Patho-quiz-2 - Helpful PDF

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Question 1 1 out of 1 pointsWhich of the following would not be expected in fibromyalgia? Selected Answer: E. diplopia and scotoma Answers: A. troublesome fatigue B. headache and depression C. waking up tired D. trouble thinking and remembering E. diplopia and scotoma Question 2 1 out of 1 pointsA 7...

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Question 1 1 out of 1 points

Which of the following would not be expected in fibromyalgia? Selected Answer:

E. diplopia and scotoma

Answers:

A. troublesome fatigue B. headache and depression C. waking up tired D. trouble thinking and remembering E. diplopia and scotoma

Question 2 1 out of 1 points

A 72-year-old male demonstrates left-sided weakness of upper and lower extremities, blurred vision and dizziness. The symptoms disappear in 45 minutes. He has most likely experienced Selected Answer:

B. transient ischaemic attack

Answers:

A. epidural haematoma B. transient ischaemic attack

C. focal dyscognitive seizure D. multiple sclerosis episode E. arteriovenous malformation Question 3 1 out of 1 points

Which of the following confirms the presence of active tuberculosis? Selected Answer:

E. identification of acid-fast bacilli in a sputum sample

Answers:

A. history of exposure to individuals being treated for TB B. cough and haemoptysis C. positive Mantoux test D. calcified nodule shown on a chest X-ray E. identification of acid-fast bacilli in a sputum sample

Question 4 0 out of 1 points

A patient is experiencing respiratory failure. Which of the following lab values would be expected? Selected Answer:

A.

low PaCO2 Answers:

A. low PaCO2 B. anaemia C. hypoproteinaemia D. reduced blood pH E. low haematocrit

Question 5 1 out of 1 points

A person presented with low back pain spreading along the distribution of S1 spinal nerve on the left. Which of the following statements is most likely to be correct? Selected Answer:

E. he is likely to show weakness of plantar flexion

Answers:

A. this is to be expected in early stage of ankylosing spondylitis B. he probably has a lesion of the spinothalamic tract on the opposite side C. he is showing early manifestations of Brown-Sequard's syndrome D. he most likely has diabetic neuropathy E. he is likely to show weakness of plantar flexion

Question 6 1 out of 1 points

A massive pulmonary embolism will most likely lead to Selected Answer:

B. cardiogenic shock

Answers:

A. development of pulmonary oedema B. cardiogenic shock C. disseminated intravascular coagulation D. chronic obstructive pulmonary disease E. increase in hydrostatic pressure in lung capillaries

Question 7 1 out of 1 points

A 50-year-old male is diagnosed with pulmonary embolism. Which of the following symptoms were the most likely on his arrival to hospital? Selected Answer:

B. chest pain and tachypnoea

Answers:

A. copious mucopurulent sputum B. chest pain and tachypnoea C.

shallow respirations and wheezing D. barrel chest and reduced respiratory rate E. dry cough and inspiratory crackles Question 8 1 out of 1 points

The inflammation surrounding a fracture site during the first few days may complicate healing by causing Selected Answer:

B. ischeamia and tissue necrosis

Answers:

A. increased proliferation of osteoblasts B. ischeamia and tissue necrosis C. formation of a cartilage scar D. transformation of osteocytes to fibroblasts E. excessive bone movement

Question 9 1 out of 1 points

What is a common adverse effect of long-term use of glucocorticoids to treat rheumatoid arthritis? Selected Answer:

D.

osteoporosis Answers:

A. aplastic anaemia B. hypotension C. weight loss D. osteoporosis E. skin allergy

Question 10 1 out of 1 points

An initial clinical manifestation associated with acute spinal cord injury is Selected Answer:

B. loss of voluntary muscle control below the injury

Answers:

A. pain below the level of the injury B. loss of voluntary muscle control below the injury C. dysmetria and intention tremor D. loss of autonomic reflexes above the injury E. hyperactive spinal reflexes above the injury

Question 11

1 out of 1 points

A 64 year old woman presents with a ten year history of dry eyes and dry mouth. She is otherwise well and has no other medical problems. Which of the following would be most suggestive of a diagnosis of primary Sjogren's syndrome? Selected Answer:

A. positive anti-Ro and anti-La antibodies

Answers:

A. positive anti-Ro and anti-La antibodies B. reduced bone mineral density C. positive rheumatoid factor D. presence of dental caries E. CRP level of 6 g/L

Question 12 1 out of 1 points

54 year old man presents with a 12 hour history of an acutely swollen right knee. He is having difficulty weight bearing. He has several investigations organised. Which of the following results would be most suggestive of a diagnosis of gout? Selected Answer:

Answers:

D. negatively birefringent crystals seen on polarised light microscopy of joint aspirate A. negative bacterial culture in joint aspirate B. erythrocyte sedimentation rate of 60 mm/hr

C. neutrophil count of 12 x 10⁹/L D. negatively birefringent crystals seen on polarised light microscopy of joint aspirate E. serum uric acid level of 0.45 mmol/l Question 13 0 out of 1 points

Which of the following best describes the typical bone pain caused by osteosarcoma? Selected Answer:

E. intermittent, increasing with activity

Answers:

A. mild, aching, only when weight-bearing B. sharp, only with joint movement C. only provoked by physical manipulation D. steady, severe, and persisting with rest E. intermittent, increasing with activity

Question 14 1 out of 1 points

A 42 year old woman presents with tightening of the skin of her fingers. She is finding it more difficult to swallow solids and has difficulty fully opening her mouth. She has developed Raynaud's phenomenon in her hands. She has noticed some new chalky lumps under the skin of her finger tips. There are telangiectasia on her face and hands.What is the

most likely diagnosis? Selected Answer:

E. systemic sclerosis

Answers:

A. polymyositis B. nodal osteoarthrosis C. reactive arthritis D. Sjogren's syndrome E. systemic sclerosis

Question 15 1 out of 1 points

Anti-CCP test is superior to RF test in rheumatoid arthritis because Selected Answer:

B. anti-CCP is more specific than RF

Answers:

A. RF requires sampling of the synovial fluid B. anti-CCP is more specific than RF C. RF is found only in very advanced RA D. RF is negative in majority of patients with RA

E. anti-CCP shows superior sensitivity to RF Question 16 1 out of 1 points

A 23-year-old female begins having problems with tiredness, weakness and visual changes. Her diagnosis is multiple sclerosis. The main abnormality is Selected Answer:

E. demyelination of axon tracts in the CNS

Answers:

A. loss of motor neurons in anterior horns of spinal cord B. reduced activity of acetylcholine at the neuromuscular junctions C. formation of amyloid plaques and neurofibrillary tangles D. depletion of dopamine in the CNS E. demyelination of axon tracts in the CNS

Question 17 1 out of 1 points

Which of the following would not be expected in MS? Selected Answer:

B. neck pain, vomiting, impaired consciousness

Answers:

A. numbness and tingling B.

neck pain, vomiting, impaired consciousness C. blurring of vision D. weakness and fatigue E. walking difficulty Question 18 1 out of 1 points

Cerebellar lesion can cause all of the following except Selected Answer:

C. hemianopia

Answers:

A. dysdiadochokinesia B. inability to walk in a straight line C. hemianopia D. positive finger to nose test E. positive Romberg's test

Question 19 1 out of 1 points

Why does vomiting occur in a patient who has increased intracranial pressure?

Selected Answer:

E. pressure on the emetic centre in the medulla

Answers:

A. stimulation of the hypothalamic centre for hunger B. chemoreceptors responding to changes in the blood flow C. pressure extending to spinal nerves controlling swallowing D. reduced blood flow to the GIT E. pressure on the emetic centre in the medulla

Question 20 1 out of 1 points

Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea Selected Answer:

A. generally accompanies pulmonary oedema

Answers:

A. generally accompanies pulmonary oedema B. is a manifestation of pulmonary fibrosis C. is a typical symptom of obstructive lung disease D. is highly suggestive of right ventricular failure E.

occurs in association with tuberculosis Question 21 1 out of 1 points

Where does inflammation usually begin in an individual with ankylosing spondylitis? Selected Answer:

A. sacroiliac joints with progression up the spine

Answers:

A. sacroiliac joints with progression up the spine B. cervical and thoracic vertebrae, causing kyphosis C. hips first and then thoracic spine D. costovertebral joints with progression down the spine E. peripheral joints and then proceeds to the vertebrae

Question 22 1 out of 1 points

Bradykinesia is ________________ and is characteristic for ____________________. Selected Answer:

B. slowness of movement; Parkinson's disease

Answers:

A. scissors gait; cerebral palsy B. slowness of movement; Parkinson's disease

C. excessive fatigue; multiple sclerosis D. weakness of one side of the body; CVA E. rhytmical jerking; clonic-tonic seizure Question 23 1 out of 1 points

Pulse oximetry has shown 90%. Which of the following conditions is unlikely? Selected Answer:

A. serious anaemia

Answers:

A. serious anaemia B. significant pulmonary embolism C. widespread bronchopneumonia D. pulmonary oedema E. status asthmaticus

Question 24 1 out of 1 points

Which of the following conditions is most commonly associated with an increased risk of osteoporosis? Selected Answer:

D.

rheumatoid arthritis Answers:

A. Paget's disease B. late menopause C. osteoarthrosis D. rheumatoid arthritis E. hypothyroidism

Question 25 1 out of 1 points

A person who suffered mild concussion would typically present with Selected Answer:

B. retrograde amnesia

Answers:

A. vomiting without nausea B. retrograde amnesia C. significant behavioural changes D. a brief loss of consciousness E. gradually increasing headache

Question 26

1 out of 1 points

Which of the following auto-antibodies may have a role in monitoring disease activity? Selected Answer:

C. anti-dsDNA antibodies in SLE

Answers:

A. antinuclear antibodies in SLE B. anti-Ro (SSA) antibodies in Sjogren's syndrome C. anti-dsDNA antibodies in SLE D. rheumatoid factor in RA E. anti-Sm antibodies in SLE

Question 27 1 out of 1 points

Which of the following is a pro-inflammatory cytokine? Selected Answer:

D. tumour necrosis factor-alpha

Answers:

A. interleukin 4 B. rheumatoid factor C. serum amyloid precursor protein D.

tumour necrosis factor-alpha E. CRP Question 28 1 out of 1 points

A child is diagnosed with cerebral palsy, characterised by uncontrolled automatic movements affecting face and arms. Which of the following types of cerebral palsy is he experiencing? Selected Answer:

A. athetoid

Answers:

A. athetoid B. atonic C. psychomotor D. ataxic E. spastic

Question 29 1 out of 1 points

When does secondary tuberculosis with tissue destruction occur? Selected Answer: Answers:

C. when a person become immunocompromised for some reason A.

when type I hypersensitivity reaction develops in response to M.tuberculosis B. when Ghon complexes form in the lungs C. when a person become immunocompromised for some reason D. when there is prolonged exposure to cigarette smoke E. when the BCG vaccine is not administered immediately following exposure to the microbe Question 30 1 out of 1 points

Which of the following is the most likely in a patient presenting with fatigue and haemoptysis? Selected Answer:

B. secondary tuberculosis

Answers:

A. pneumothorax B. secondary tuberculosis C. atypical pneumonia D. hyperventilation E. serious asthmatic episode

Question 31

1 out of 1 points

A one-year-old child is diagnosed with croup. Which of the following symptoms is most likely present? Selected Answer:

D. respiratory stridor and barking cough

Answers:

A. high fever and occasional dry cough B. pleuritic chest pain C. fatigue and weight loss D. respiratory stridor and barking cough E. haemoptysis and mucous production

Question 32 0 out of 1 points

Which of the following is true regarding polymyalgia rheumatica? Selected Answer:

D. manifestations develop slowly over a period of several months

Answers:

A. male predominant B. pain and stiffness in proximal joints C. normal ESR and CRP

D. manifestations develop slowly over a period of several months E. it is usually diagnosed in 20-30 years old Question 33 1 out of 1 points

A person with aching joints and muscles is found to have high level of anti-RNP in blood. This strongly indicates the possibility of Selected Answer:

B. mixed connective tissue disease

Answers:

A. SLE B. mixed connective tissue disease C. reactive arthritis D. Becker muscle dystrophy E. gouty arthritis

Question 34 1 out of 1 points

All of the following can occur in Duchene muscular dystrophy except Selected Answer:

A. hypertonia of affected muscles

Answers:

A.

hypertonia of affected muscles B. cardiomyopathy C. enlargement of calf and deltoid muscles D. elevated CK level in blood E. contracture of the heel tendon Question 35 1 out of 1 points

The patient with apraxia cannot Selected Answer:

E. carry out an imagined act

Answers:

A. recognise familiar objects B. understand spoken words C. remember things from their recent past D. speak fluently E. carry out an imagined act

Question 36 1 out of 1 points

Which of the following constitutes a ‘red flag’ regarding low back pain? Selected Answer:

A. recent onset bladder dysfunction/overflow incontinence

Answers:

A. recent onset bladder dysfunction/overflow incontinence B. pain worsened by physical activity C. pain worse at rest and relieved by moderate activity D. positive ‘slump test’ E. positive 'straight leg raise' test

Question 37 1 out of 1 points

Which of the following statements about berry aneurysms in the brain is not true? Selected Answer:

A. when rupture they cause intracerebral haematoma

Answers:

A. when rupture they cause intracerebral haematoma B. following rupture, blood appears in the subarachnoid space C. they usually develop at points of bifurcation in the circle of Willis D. following rupture there is sudden onset headache

E. they are usually asymptomatic for many years Question 38 1 out of 1 points

A 48-year-old female presents to emergency complaining of an acute severe headache, nausea, photophobia and nuchal rigidity. These signs and symptoms are probably caused by Selected Answer:

C. subarachnoid haemorrhage

Answers:

A. migraine B. focal dyscognitive seizure C. subarachnoid haemorrhage D. diffuse brain injury E. acute MS exacerbation

Question 39 1 out of 1 points

A 33-year-old male is brought to emergency for treatment of injuries received in a motor vehicle accident. An MRI reveals an injury of the cervical cord. Cord injury and swelling in this region may be life threatening because Selected Answer:

E. respiratory muscles function may be impaired

Answers:

A. increased intracranial pressure may occur

B. bladder emptying will not occur C. somatomotor reflexes will be disrupted D. heart will not receive sympathetic stimulation E. respiratory muscles function may be impaired Question 40 1 out of 1 points

All of the following are correct statements about mixed connective tissues disease except Selected Answer:

A. typical age of onset is between 60-65 years old

Answers:

A. typical age of onset is between 60-65 years old B. it is typically associated with positive anti-U1-RNP antibodies in blood C. the condition also causes damage of skeletal muscles D. great majority of patients are women E. pulmonary hypertension is the most common cause of death in people with MCTD

Question 41 1 out of 1 points

Which of the following is unlikely cause of embolic cerebral infarction? Selected Answer:

B. deep leg vein thrombosis

Answers:

A. mural thrombus in the left ventricle B. deep leg vein thrombosis C. left atrial thrombosis D. thrombosis in common carotid artery E. aortic arch atherosclerosis/thrombosis

Question 42 1 out of 1 points

Which of the following describes lobar pneumonia best? Selected Answer:

D. acute onset of fever and chills, coughing and rusty sputum

Answers:

A. barking cough, hoarseness of voice, inspiratory stridor, dyspnoea B. slow development of malaise, anorexia, weight loss and low grade fever C. dyspnoea, wheezing, indrawing of intercostal spaces D. acute onset of fever and chills, coughing and rusty sputum

E. insidious onset, mild fever, dry cough Question 43 1 out of 1 points

Which of the following is a true statement about transient ischemic attacks? Selected Answer:

C. they can warn of potential cerebrovascular accidents

Answers:

A. they produce transient demyelination in the CNS B. they only occur in people with marked hypertension C. they can warn of potential cerebrovascular accidents D. they usually cause diffuse axonal injury E. they may be caused by rupture of a cerebral aneurysm

Question 44 1 out of 1 points

Lung infarction is not very common during pulmonary embolism because of Selected Answer:

E. lung tissue also receiving blood from bronchial arteries

Answers:

A. reduced venous return in such event B. compensatory reduction in right ventricular output

C. compensatory vasodilation in hypoperfused area D. compensatory increase in left ventricular output E. lung tissue also receiving blood from bronchial arteries Question 45 1 out of 1 points

An 70-year-old female develops pneumonia in hospital. She becomes cyanotic, tachycardic, and develops fever and cough. Chest X-ray reveals fluid in the pleural space. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? Selected Answer:

D. empyema

Answers:

A. emphysema B. pericarditis C. pneumothorax D. empyema E. hydrothorax

Question 46 1 out of 1 points

Pulmonary embolism can produce all of the following except Selec...