium channel blocker, reducing free intracellular calcium. What stage of the

a) Latent period b) Contraction period c) Relaxation period d) All myogram stages are affected Answer: a

Thapsigargin is a potent calcium ATPase pump inhibitors. What state of the myogram would

a) Latent period b) Contraction period c) Relaxation period d) All myogram stages are affected Answer: c The maxillae bones usually completely fuse into one bone before birth. This joint is known as a a) synchondrosis. b) syndesmosis. c) symphysis. d) diarthrosis. e) synostosis. Answer: e This layer is attached to the basement membrane by hemidesmosomes and to other cells by desmosomes. a) Stratum basale b) Stratum spinosum c) Stratum granulosum d) Stratum lucidum e) Stratum corneum Answer: a Tactile epithelial cells are located in the a) stratum basale b) stratum spinosum

.c) stratum granulosum. d) stratum lucidum. e) stratum corneum. Answer: a

In the diagram, which panel shows events occurring during anaphase?

a) A

b) B

c) C

d) D

e) E

Answer: d During this phase of cell division, the centromeres split leading to separation and subsequent migration of the two members of a chromatid pair to opposite poles of the cells. The cleavage furrow also begins to develop during this phase. a) interphase b) prophase c) metaphase d) anaphase e) telophase Answer: d Dense irregular connective tissue is located in 1. Syndesmosis 2. Gomphosis 3. Suture a) 1 only b) 2 only c) 3 only d) Both 1 and 2 e) 1, 2, and 3 Answer: e

What two non-synovial joints are seen in the picture?

a) suture and synostosis b) syndesmosis and interosseous membrane c) symphysis and gomphosis d) syndesmosis and gomphosis e) synovial and interosseous membrane Answer: b

Which process on the femur serves as an attachment point for tendons of several thigh muscles? a) gluteal tuberosity b) linea aspera c) medial epicondyle d) Both gluteal tuberosity and linea aspera e) Both linea aspera and medial epicondyle Answer: d Red bone marrow carries out hemopoi- esis (blood cell formation) Red bone marrow produces lymphocytes, white blood cells that are involved in immune responses

39) In the diagram, which bone would be classified as the short bone?

a) A

b) B

c) C

d) D

e) E

Answer: b Hydrogen is a proton donor (an acid is a proton donor) 48. The section shown in (C) results from cutting through a _____ plane extending

through the brain?

a) frontal b) sagittal c) oblique d) midsagittal

e) transverse Answer: e

49. The section shown in (B) results from cutting through a _______ plane extending

through the brain?

a) frontal b) sagittal c) oblique d) midsagittal e) transverse Answer: a 42. Which of the following best describes the events occurring at point B in the diagram

of deep wound healing shown below?

a) Blood clot is forming. b) New collagen fibers are forming. c) Damaged blood vessels are being repaired. d) Epithelium is migrating across wound. e) Scar tissue is forming. Answer: d

43. Which of the labeled cells in the diagram of deep wound healing shown below create

the framework of fibers that new tissue is built?

a) B

b) C

c) E

d) F

Answer: b 44. Which of the following areas in the diagram below gives the wound temporary

integrity from external factors, like microbes?

a) A

b) B

c) D

d) H

Answer: a 7) Which epithelial tissue forms the most superficial layer of the skin? a) Simple squamous epithelium b) Simple cuboidal epithelium c) Keratinized stratified squamous epithelium d) Stratified cuboidal epithelium e) Simple columnar epithelium Answer: c 8) Which epithelial tissue lines the ducts of sweat glands and oil glands? a) Simple squamous epithelium b) Pseudostratified columnar epithelium c) Stratified squamous epithelium d) Stratified cuboidal epithelium e) Transitional epithelium Answer: d 9) Which epithelial tissue lines most bronchioles and fallopian tubes and moves mucus and oocytes? Select the best answer. a) Ciliated pseudostratified columnar b) Ciliated simple columnar epithelium c) Stratified columnar epithelium d) Nonciliated pseudostratified epithelium e) Nonciliated simple columnar epithelium

Answer: b 85. Nutrients reach the epidermis by a) absorbing material applied to the surface layer of the skin. b) utilizing the products of merocrine glands to nourish the epidermis. c) the outer layer of the skin does not require nutrients because the external layer of cells is not living. d) diffusing through the tissue fluid from blood vessels in the dermis Answer: d 11) Dense irregular connective tissue will be found in the a) hypodermis. b) basement membrane. c) epidermis. d) dermis. e) subcutaneous (subQ) layer. Answer: d 10) Put the events of keratinization in order. A. Accumulate keratohyalin granules B. Cells increase in size, some retain ability to divide C. Cell membrane thickens. Cells imbedded in lipid matrix. D. Cells within this layer proliferate a) d,b,c,a b) a,b,d,c c) b,d,a,c d) d,b,a,c Answer: d Muscle - Producer body movement, stabilize body, storage & movement of substances in body, heat. Properties - Excitability, contractility, extensibility elasticity

2) Which region of a long bone articulates with other bones? a) diaphysis b) epiphysis c) proximal metaphysis d) epiphyseal plate e) distal metaphysis

Answer: b 3) The shaft of a long bone is the a) diaphysis. b) epiphysis. c) metaphysis. d) periosteum. e) medullary cavity. Answer: a

6) The _______ is the region of long bone that contains hyaline cartilage used for growth in length. a) epiphyseal plate b) epiphyseal line c) metaphysis d) diaphyseal e) articular cartilage Answer: c 7) What area of long bone is composed of dense irregular connective tissue and osteogenic cells? a) periosteum b) endosteum c) medullary cavity d) epiphyseal plate e) articular cartilage Answer: a

Triglyceride storage - yellow bone marrow consists mainly of adipose cells which store triglycerides. MEDULLARY CAVITY Red bone marrow is created in the epiphysis and metaphysis. 19) This type of exocrine gland undergoes a higher rate of mitosis due to its holocrine secretion. a) Sebaceous gland b) Eccrine gland c) Apocrine gland d) Eccrine and apocrine glands e) Sebaceous and Eccrine glands Answer: a

8) Which of following selections lists bone cells in the order from unspecialized stem cell to highly specialized mature bone cell? a) osteoprogenitor cells, osteoclasts, osteocytes b) osteoclasts, osteoprogenitor cells, osteoblasts, osteocytes c) osteoprogenitor cells, osteocytes, osteoblasts d) osteoblasts, osteoprogenitor cells, osteocytes e) osteoprogenitor cells, osteoblasts, osteocytes, osteoclasts Answer: b

9) The cells active in fracture repair during the production of the hard (spongy bone) callus. a) fibroblasts b) osteoclasts c) osteocytes d) osteoblasts e) chondroblasts Answer: d

10) Cells active when cartilage needs to be removed so new bone can be produced. a) osteoprogenitor cells b) osteoclasts c) osteocytes d) osteoblasts e) chondroblasts Answer: b

11) This cell is active once the matrix of bone calcifies. The cells sits in a lacunae. a) osteoprogenitor cells b) osteoclasts c) osteocytes d) osteoblasts e) chondroblasts Answer: c 12) What are the extracellular fluid filled extensions of the lacunae called? a) interosteonic (perforating) canals b) osteonic (Haversian) canals c) concentric lamellae d) canaliculi e) perforating

15) Why would running and jumping have a larger effect on bone health than walking?

a) Osteoblasts are less active and osteoclast are more active when there is mechanical stress placed on bones. b) Osteoblasts are more active and osteoclast maintain normal activity when there is mechanical stress placed on bones. c) Mechanical stress does not have an influence on osteoblast and osteoclast activity. d) Running and jumping will prevent demineralization over time. Answer: b 81) Which statements describe spongy bone? 1. Composed of trabeculae. 2. Made up of osteons 3. Found in higher amounts in the diaphysis. 4. Found lining the superficial regions of all bones. 5. Arranged along lines of force that are encountered. 6. Gaps filled with marrow. 7. Maintains strength with light weight. 8. Has the same purpose structurally as compact bone. 9. Has lamellae, osteocytes, lacunae and canaliculi. 10. Has lamellae, osteocytes, lacunae, canaliculi, and central canals. a) 1, 5, 6, 7, 9 b) 2, 3, 4, 10 c) 1, 3, 5, 7, 9 d) 4, 6, 7, 8, 10 e) 1, 2, 4, 6, 8 Answer: a 83) Place the events of a fracture repair in order. A: A hematoma will form and will form a temporary connection between the ends of the bones. B: Fibroblasts and chondroblasts migrate from the periosteum and begin to produce fibrocartilage to connect the ends of the bones. C: Osteoclasts resorb dead portions of the new bony area, and compact bone replaces spongy bone. D:Osteoprogenitor cells differentiate into osteoblasts and produce spongy bone. E: Phagocytes and osteoclasts begin to remove dead and damaged tissue. a) A, B, E, C, D b) A, E, B, D, C c) E, A, B, D, C d) A, E, D, B, C Answer: b

40) In the diagram, what bone is considered the strongest?

a) A

b) C

c) D

d) E

e) F

Answer: b 41) In the diagram, what area allows communication from the outermost region to the innermost region of bone?

a) B

b) C

c) D

d) E

e) F

48) Which of the following labeled structures in the diagram is a site of red blood cell production in adult bones?

a) A Answer: a

b) B

c) E

d) F

e) G

49) Where would reticular connective tissue be located in the diagram below?

a) A

b) D

c) E

d) F

e) G

Answer: a 51) Where in the diagram does the secondary ossification center form?

a) A

b) B

c) D

d) G

e) G

Answer: a 53) Where in the diagram is dense irregular connective tissue located?

a) B

b) C

c) D

d) E

e) F

Answer: e 15) The extracellular matrix of connective tissue consists of a) enzymes and membranous organelles. b) plasma membranes and ground substance. c) keratinized cells and protein fibers. d) calcified crystals of minerals and enzymes. e) protein fibers and ground substance. Answer: e 18) Which polysaccharide is commonly found in the ground substance of connective tissues? a) Hyaluronic acid b) Melanin c) Cholesterol d) Glycogen e) Starch Answer: a 17) The _______ component of connective tissue is found between the cells and fibers, and functions to support and bind cells in the tissue together? a) matrix b) formed elements c) ground substance d) basement membrane Answer: c 20) The__________is formed from reticular fibers that support soft organs such as the spleen and lymph nodes a) matrix. b) ground substance. c) basement membrane. d) stroma.

e) glycosaminoglycans Answer: d 15) Which of the following is the transport process by which gases, like O2 and CO2, move through a membrane? a) osmosis b) active transport c) secondary active transport d) simple diffusion e) endocytosis Answer: d 16) In this type of transport process, a solute (e.g. glucose) binds to a specific carrier protein on one side of the membrane. This binding induces a conformational change in the carrier protein that results in the solute moving down its concentration gradient to the other side of the membrane. a) osmosis b) primary active transport c) secondary active transport d) facilitated diffusion e) endocytosis Answer: d

17) In this transport process, the energy from hydrolysis of ATP is used to drive substances across the membrane against their own concentration gradients. a) primary active transport b) secondary active transport c) facilitated diffusion d) passive diffusion e) osmosis Answer: a

18) If the solute concentration is greater inside of the cell than outside the cell, water will move by osmosis a) into the cell. b) out of the cell. c) into and out of the cell at the same rate resulting in no net water movement. d) All of these answer choices are correct. e) None of these answers are correct. Answer: a

19) What transport process uses the energy stored in a Na+ or H+ concentration gradient to drive other substances across the membrane against their own concentration gradients? a) primary active transport b) secondary active transport c) facilitated diffusion d) passive diffusion e) osmosis Answer: b 20) Which of the following transport processes uses vesicles that fuse with the plasma membrane to secrete materials into the extracellular fluid? a) endocytosis b) exocytosis c) facilitated diffusion d) osmosis e) Both endocytosis and exocytosis. Answer: b 21) Which of the following transport process uses vesicles formed at the plasma membrane to take up extracellular substances and import them into the cell? a) endocytosis b) exocytosis c) facilitated diffusion d) osmosis e) Both endocytosis and exocytosis. Answer: a 23) During phagocytosis, binding of a particle to a plasma membrane receptor triggers formation of _____, which are extensions of the plasma membrane of the phagocyte that eventually surround the particle forming a phagosome. a) podocytes b) exterior vesicles c) interior vesicles d) pseudopods e) lysosomes Answer: d 29) Which of the following membrane-enclosed organelles is the site of synthesis of membrane proteins and secretory proteins? a) rough endoplasmic reticulum b) smooth endoplasmic reticulum c) nucleus d) lysosome e) Golgi complex

Answer: a 30) Which of the following membrane-enclosed organelles modifies, sorts, and packages proteins destined for other regions of the cell? a) endoplasmic reticulum b) Golgi complex c) peroxisomes d) nucleus e) proteasome Answer: b 33) Which of the following membrane-enclosed organelles contains several oxidases that are involved in oxidation of fatty acids and amino acids during normal metabolism and in detoxification of chemicals like alcohol in the liver? a) peroxisomes b) mitochondria c) proteasome d) ribosomes e) lysosomes Answer: a 34) Which of the following membrane-enclosed organelles can engulf a worn-out organelle, digest its chemical components, and recycle those digested components? a) peroxisomes b) mitochondria c) proteasome d) ribosomes e) lysosomes Answer: e 42) During this phase of cell division, organelles duplicate and centrosome replication begins. a) interphase b) prophase c) metaphase d) anaphase e) telophase Answer: a

nail matrix

a) A

b) C

Answer: c

c) E

d) F

e) G

Inferior to the intertrochanteric crest on the posterior surface of the body of the femur is a vertical ridge called the gluteal tuberosity. It blends into another vertical ridge called the linea aspera (LIN-e -a AS-per-a; asper ฀ rough). Both ridges serve as attach- ment points for the tendons of several thigh muscles....