Pharmacology-AND- Anesthesiology Ememe PDF

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Which of the following antibiotics of cross allergic with penicillin and should NOT be administered to the penicillin-sensitive patient? - Erythromycin Ampicillin Clindamycin Lincomycin All are characteristics of sulfonylureas except: Would give a hypoglycemic reaction Oral anti diabetic agents - Ca...

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1. Which of the following antibiotics of cross allergic with penicillin and should NOT be administered to the penicillin-sensitive patient?! • Erythromycin • Ampicillin! • Clindamycin! • Lincomycin! 2. All are characteristics of sulfonylureas except:! • Would give a hypoglycemic reaction! • Oral anti diabetic agents! • Causes the release of endogenous insulin • Used in adjunct to diet to treat non insulin dependent DM! • Effective in patients with insulin dependent diabetes! 3. H2 receptors blockers have the following actions, except:! • Anti histamine! • Treats acid peptic disease! • Anti androgen effect • Inhibits liver metabolism! • Treat Zolinger- Ellison syndrome! 4.Pseudomembranous candidiasis is an opportunistic infectious condition which can be seen in the buccal mucosa, dorsal of the tongue and palate may be best treated by this polyene antibiotic: ! • Polymyxin B ! • Miconazole ! • Nystatin • Greseofluvin ! 5. The type of drug not interact with receptor to produce a therapeutic nor toxic effect?! • Free drug! • Albumin! • Protein plasma bound drug! • Alpha acid glycoprotein! 6. Characteristics of COX 1 except! • A component of healthy tissue! • Involved the formation of mucous protective barrier in the stomach! • Induces platelet aggregation! • Elevates PG’s during inflammation • Induces arterial constriction! 7. “Epinephrine reversal is a predicable result of the use of epinephrine in a patient who has received a/ an:! • Beta blocker! • Alpha blocker

• Adrenergic antagonist! • Alpha agonist! 8. When tissue injury occurs, histamine is liberated into the surrounding fluids. This statement is not true regarding histamine.! • Mediates the typical allergic and anaphylactic reaction responses! • Increase secretion of gastric acid and pepsin! • Constricts the CNS blood vessels! • Increase blood flow and capillary and venue permeability! • Stored in high concentration in mast cells and basophilic cells! 9. Xerostomia , glossitis and metallic taste is associated with which antibiotic?! • Metronidazole • Tetracycline! • Erythromycin! • Vancomycin! 10. Alpha receptors effects include the following except:! • Vasodilation and relaxation of respiratory muscles • Vasoconstriction and contraction of the uterus and spleen! • Reduction in motility and tone of the GI smooth muscle! • Mydriasis! 11. A sedation often used in the management of pediatric dental patient is:! • Chloral hydrate • Meperidine! • Pentobarbital! • Secobarbital! 12. Displacement of drug protein binding sites expected to increase the! • Activity of medullary centers • Drug effect observed! • Dose required for a given effect! • Duration of drug effect! 13. Phenothiazine is used to:! • Suppress coughing! • Produce muscle relaxation! • Alter psychotic behavior • Produce hypnosis! • Produce analgesia! 14. Which of the following is used to prevent laryngiospasm?!

• • • • •

succinylcholine(anectine)! Atropine! Diaepam(Valium) Epinephrine! Neostigmine (prostigmine)!

15. The prostaglandin produce all of the following pharmacologic actions except:! • Uterine Contraction! • Increased capillary permeability! • Increase gastric secretion! • Pyrexia ! 16. Penicillinase-resistant drugs are active against gram positive aerobe and reserved for treating:! • Candida infections! • Staphylococcal infections! • Streptococcal infections! • Meningococcal infections! 17. The barbiturates Phenobarbital, mephobarbital and primidone are classified as what type of barbiturates?! • Intermediate acting! • Ultra short acting! • Short acting! • Long acting 18. Which of the ff. Is NOT characteristic of the thiazide diuretics? They! • Increase hypokalemia! • Increase renal excretion of sodium and chloride! • Cause hypoglycemia! • Increase renal excretion of potassium! 19. Alpha adrenergic receptors are located in the ff except:! • Blood platelets! • Presynaptic nerve terminals! • Postganglionic nerve terminals • Vascular smooth muscles! 20. The principal associated with the use of nitrous oxide anesthesia is concentrations exceeding 80 % is:! • Renal damage! • Liver damage! • Nausea and vomiting! • Irritation of the respiratory tract! • Hypoxia 21. Which of the following is NOT true about acetaminophen? It! • Is a cross allergenic with aspirin!

• Possesses both analgesic and antiseptic effects • Is a non-prescription drug! • Maybe the pharmacologically active form of acetophenetidin(phenacetin)! • May induce methamoglobinemia at high doses! 22. Digitoxin is effective in the treatment of cardiac failure because it! • Has a positive cardiac inotropic action! • Produces peripheral vasoconstriction! • Is primarily a diuretic! • Decreases abnormal cardiac rhythms 23. During visit to the dentist, a patient develops a severe, acute bronchial asthmatic attack. He should immediately receive:! • Epinephrine • Cortisone! • 90% oxygen, 10% CO2! • Diphenhydramine! 24. The adrenergic receptor predominantly seen in heart is the:! • Alpha 1 ! • Beta 1 • Alpha 2! • Both beta 1 and beta 2! • Beta 2! 25. The decreased in ventilation caused by morphine, meperidine and some of the related opioids depends CHIEFLY upon! • An increase in carbon dioxide concentration in the blood! • Depression of cortisol activity! • Periphery blockade of chemoreceptor impulses! • Loss of sensitivity of the medullary respiratory center to carbon dioxide 26. Acetaminophen is a para aminophenol derivatives used as an analgesic to relieve low intensity pain. Which among is true regarding acetominophen?! • Can cause hepatic necrosis • Inhibits platelet aggregation! • Inhibits central prostaglandin synthesis ! • Increased risk of developing Reye’s syndrome! • Inhibits peripheral prostaglandin synthesis! 27. If norepinephrine or epinephrine were to stimulate or combine with the alpha receptors in the eye response would you expect?! • Stenosis! • Mydriasis

• Mitosis! • O reaction will occur!

• Epilepsy! • Hypertension!

28. These 2 drugs are considered the first line antiTB drug because it suppress or kill the slow growing, acid-fast bacterium! • INH and PZA! • INH AND RIFAMPICIN • Rifampicin and ethambutol! • Ethambutol and PZA!

35. Atropine is desirable for preanesthetic medication because it! • Prevents vomiting! • Obtunds the cough reflex! • Increase secretions of the gastro intestinal tract! • Reduces glandular secretion in the airway

29. The primary effect produced by digitalis at therapeutic dose levels is to:! • Slow the cardiac rate! • Increase the force myocardial contraction • Decrease cardiac enlargement! • Decrease the venous pressure! 30. Disorientation, confusions and hallucinations resulting from an overdose of scopolamine are MOST efficaciously treated by administering! • Atropine! • Acetylcholine ! • Physostigmine • Levodopa! 31. Aspirin has an analgesic, antipyretic and antiinflammatory property at therapeutic doses. Which among these is not true regarding aspirins?! • Inhibits peripheral prostaglandin synthesis ! • Increased risk of developing Reye’s syndrome! • Reduces thromboxane production • Inhibits platelet aggregation! • Inhibits central prostaglandin synthesis! 32. Quinine is used to treat:! • Hypertension! • Atrial fibrillation • Angina pectoris! • Ventricular fibrillation! 33. Death of the affected fungal cell by the polyene antibiotics are due to the following except:! • Drugs bind to sterols in the fungal cell membrane! • Suppress local candida infection! • Works on the growing cell that contain peptidoglycan in their cell wall! • Increase membrane permeability and permits leakage of intracellular contents! 34. Which of the ff disease states is a contraindication to the use of nitrous oxide oxygen sedation?! • History of recent myocardial infarction! • Angina pectoris

36. Allergic reaction to local anesthetics are caused by:! • Improper technique! • Fast administration! • Antigen-antibody reaction • Rapid absorption! 37. Following an inferior alveolar nerve block, the inability to close on the right side of the injection can be attributed to! • Anesthetiizing the trochlear nerve • Toxic reaction to the solution! • Anesthetizing the facial nerve! • Anesthetizing the trigeminal nerve! 38. Following injection of. A local anesthetic solution, your patient goes into syncope with no major change of vital functions, you should:! • Break a pearl of Amy; nitrite under his nose! • Lay back the chair, lower the patient’s head elevated his feet and administer oxygen • Do nothing. Serve and wait for him to return to consciousness! • Inject epinephrine, 0.3-0.5 mg subcutaneously! 39. Which of the ff factors contributes to the short duration of anesthetic action of a single dose of thiopental?! • Rapid biotransformation! • High lipid solubility of the undissociated form! • Ability to enter and leave brain tissue very rapidly • Rapid accumulation in the body fat! 40. Which of the ff structures travel through the substance of the parotid gland?! • Maxillary artery, retromandibular vein and facial! • Maxillary artery! • Maxillary artery and retromandibular vein • Maxillary artery, retromandibular vein, facial artery and buccal branch of the mandibular nerve! 41. The ONLY local anesthetic which increases the pressure activity of both epinephrine and norepinephrine is!

• • • •

Procaine! Lidocaine Cocaine! Mepivacaine!

42. The disease involves the afferent nerve of the trigeminal nerve with the exception of the ophthalmic branch. It is caused by pressure on the sensory root of the trigeminal ganglion with patient feeling excruciating short term pain when the facial trigger zones are touched.! • None of the choices! • Sjogre’s syndrome! • Bell’s palsy! • Tic duolourex 43. A dentist administers 1.8 ml of a 2% solution of lidocaine. How may mg of lidocaine did the px receive?! • 3.6 mg! • 18 mg! • 36 mg • 9mg! 44. This local anesthetic can produce methemoglobinemia and is contraindicated and used with precaution in px with hypoxic condition and hepatic disease! • Prilocaine • Propoxycaine! • Pontocaine! • Procaine! 45. The trigeminal provides sensory innervation for all of the following except the:! • Paranasal sinuses! • Posterior third of the tongue • Skin of the face! • Oral cavity! • Nasal cavity! 46. General anesthesia with halothane is commonly precede by administration of atropine to! • Block the cardiovascular effects produced by the injection of a sympathetic drug! • Inhibit vagal overactivity commonly caused by halothane! • Induce muscular relaxation by blocking cholinergic receptors! • Reduce salivation and bronchial secretions caused by halothane 47. Which of the following is an important consideration of the intrapulpal injection?! • The injection should be with back pressure

• A long acting anesthetic should be used! • Another supplemental injection should not be attempted first! • It will take several minutes for the injection to take effect! 48. Procaine, benzocaine, tetracaine and propoxycaine are hydrolyzed primarily in the:! • Liver! • Plasma • Kidney! • Lungs! 49. How many millimeters of b=nerve fibers should be in contact with anesthetic solution for effective anesthesia?! • 5-6 mm! • 4mm! • 1-3mm • 8-10mm! 50. Which of the ff statement best describes the mechanism of action of local anesthetics on the nerve axon?! • Decrease sodium uptake through sodium channels of the axon! • Increases the excitability ! • Increases potassium outflow from inside to outside the nerve • Increases the membrane’s permeability to sodium! 51. Local anesthetics are weak bases which reduce the discharge frequency of a nerve conduction and decrease the total number of Nerve fibers activated by a given stimulus. Which among these is not a characteristics of local anesthetics.! • Prevent the action potential of a nerve! • Affects the resting potential of a nerve! • Do not influence the activity of the sodium pump mechanism! • Stabilizes nerve membranes making it less excitable! • Block voltage dependent sodium channels! 52. The most frequent cause of inadequate local anesthesia is! • Atomic variations! • Apprehension! • Local variations of tissue pH! • Use of unstable solutions! • Use of improper techniques 53. Paresthesia elicited during a mandibular block injection is due to!

• Sodium conductance through the nerve membrane! • Poor technique! • Acid ph of the local anesthetic solution! • Contact of the needle wi the nerve trunk 54. Infraorbital nerve block, the needle approximates except:! • None! • Beneath angular head of quadrates labii superiors! • Below head quadrates labii superiors • Above origin od caninus muscle! 55. Anesthesia performed with general anesthetics occurs in 4 stages which may or may not be observable because they can occur very rapidly. Which stage is the one which skeletal muscles relax, an the patient’s breathing becomes regular?! • Medullary anesthesia! • Excitement! • Surgical anesthesia • Analgesia! 56. Method controlling pain by use of local anesthesia! • Pain prevention by cortical depression! • Block painful impulse! • Psychosomatic methods! • Removal of cause! • Raising pain threshold 57. You are considering your choice of analgesic for a surgical procedure which you anticipate will be ‘difficult’. Which one of the following agents provides the most prolonged analgesia?! • Bupivicaine • Articaine! • Lidocaine! • Mepivacaine! 58. A successful nerve block will produce anesthesia of the:! • Lower lip! • Lower lip, mandibular teeth and labial gingiva of the anterior mandibular teeth • Lower lip and mandibular teeth! • Lower lip, mandibular teeth and labial gingiva of the anterior and buccal gingival of the posterior mandibular teeth! 59. The most serious consequence of systemic local anesthetic toxicity is:! • Respiratory stimulation! • Lethal anaphylaxis! • Psychogenic reactions!

• CNS depression • Respiratory depression! 60. Area of bone resistance upon needle insertion in IAN block:! • Retromolar triangle! • Internal oblique ridge • External oblique ridge! • Coronoid notch ! 61. Epinephrine is added to local anesthetics because it:! • Prevents the rigid deterioration of the local anesthetics solution! • Potentiates the action of all local anesthetics! • Increases the rate of destruction of the local anesthetics! • Decreases the rate of absorption of the local anesthetic at the injection site 62. In general anesthesia , the last part of CNS to be depressed is the! • Cerebrum! • Cerebellum! • Midbrain! • Medulla 63. This technique of mandibular anesthesia is useful for patients suffering from truisms, fractured mandible and mentally-handicapped children.! • IAN block! • Vazirani-akinosi technique • Mandibular block! • How gates technique! 64. Local anesthetic agents act PRIMARILY! • At a cortical level to decrease the patients awareness of pain impulses! • At ganglionic sites to decrease central pain input! • On the axon membrane to prevent depolarizing potentials! • At the myoneural junction to decrease frequency of pain impulses reaching the CNS! 65. Infiltration anesthesia where the anesthetic solution is deposited between the periosteum and the cortical plate! • Interseptal! • Subperiosteal • Submucus! • Intraosseous! • Supraperiosteal! 66. Compromises the inner nerve loop:! • ASAN,MSAN and PSAN

• Geater palatine and nasopalatine nerves! • All mentioned! • Inferior alveolar and lingual nerves! 67. In the absence of MSAN, bicuspids can have innervation from what nerve:! • ASAN • Pterygoid plexus! • Greater palatine! • PSAN! 68. which form of local anesthetic can readily penetrate tissue membranes?! • Lipid soluble! • Nonionized free-base form • Ionized form! • Both ionized and nonionized free-bae form! 69. Pain may be reduced in local anesthetic injection by:! • Heating the anesthetic solution to 100 degrees celsius before injecting! • Using a large diameter needle with a sharp tip! • Injecting and withdrawing as a fast as possible! • Pulling the tissue over the advancing needle rather than inserting the needle into tissue! 70. Predictable sequence when all nerve fibers are affected by local anesthetic is:! • Motor,autonomic, sensory! • Autonomic, sensory, motor! • Sensory, motor, autonomic • Autonomic, motor sensory! 71. These group of drugs form covalent bonds with nucleic acids and proteins with guanine as a common binding site and is effective in treating carcinomas, chronic leukemia and lymphomas ! o Alkylating agents o Amyl nitrite% o Digitoxins% o Chelating agents ! 72. Which of the following side effects are most common with the use of Diazepam (Valium)? ! o Difficulty with urination o Rash, itch% o Mouth,throat ulcers% o Drowsiness, fatigue !

73. Acetaminophen is a para aminophenol derivative used as an analgesic to relieve low intensity pain. Which among these is true regarding Acetaminophen? !

o Inhibits platelet aggregation% o Increased risk of developing Reye’s ! syndrome% o Can cause hepatic necrosis% o Inhibits peripheral prostaglandin ! synthesis ! o Inhibit central prostaglandin synthesis ! Characteristics of COX 1 except:% o Induces platelet aggregation% o Elevates PGs during inflammation o Induces arterial constriction% o A component of healthy tissue% o Involved in the formation of mucous protective barrier in the stomach ! Developed hyporeactivity to a drug is o Detoxification ! o Desensitization ! o Tolerance# o Dehydration% o Antagonism ! A fear reaction activates the sympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system to result in: % o Increased salivation ! o Hypertension# o Bradycardia% o Miosis % Salicylates can cause gastric bleeding in the stomach because of: % o Increase prostaglandin level% o Increase movement of the intestine ! o Decrease movement of intestines ! o Decrease prostaglandin level ! Which of the following antibiotics or crossallergenic with penicillin and should not be administered to the penicillin-sensitive patient? ! o Clindamycin ! o Lincomycin% o Ampicillin% o Erythromycin ! Which of the following hormones acts to elevate blood concentration of ionic calcium? ! o Aldostetone ! o Glucagon% o Thyrotropin ! o Parathyroid

More widely used penicillin as it is more acid stable because it does not breakdown in the GI tract. % o V-cillin K ! o Ampicillin ! o PenV# o PenG % An excess of which of the following hormones may be associated with increased sensitivity to epinephrine? % o Testosterone! o Thyroid# o Parathyroid ! o Insulin % Which of the following disease states is a contraindication to the use of nitrous- oxygen sedation? ! o Hypertension% o Epilepsy% o History of recent myocardial infarction ! o Angina pectoris ! Which of the following conditions is a CONTRAINDICATION to the use of atropine to reduce salivation? ! o Parkinson’s disease! o Glaucoma# o Bladderdisease% o Peptic ulcer ! During visits to the dentist, a patient develops a severe, acute bronchial asthmatic attack. He should immediately receive ! o Diphenhydramine% o Epinephrine# o Cortisone% o 90%oxygen,10%C02 ! This drug removes the restraining influence normally exerted by the vagus on heart rate,thususedtotreatbradycardiaand controlexcesssalivation.Attherapeutic does it does not produce CNS Depression. ! o Scopolamine% o Succinylcholine ! o Atropine# o Pilocarpine ! The single most useful agent in resuscitation is: ! o Oxygen# o 1;1000 epinephrine for injection !

o Aromatic spirits of ammonia% o An endotracheal tube ! Tardive dyskinesia is a neurological side effects of which of the following classes of drugs? ! o Barbiturate antiepileptics% o Monamine oxidase inhibitors ! o Tricyclic antidepressants% o Phenothiazine antipsychotics ! Which of the following is NOT a problem encountered by the dentist in treating a patient on chronic adrenal corticosteroid therapy? ! o Ability to withstand stress is decreased o Tendency to bleed are increased ! o Susceptibility to infections is increased% o Sign of inflammation ! Administration of which of the following drugs will NOT inhibit secretory activity in the oral cavity? % o Mecamylamine! o Ephedrine% o Scopolamine% o Atropine % Beta receptors are located in the following , excepts; % o Blood vessels of the kidney ! o Bronchial smooth muscle o Heart! o Vascular smooth muscles % The antibiotic that is commonly associated with Red man syndrome % o Vancomycin o Streptomycin ! o Ery...