MUET MODULE PDF

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A-PDF Merger DEMO : Purchase from www.A-PDF.com to remove the watermark MALAYSIAN UNIVERSITY ENGLISH TEST IPGM MUET MODULE INSTITUT PENDIDIKAN GURU KEMENTERIAN PENDIDIKAN MALAYSIA ARAS 1, ENTERPRISE BUILDING 3, BLOK 2200, PERSIARAN APEC, CYBER 6, 63000 CYBERJAYA CONTENT PAGE MUET structure i MUET Te...

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MALAYSIAN UNIVERSITY ENGLISH TEST

IPGM MUET MODULE

INSTITUT PENDIDIKAN GURU KEMENTERIAN PENDIDIKAN MALAYSIA ARAS 1, ENTERPRISE BUILDING 3, BLOK 2200, PERSIARAN APEC, CYBER 6, 63000 CYBERJAYA

CONTENT

PAGE

MUET structure

i

MUET Test Scores

ii

800/1

LISTENING Tips for listening Practice 1 Practice 2 Practice 3 Practice 4 Practice 5 Practice 6 Practice 7 Practice 8 Practice 9

800/2 SPEAKING Tips for speaking Practice 1 Practice 2 Practice 3 Practice 4 Practice 5 Practice 6 Practice 7 Practice 8 Practice 9 Practice 10

2 4 7 10 13 16 19 22 25 28

32 35 39 43 47 51 55 59 63 67 71

800/3 READING Tips for reading Practice 1 Practice 2 Practice 3 Practice 4 Practice 5 Practice 6 Practice 7 Practice 8

76 78 94 110 126 141 161 180 199

800/4 WRITING Tips for writing question 1 Practice 1 Practice 2 Practice 3 Practice 4 Practice 5 Practice 6 Practice 7 Practice 8

220 225 226 227 228 229 230 231 232

Tips for writing question 2 Practice 1 – 20

233 237

References

239

Panel of Writers

240

Structure of the MUET paper (MALAYSIAN UNIVERSITY ENGLISH TEST) The MUET Paper tests all the four language skills. Candidates for the MUET exam are required to sit for all four papers. The structures of the papers are presented below.

LISTENING

SPEAKING

READING

WRITING

800/1

800/2

800/3

800/4

30 minutes

30 minutes

90 minutes

90 minutes

Weighting (%)

15

15

40

30

Maximum score

45

45

120

90

Number of texts/tasks

5 texts

2 tasks

6 texts

2 tasks

20

2

45

2

Paper code Time

No of questions Question type

Genre/topics

 Information transfer  Short-answer questions  Multiple choice – 3 or 4 option

Lecture, briefing, talk, discussion, interview, news, telephone, conversation, announcement, instructions, advertisement, meeting, documentary

Multiple choice questions  passages  least one text with graphic

Contemporary issues

Articles from journals, magazines, newspapers, academic texts, electronic texts

 Transfer of information from a non-linear source to a linear text (150 200 words)  Extended writing (350 words) Report, article, letter, essay

i

MUET TEST SCORES Description of Aggregated Scores Aggregated Score

Band

260 - 300

6

220 - 259

User

Communicative Ability

Comprehension

Task Performance

Highly proficient user

Very fluent; highly appropriate use of language; hardly any grammatical error

Very good understanding of language and context

Very high ability to function in the language

5

Proficient user

Fluent; appropriate use of language; few grammatical errors

Good understanding of language and context

High ability to function in the language

180 - 219

4

Satisfactory user

Generally fluent; generally appropriate use of language; some grammatical errors

Satisfactory understanding of language and context

Satisfactory ability to function in the language

140 - 179

3

Modest user

Fairly fluent; fairly appropriate use of language; many grammatical errors

Fair understanding of language and context

Fair ability to function in the language

100 – 139

2

Limited user

Not fluent; inappropriate use of language; very frequent grammatical errors

Limited understanding of language and context

Limited ability to function in the language

Below 100

1

Very limited user

Hardly able to use the language

Very limited understanding of language and context

Very limited ability to function in the language

Note: MUET exam will be held three times a year – in March, July and November.

ii

800/1 LISTENING

1

LISTENING SKILLS Paper 1 of the MUET exam consists of three parts, Part I, Part II and Part III. Parts I and II have one listening text each. Part III has three short texts. Candidates must answer 20 questions in the form of short answer, information transfer and multiple-choice questions. Candidates will listen to each recording twice. First, students will be given one minute to read the question. Then, the listening text will be played for the first time. Students are required to either mark or write their answers while listening to the text or after it is finished. The listening text will be played for a second time and students are encouraged to check their answers then. TIPS FOR LISTENING STEP 1 STEP 2

PRE LISTENING – Get overview of the text 





STEP 3

FIRST LISTENING – Listen for specific information

Read all the questions and the answer options carefully Underline the key words in the questions so that you know what to listen for later on e. g: What is the main benefit of writing a will





Listen actively for the required information (refer to the underlined key words in Step 1) Write down important notes

SECOND LISTENING – Get missing information/ answers  

Get any missing information Check answers

DO’S AND DON’TS

Do

    

Concentrate and listen actively Read and listen to the instructions Read ahead to be prepared You the words that you hear in your answers Use the pause to check your answers

Don’t

  

Get distracted Spend too much time on one question Panic if you miss a question – continue with the next question and go back to the missed question later Leave any answer blank



2

TIPS A. SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS What you should do 1. Skim through all the questions and the answers options to get a general idea of the text that you are going to listen. 2. Underline the key words in the questions so that you know what to listen for later on. 3. While listening, pay attention to the content and the flow of information delivered by the speaker(s). Remember that usually the questions in Part I (Information Transfer) follow the order of information in the recording. 4. Write down important points or idea/write down your answers. 5. During the second listening, get the information that you missed out. Check your answers too. 6. Make a final check. Check for spelling and grammar. Make sure your answers follow the word limit. B. MULTIPLE-CHOICE QUESTIONS

What you should do 

Skim through all the questions and the answer options to get a general idea of the text that you are going to listen.



Underline the key words in the questions so that you know what to listen for later on.



Listen for the specific information. Pay attention to the content and the flow of information delivered by the speaker(s).



Check each possible option given carefully.



Remember some of the most likely answers maybe paraphrased.



You may find that some of the vocabulary given in the options is in the text.



Choose the most suitable answer/response to the question.

3

PRACTICE 1 Part I

(8 marks)

For questions 1 to 3, write your answer in NOT MORE THAN THREE WORDS. 1

Employers prefer confident people because they _____________________________

2

Self-confidence can be lost due to one’s ____________________________________

3

The speaker thinks that confidence levels can _______________________________

For questions 4 to 6, write your answer in NOT MORE THAN FIVE WORDS. How to Become a More Confident Person Main point

One example

Accept yourself as you are

Know your strengths and limitations

Believe in yourself

4 __________________________ __________________________

Reduce uncertainty

5 _________________________ __________________________

6 ________________________

Stay away from negative people

____________________________

4

For questions 7 and 8, circle the correct answer. 7

The last tip on confidence given by the speaker is to A. ooze charm B. increase work success C. pretend to be confident

8

A person with high self-esteem is likely to be A. brave B. appealing C. hardworking

Part II

(6 marks)

For questions 9 and 10, choose one letter A to F from the box below to complete each sentence. A B C D E F 9

just want to listen do not really have problems need to empathise come to learn social skills put the blame on others make poor choices

The interviewer assumes that the counsellor’s clients ______________________

10 Some students who have problems socializing ____________________________

For questions 11 to 14, circle the correct answer. 11 A good approach in counseling is to A. make an early judgment B. empathise with the client C. become the client’s friend

5

12 From the interview, we can infer that the counselor A. finds her job stressful B. is an emotional person C. has to constantly monitor herself

13 The counselor said that she would quit her job if she A. was offered a job by “Befrienders” B. could not solve her own psychological problems C. could not separate herself from her students’ problems 14 The interviewer concluded that a counsellor’s job is A. difficult B. rewarding C. time-consuming

Part III

(6 marks)

For questions 15 to 20, write your answer in NOT MORE THAN FIVE WORDS. 15 The production, transportation and disposal of plastic bottles result in _________________ _________________________________________________________________________ 16 Flash floods are the result of drains being _______________________________________ _________________________________________________________________________ 17 Mammoths did not live on ice glaciers because they had to _________________________ _________________________________________________________________________ 18 One reason mammoths became extinct is because of ______________________________ _________________________________________________________________________ 19 Buses and taxis are at fault for holding up traffic because they do not wait ______________ _________________________________________________________________________ 20 The speaker thinks that there are enough parking spaces if only the motorists were willing to _______________________________________________________________________ _________________________________________________________________________

6

PRACTICE 2 PART I

(8 marks)

For questions 1 to 2, write your answer in NOT MORE THAN THREE WORDS. 1

The original idea of cheerleading was to _________________________________________

2

When cheerleading first started, the members were ________________________________ _________________________________________________________________________

For questions 3 to 6, write your answer in NOT MORE THAN FIVE WORDS. Development of Cheerleading

Early Phase of Cheerleading

Creativity in Cheerleading

Technology in Cheerleading

Current Phase of Cheerleading

3 Started ____________________________

4 Squad members created ______________________________________

5 _______________________________ to make cheerleading louder.

6 Competitive sport involving __________________________________

7

For questions 7 and 8, circle the correct answer. 7 As cheerleading developed, it became A. noisier but striking B. cheaper but entertaining C. more complex but dangerous

8 At the end of the talk, the speaker advises parents to be A. cautious B. encouraging C. co-operative

PART II

(6 marks)

For questions 9 and 10, choose one letter A to F from box below to complete each sentence. A B C D E F 9

Anthropology Education Counselling Intercultural studies Research Management The field of study that has given Dr. Linda an advantage trainer is _________________

10 Dr. Linda’s interest in intercultural studies stems from her background in ___________

For questions 11 to 14, circle the correct answer. 11 Dr. Linda’s job is to develop employees A. facilitating skills B. material designing skills C. general management skills

12 Dr. Linda normally does a needs-analysis in order to A. search for materials B. assess the participants’ knowledge C. find out the subject areas to be included 8

13 Compared to Malaysians, Americans are A. proud B. assertive C. intimidating

14 To work together, Malaysians try to establish A. an open relationship B. a friendly relationship C. a challenging relationship

PART III

(6 marks)

For questions 15 to 20, write your answer in NOT MORE THAN FIVE WORDS. 15 The two diseases that are increasing among young adults are _______________________ _________________________________________________________________________ 16 According to the study, most of the foods consumed by young adults are unhealthy because these foods are _____________________________________________________ _________________________________________________________________________ 17 Banks are reducing costs by __________________________________________________ _________________________________________________________________________ 18 A drop in car sales will affect salesmen and ______________________________________ _________________________________________________________________________ 19 People tend to be the happiest when ___________________________________________ _________________________________________________________________________ 20 Stress and relaxation levels experienced during holidays influence ____________________ _________________________________________________________________________

9

PRACTICE 3 PART I

(8 marks)

For questions 1 to 3, write your answer in NOT MORE THAN THREE WORDS. 1

Customers are sometimes unhappy with the product they have bought because it is __________________________________________________________________________________

2

In the past, dissatisfied customers complained by writing letters ______________________ _________________________________________________________________________

3

The social media can harm the business because it ________________________________ _________________________________________________________________________

For questions 4 to 6, write your answer in NOT MORE THAN FIVE WORDS. How Dissatisfied Customers React

Stop buying the product 4 ____________________________ _____________________________ 6 ___________________________ _____________________________ 5 ___________________________ _____________________________

For questions 7 and 8, circle the correct answer. 7

Word-of-mouth complaints have the most impact since A. many people are informed about these complaints B. these complaints are from familiar and trusted source C. customers made these complaints on a face-to-face basis

10

8

The stores can benefit if customers complain to them directly because A. they can bring more customers B. they have a chance to remedy the situation C. fewer people will know about the problem

PART II

(6 marks)

For questions 9 and 10, choose one letter A to F from box below to complete each sentence. A B C D E F

9

cause fear create havoc create doubt cause infection cause discomfort cause destruction

Hospitals are concern that pets’ fleas and bugs might ______________________________

10 If a patient is allowed to receive visits from his pet, an anaconda or a monkey, his pet could _________________________________________________________________________

For questions 11 to 14, circle the correct answer. 11 Cats and dogs are allowed to visit A. with other people apart from their owners B. when they have the consent from all parties C. because they have proof of rabies vaccination 12 The following are true except A. more patients are considering having pets B. hospitals have benefited from visits by pet C. this policy allows visits only from certain pets

13 Having an enhanced emotional well-being would A. allow young patients to play with their pets B. increase patients’ chances of recovery from illness C. encourage terminally ill patients to say a final goodbye 11

14 Which of the following statements summarizes the speaker’s feeling at the end? A. He feels that everyone concerned can benefit from pet visits B. He feels that times have changed, and hospitals have not done so C. He feels that in future, animals like fathers, can enter delivery rooms

PART III

(6 marks)

For questions 15 to 20, write your answer in NOT MORE THAN FIVE WORDS. 15 Tanjung Piai is best known for _________________________________________________ _________________________________________________________________________ 16 Visitors are attracted to the park by the __________________________________________ _________________________________________________________________________ 17 The speaker says that applying for a scholarship can be ____________________________ _________________________________________________________________________ 18 It is recommended that someone else can help to proofread your application to ensure that _________________________________________________________________________ _________________________________________________________________________ 19 The construction worker’s head was ____________________________________________ _________________________________________________________________________ 20 The incident was described as a miracle because _________________________________ __________________________________________________________________________

12

PRACTICE 4 PART I

(8 marks)

For questions 1 to 3, write your answer in NOT MORE THAN THREE WORDS. 1

Organizing a study group can help you to ________________________________________

2

Effective study groups differ from casual discussion groups in their membership and ______ _________________________________________________________________________

3

In an effective study group, the selected members should be ________________________ _______________________________...