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Give an example of a type of Specific Phobia (2 marks). List four symptoms that someone with this type of phobia might experience (8 marks). 2 points for listing an acceptable example of Specific Phobia. 2 points for each correctly identified symptom

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What is a hallucination (1 mark). Name and briefly describe three types of hallucination (9 marks). 1 mark for the corect definition of a hallucination. 1 mark for each hallucination identified (max 3). 1-2 marks for each hallucination decription based on how accurately/throughly the hallucination is described. MONDAY 2nd Perspectives on Abnormal Behaviour 1. Who is the main influence in the psychoanalytic perspective? a. Carl Rogers b. Sigmund Freud c. Hans Eysenck d. Ogden Lindsay 2. Describe in 2 sentences, the meanings of the following within the supernatural tradition (1 mark each): a. Demons and witches b. Possession c. Stress and Melancholy d. Moon and stars 3. Which of the following is NOT an intervention? a. Cognitive Behavioural Therapy b. Couples Therapy c. Detoxication d. Psychoeducation 4. What is not a function of the EGO? a. To balance the demands of the ID and SUPEREGO b. To govern the reality principles c. To oversee the learning, memory, language and planning d. Locates gratification of the ID e. None of the above 5. Projection, denial and splitting are defence mechanisms of which cluster? a. Narcissistic b. Immature c. Anxiety d. Mature 6. Dissociation, undoing and intellectualisation are defence mechanisms of which cluster? a. Narcissistic b. Immature c. Anxiety d. Mature 7. “My 5 year old is having nightmares and insisting on sleeping my bed again, since he found out his grandfather passed away,” is an example of what defence mechanism? a. Rationalisation b. Acting Out c. Somatisation

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d. Regression Which of the following is not a limitations within the Psychoanalytic Perspective: a. Analysis of transference and counter-transference b. Virtually untestable in controlled research c. Unfalsifiable d. Questionable accountability Which of the following is not an assumption of cognitive therapies? a. They are cognitive b. Cognitive mediate clients problems c. Mediating factors are available for scrutiny and change d. Cognitions are the secondary target for change in attempts to address clients’ cognitive, affective and behaviour difficulties What are the Hierarchy of needs? a. Physiological, security, family, esteem and self-actualisation b. Physiological, safety, love, esteem and self-actualisation c. Physiological, love, esteem and self-actualisation d. Biosocial, safety, love, esteem and self-actualisation Treatment of Abnormal Disorders using the Psychoanalytic Perspective are: a. Dream analysis, fear association and analysis of transference and counter-transference. b. Objective relations, fear association and analysis of transference and counter-transference. c. Dream analysis, free association and analysis of transference and counter-transference. d. Objective relations, free association and analysis of transference and counter-transference. What did Carl Rogers determine as the limitations of the Humanistic Perspective? a. A lack of unconditional positive regard b. Does not use diagnostic terms that they believe “pathologise” behaviour c. Lack of self-actualisation is the core of all psychological disturbance d. All of the above Cannabis, ecstasy, LSD and GHB are all under what branches in the pharmacological drug use? a. Licit and recreational b. Licit and prescription c. Illicit and sof d. Illicit and hard Neurogenesis is not promoted by one of the following: a. Benzodiazepines b. Antidepressants c. Environmental enrichment d. Abstinence from alcohol Cognitive Therapy techniques do not involve: a. Evaluating automatic thoughts. b. Reporting to automatic thoughts. c. Identifying and recording automatic thoughts. d. Identifying thoughts and distinguishing between thoughts. What are antidepressants used for? a. For sedation in acute mania and psychosis. b. For treatment for depression but also most anxiety disorder and Bulimia c. For bipolar affective disorder but ofen used in schizophrenia d. For ADHD What are stimulants used for? a. For sedation in acute mania and psychosis. b. For treatment for depression but also most anxiety disorder and Bulimia c. For bipolar affective disorder but ofen used in schizophrenia d. For ADHD Which of the following is not an antidepressant drug categories?

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a. Noradrenergic and specific serotonin antagonists NASSAs b. Serotonin antagonist reuptake inhibitors SARIs c. Tricyclic antidepressant SSRIs d. Reversible inhibitors of monoamine oxidase RIMAs What is the best medicine for someone diagnosed with schizophrenia? a. Antidepressant b. Mood-stabiliers c. Antipsychotics d. Benzodiazepines Which of the following steps to reconstruct of the world-view within Cognitive Therapy and Automatic Thoughts is in the wrong spot? 1. Recognise maladaptive think and ideation 2. Distance and decentre – to develop some “distance” from the immediate emotion, thought and problems. 3. Change the rules. Challenging automatic thoughts. 4. Note repeating patterns of ideation that tend to be ineffective a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 Which of the following is not a technique of identifying perception, memory and problem solving within cognitive perspective? a. Self-instructional training b. Cognitive perception therapy c. Cognitive therapy d. Rational-emotive therapy Which is not an examples of behaviour therapy a. Aversion therapy b. Exposure therapy c. Modelling d. Social skills therapy Social Learning Theory is combined classical conditioning operant conditioning with observational learning, which forms of observational learning does this involve? a. Modelling, imitation, social learning and vicarious learning b. Imitation, social learning, modelling and listening c. Vicarious learning, social learning and imitation d. Listening, vicarious learning, social learning and imitation B. F. Skinner contributed three finding to operant conditioning, which is not one of these? a. Operant conditioning: learning in which the future probability of a behaviour is affected by its consequences. b. To predict and alter behaviour we need to understand and probability of response and what influences this. c. Radical position ruled out self-determination and freedom. d. Instrumental learning: behaviours are controlled by the consequences that follow them. What is the most popular prescription drug when considering all disorder types? a. Benzodiazepine b. Antipsychotic c. Antidepressants d. Anticonvulsant

Assessment and Diagnosis 1. What is the correct three-step sequence for duration of a disorder? a. Observation, diagnosis and treatment b. Diagnosis, observation and treatment c. Diagnosis, assessment and treatment

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d. Assessment, diagnosis and treatment What is the definition of assessment? a. Systematic evaluation and measurement of psychological, biological and social factors in an individual presenting with possible psychological disorder. b. Evaluation of social and psychological factors of abnormal functioning. c. What is the definition of diagnosis? Which of the following is not an advantage of diagnosis? a. Treatment matching b. Stigma c. Improves communication between clinicians d. Can be tremendously beneficial for clients Which of the following is not a disadvantage of diagnosis? a. Totalisation b. Reification c. Subjectivity d. Cultural bias What does not contributes to the prevalence of mental illness? a. The definition of mental illness b. Cultural context c. Prevalence of human sufferings d. Family influence What do we consider when contributing to the definition of ‘normal’? a. Social, culture, history, family, political and research b. History, religion, culture, research, media, social and political c. Biology, social, political, history, religion, culture and research d. Biology, culture, research, history, social and political Which of the following reasons stated below is not a reason to assess? a. Medicare, the access to counselling/support through diagnosis by GP b. Important to determine what treatment(s) is/are appropriate to use. c. Evidence is the most important thing in a practical world. d. Assessment originates from the biological perspective; symptoms were considered categorically for the purpose of directing appropriate treatment. When doing a biopsychosocial assessment of someone diagnosed with bipolar disorder, we must consider which factors? a. Social, clinical and biological factors. b. Clinical, family and social factors. c. Biological, psychological and social factors. d. Psychological, social and family factors. Which of the following is not part of the ‘clinical toolbox’? a. Clinical interview b. Structured diagnostic interview c. Psychometric testing d. Treatment strategies Psychometric testing does not include which of the following? a. Syndrome specific test b. Global distress inventories c. Biological tests d. Personality tests Assessment framework does not consist of which factor? a. Psychiatric history b. Family and biological history c. Assessing risk

d. Mental state examination 13. Assessing risk a. Biological assessment b. Drug and alcohol assessment c. Suicide risk assessment d. Risk of other 14. Assessment objectivity a. How objective are you when you are talking to a client. b. The framework that you identity with may influence your assessment style, the kinds of questions that you ask, the information that you seek. c. We all use filters to process information Anxiety Disorders 1. What is the nature of fear and anxiety a. Flight or fight b. Scared or combat c. Run away or battle d. Distress or conflict 2. Related behaviours within fight or flight does not include: a. Stand point – not to make a reaction to danger b. Freezing – to evaluate danger c. Flight – escape d. Fight – if danger is unavoidable 3. The epidemiology of an anxiety disorder as a specific phobia is: a. 12 month prevalence 5-7%, female to male ratio 1:2 b. 12 month prevalence 5-7%, female to male ratio 2:1 c. 12 month prevalence 7-9%, female to male ratio 2:1 d. 12 month prevalence 7-9%, female to male ratio 1:2 4. The epidemiology of an anxiety disorder as a social phobia is: a. 12 month prevalence 2-7%, female to male ratio 1.5:1 b. 12 month prevalence 7-9%, female to male ratio 1:1.5 c. 12 month prevalence 2-7%, female to male ratio 1.5:1 d. 12 month prevalence 7-9%, female to male ratio 1:1.5 5. Definition of agoraphobia a. Intense fear within all public surroundings, resulting in panic attacks. b. Anxiety about being in places from which escape might be difficult or embarrassing in the event of having a panic attack. c. Immense anxiety when escaping from social interactions and situations. d. Anxiety that is a result of any social situations when human contact is a possibility. 6. GAD stands for what? a. Generalised Angry Disorder b. Generalised Anxiety Disease c. Gland Annoying Disorder d. Generalised Anxiety Disorder 7. Biological precipitating factors does not include which of the following: a. Chronic illness b. Stimulants and recreational drugs c. Family history d. Hyperventilation 8. Which of the following is not a social precipitating factor? a. Cumulative stress over time b. Social support c. Significant personal loss

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d. Significant life change/challenge Treat/attentional bias is defined as, a. Differential attentional allocation toward threatening relative to neutral stimuli b. I don’t know? c. The clinical has a bias towards the patient that stems from personal interaction, only affecting treatment. d. Can you tell I’m over this now? General treatment principle does not consist of which of the following? a. Psychoeducation b. Managing anxiety symptoms c. Exposure d. CB therapy Treatments for specific phobias a. Exposure-based treatments are the most effective b. Exposures may work through extinction c. They may also work by challenging expectations of danger. Increasing self-efficacy, and increasing perception of control d. Cognitive-behavioural therapy are proven to be effective. Which of the following as an incorrect example of a treatments for social phobia using cognition behaviour therapy? a. Psychoeducation, cognitive restructuring of negative thoughts, learning about cognitive distortions and exposure to feared social situations b. Psychoeducation, cognitive analyse of negative thoughts, learning about cognitive distortions and exposure to feared social situations c. Psychoeducation, cognitive analyse of positive thoughts, learning about cognitive distortions and exposure to feared social situations d. Psychoeducation, cognitive restructuring of positive thoughts, learning about cognitive distortions and exposure to feared social situations One of the following does not related to treatment for Generalised Anxiety Disorder. a. Pharmacological therapy b. Cognitive-behavioural therapy c. Some symptom improvement, yet only 50% of those affected and up in non-clinical range d. It is entirely up to the person to change their behaviour and thought process. Cognitive models used when diagnosing Generalised Anxiety Disorder a. ABC model b. Information processing model c. Metacognitive model d. Avoidance theory e. Intolerance of uncertainly model What is the avoidance theory used for? a. Based toward threat b. Worry to avoid imagery and underlying concerns c. Positive and negative meta-beliefs about worry d. Need to control Difference between obsession and compulsion? a. Obsession is recurrent thoughts, images or impulses experienced as unwanted and intrusive. Compulsions is repetitive behaviours that the person feels compelled to perform in response to obsession or according to rigid rules. b. Obsession is repetitive behaviours that the person feels compelled to perform in response to obsession or according to rigid rules. Compulsions are recurrent thoughts, images or impulses experienced as unwanted and intrusive. c. Obsessions are recurrent thoughts that are only there because the person is weak. Compulsions are actions that repeat themselves without the person being able to stop them.

d. Obsessions are thoughts that repeat themselves without the person being able to stop them. Compulsions are actions that are only repeated because the person is weak. 17. Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder treatment does not consist of which of following? a. Pharmacological therapy b. Cognitive-behaviour therapy c. Fear exposure d. Applying CBT to survivors afer trauma exposure THURSDAY 5th Schizophrenia and Psychoses 1. What is the duration and number of symptoms a patient must have before being diagnosed with schizophrenia? a. At least 6 months and has 2 or more symptoms b. At least 6 months and has 3 or more symptoms c. At least 12 months and has 2 or more symptoms d. At least 12 months and has 3 or more symptoms 2. To be diagnosed with Schizophrenia, a patient must have two or more of seven possible symptoms to make criteria A. Name these symptoms. a. _______________________________ b. _______________________________ c. _______________________________ d. _______________________________ e. _______________________________ f. _______________________________ g. _______________________________ 3. Which of the following is not a necessarily but sufficient characteristic of a delusion? a. The belief is described clearly in the respondent’s own words, not simply assented to following a leading question. b. It is held with a basic and compelling subjective conviction though the degree of certainty may fluctuate or be concealed c. It is not susceptible, or only briefly, to modification by experience or evidence that contradict it. d. The belief is impossible, incredible or false. 4. What is the definition of a delusion? 5. What is the definition of hallucinations? 6. What are the visual symptoms of hallucinations? a. Unformed b. Formed c. Scenic d. Hypnagogic and hypnopompic e. None of the above 7. Disorganised speech does not have which of the following characteristics? a. Fight of ideas b. Circumstantiality c. Neologisms d. Disconnected e. Distorted grammar. 8. What is not a negative symptoms a. Blunting or flattening of affect b. Alogia c. Reducing d. Avolition 9. What must we not consider when diagnosing Schizophrenia from DSM-5 a. Social and occupational dysfunction

b. Duration c. Schizoaffective and mood disorder exclusion d. Substance/general medical condition exclusion e. Relationship to a pervasive developmental disorder f. Family income 10. Drug induced psychosis does not include which of the following? a. Amphetamine b. Cocaine c. LSD & Ketamine d. PCP e. Alcohol f. Cannabis 11. Which of the following is not a positive symptom? a. Delusions b. Hallucinations c. Social withdrawal d. Disorganised speech e. Catatonia 12. Cognitive deficits do not consist of which of the following? a. Attention b. Learning c. Memory d. Executive functions 13. Antipsychotics do not differ in: a. Brain activity b. How selectively and to what extent thy block D2 receptors c. Which dopamine pathways they block d. The extent they also work by altering activity in related e. Their side effect and efficacy profile 14. Factors of treatment does not include a. Recovery b. Social skills training c. Cognitive behaviour therapy d. Location e. Cognitive rehabilitation Eating Disorder 1. Three most common eating disorders: a. Anorexia nervosa, bulimia nervosa and binge-eating disorder. b. Bulimia nervosa, anorexia nervosa and normal eating. c. Anorexia nervosa, normal eating and binge-eating disorder d. Anorexia nervous, bulimia nervosa and binge-eating disorder 2. Which of the following is the correct BMI for an Anorexia Nervosa diagnosis? a. < 19.5 b. < 16.5 c. < 17.5 d. < 18.5 3. Anorexia nervosa results in what percentage or less of expected body weight? a. 80% b. 85% c. 90% d. 95% 4. Anorexia is strong female reported, what percentage are males?

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a. 8% b. 9% c. 10% d. 11% There are many symptoms for AN, which of the following area is used most when first diagnosing? a. Mental b. Social c. Biological d. Physical Bulimia nervosa a. Repeated episodes of binge eating, followed by some form of inappropriate compensatory behaviour to prevent weight gain, not necessarily overweight. b. Repeated episodes of binge eating, followed by some form of inappropriate compensatory behaviour to prevent weight gain, and does not have a normal BMI. c. Repeated episodes of binge eating, not necessarily overweight d. Repeated episodes of binge eating, and does not have a normal BMI. Bulimia nervosa DSM-5 criteria. a. Binges and compensatory occurring at least twice a week over a 6 month period, and self-evaluation is unduly influenced by shape and weight b. Binges and compensatory occurring at least once a week over a 6 month period, and self-evaluation is unduly influenced by shape and weight c. Binges and compensatory occurring at least once a week over a 3 month period, and self-evaluation is unduly influenced by shape and weight. d. Binges and compensatory occurring at least twice a week over a 3 month period, and self-evaluation is unduly influenced by shape and weight What effects do eating disorders have on the brain? a. Shrink, adaptive to new situations, thoughts of food, rigid and fragmented thinking, and problem solving impairment. b. Shrink, fails to adjust to new situations, thoughts of food, consistent thinking, and problem solving impairment c. Shrink, fails to adjust to new situations, thoughts of food, rigid and fragmented thinking, and problem solving impa...