Principles of Disease PDF

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Principles of Disease Practise SBA Questions 1. Which of the following is used in HIV therapy: A. Aciclovir B. Gentamicin C. Nitrofurantoin D. Nystatin E. Saquinavir

2. Which of the following is an effect of benign tumours A. Bleeding B. Pressure C. Pain D. Seizures E. Tissue Destruction 3. Which of the following is used only in the treatment of urinary tract infection (UTI): A. Flucloxacillin B. Gentamicin C. Nitrofurantoin D. Nystatin E. Vancomycin

4. Serious infection with methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) indicates treatment with intravenous: A. Benzylpenicillin B. Flucloxacillin C. Gentamicin D. Nystatin E. Vancomycin

5. Serious infection with a Gram negative organism such as Escherichia coli indicates treatment with intravenous: A. Amoxicillin B. Amphotericin B C. Gentamicin D. Nitrofurantoin E. Nystatin

6. A teratoma is more commonly: A. malignant in both sexes B. Benign in both sexes C. Malignant in women, benign in men D. Benign in women, malignant in men E. Only found in women

7. Serious systemic fungal infection indicates treatment with intravenous: A. Aciclovir B. Amphotericin B C. Benzylpenicillin D. Gentamicin E. Vancomycin

8. The pathogenesis of systemic Type III hypersensitivity requires: A. Gamma-interferon ( -interferon) production B. Immune complex formation C. Immunoglobulin E (IgE) production D. Interleukin-4 production (IL-4) E. Local IgG production

9. Neutrophil polymorphs: A. Have antioxidant properties B. Are responsible for pain felt in acute inflammation C. Are a major component of the acute inflammatory response D. Are usually a major component of granulomatous inflammation E. Produce vasoconstriction in inflammation 10. In terms of cell cycle which is true A. Cell prepares DNA for mitosis in G0 B. Cell prepares DNA in G1 C. Mitosis is a 3 step process D. Cytokinesis is the last step in the production of daughter cells E. Most cells are in the S phase at any one time

11. Which of the following is not as a result of an additional chromosome A. Down’s syndrome B. Patau syndrome C. Turner syndrome D. Edward’s syndrome E. Klinefelter syndrome

12. Fibroblasts: A. Are usually a major component of granulomatous inflammation B. Produce collagens C. Produce vasoconstriction in inflammation D. Promote continuation of acute inflammation E. Relax vascular smooth muscle in acute inflammation 13. Histamine:

A. Has antioxidant properties B. Is responsible for pain felt in acute inflammation C. Produces vasoconstriction in inflammation D. Promotes continuation of acute inflammation E. Relaxes vascular smooth muscle in acute inflammation 14. Hypoxia: A. Impedes tissue healing B. Is a response to antigen C. Is a systemic response to injury D. Is antibody mediated E. Is promoted by poor nutrition 15. In mitosis which phase consists of chromosomes aligning at equator of cell A. Interphase B. Metaphase C. Telophase D. Anaphase E. Prophase

16. Chromosomes become visible as a result of which step: A. Interphase B. Metaphase C. Telophase D. Anaphase E. Prophase

17. Glyceryltrinitrate (GTN) is administered by the sublingual route to avoid: A. First pass metabolism B. The blood brain barrier C. Phase I metabolism D. Phase II metabolism

E. Recirculation

18. A drug trial in which neither patient nor doctor is aware what treatment the patient is taking is called a: A. Controlled trial B. Cross-over trial C. Double blind trial D. Prospective trial E. Randomised trial

19. Which of the following does not require the use of an electric field to separate DNA fragments for analysis: A. RFLP B. ARMS C. PCR D. Gel Electrophoresis 20. A mutation that results in protein being finished prematurely is a: A. Silent mutation B. Missense mutation C. Nonsense mutation D. Chop-stop mutation E. Frameshift mutation

21. A drug trial in which data is collected from case records after treatment is given is called a: A. Controlled trial B. Double blind trial

C. Prospective trial D. Randomised trial E. Retrospective trial

22. A drug trial in which patients take both treatments being tested one after the other is called a: A. Controlled trial B. Cross-over trial C. Double blind trial D. Double label trial E. Randomised trial

23. A drug trial in which patients are allotted to treatment groups using random number generation is called a: A. Controlled trial B. Cross-over trial C. Double blind trial D. Prospective trial E. Randomised trial

24. In the process of transcription and translation, the adapter molecule that acts between the coded amino acid and the mRNA is: A. A transcription factor B. A translation factor C. Polymerase D. rRNA E. tRNA

25. In DNA replication which of the following is true? A. A completely new DNA molecule is synthesised from the original B. DNA replication requires only 2 enzymes to be present C. The new strands are formed in the 3’ to 5’ direction D. Okizake fragments are bonded together by DNA polymerase E. The leading strand is formed continuously

26. A single blind trial is where: A. The doctor doesn’t know the drug, but the patient does B. The patient doesn’t know the drug, but the doctor does C. Patients are randomly assigned to a group D. ½ patients take a placebo for comparison E. neither patient nor doctor know what drug is being taken

27. Which of the following is a type of ADR? A. Amended B. Brought on C. Catalytic D. Excitatory E. Failure of treatment

28. Which of the following enzymes is involved in phase 1 drug metabolism A. CYP2G4 B. Drugase C. CYP1A2 D. oxidase E. pyruvate carboxylate

29. Only one side of DNA is replicated during: A. Ligation B. Regeneration C. Replication D. Transcription E. Translation

30. A process that requires cooperation and coordination between mRNA, rRNA and tRNA is: A. Alternative splicing B. Interference C. Ligation D. Protein Synthesis E. Transcription

31. mRNA is used to form an amino acid sequence during the process of: A. Ligation B. Regeneration C. Replication D. Transcription E. Translation 32. Mitosis: A. Does not involve recombination B. Produces diploid cells from diploid cells C. Produces diploid cells from haploid cells D. Produces haploid cells from diploid cells E. Produces haploid cells from haploid cells

33. Which of the following pairs shows the correct mechanism and type of hypersensitivity? A. Type I – IgG/IgM mediated B. Type II – Immune Complex

C. Type II - IgA D. Type III – Immune Complex E. Type IV - IgE

34.Which of the following causes rubor and calor in acute inflammation A. Endothelial leak B. Oedema C. Increased local blood flow D. Emigration of neutrophils E. Exudation of plasma proteins

35. Some drugs are administered intravenously to avoid A. The blood brain barrier B. Indigestion C. First pass metabolism D. Phase 1 metabolism E. Vomiting

36. Which of the following should be used to treat an unknown gram negative bacteria? A. Vancomycin B. benzyl penicillin C. gentamicin D. clarithromycin E. lamivudine 37. Meisosis: A. Does not involve recombination

B. Produces diploid cells from diploid cells C. Produces diploid cells from haploid cells D. Produces haploid cells from diploid cells E. Produces haploid cells from haploid cells

38. Fertilisation: A. Does not involve recombination B. Produces diploid cells from diploid cells C. Produces diploid cells from haploid cells D. Produces haploid cells from diploid cells E. Produces haploid cells from haploid cells 39. The primary site of protein synthesis is the: A. Endosome B. Nuclear envelope C. Nucleosome D. Nucleus E. Ribosome 40. The X chromosome: A. Is transmitted by fathers to daughters but not sons B. Is transmitted by mothers to daughters but not sons C. Is transmitted by mothers to sons but not daughters D. Is transmitted only by fathers E. Is transmitted only by mothers

41. The Y chromosome: A. Is transmitted by fathers to daughters but not sons B. Is transmitted by mothers to daughters but not sons C. Is transmitted by mothers to sons but not daughters D. Is transmitted only by fathers E. Is transmitted only by mothers 42. Retinoblastoma:

A. Is a multi-step phenomenon B. Is caused by a loss of tumour suppressor gene C. Is due to reversible genetic changes D. Represent precursors of cancer E. Require the presence of a specific cell surface receptor

43. Leukaemia is: A. A malignant tumour of bone B. A malignant tumour of connective tissue C. A malignant tumour of fatty tissue D. A malignant tumour of glandular epithelium E. A malignant tumour of white blood cells

44. A liposarcoma is a: A. Benign tumour of fatty tissue B. Benign tumour of glandular epithelium C. Benign tumour of squamous epithelium D. Malignant tumour of fatty tissue E. Malignant tumour of glandular epithelium 45. An adenocarcinoma is a: A. Benign tumour of connective tissue B. Benign tumour of fatty tissue C. Benign tumour of glandular epithelium D. Malignant tumour of connective tissue E. Malignant tumour of glandular epithelium

46. Two medical students are in a patient’s cubicle on a hospital ward. Student ‘X’ examines the patient’s cervical lymph nodes while student ‘Y’ documents the examination findings and does not touch the patient. Before moving on to examine another patient, which of the following hand hygiene options is appropriate? Options: A. Only student X uses alcohol gel to clean hands

B. Only student X washes hands with plain soap and water C. Only student Y uses alcohol gel to clean hands D. Only student Y washes hands with plain soap and water E. Student X and student Y wash hands with plain soap and water

47. Which of the following is used in Herpes Simplex Virus (HSV) and Varicella Zoster Virus (VZV) therapy: A. Aciclovir B. Gentamicin C. Nitrofurantoin D. Nystatin E. Saquinavir

48. Which of the following is used topically or in oral suspension for serious fungal infection therapy? A. Aciclovir B. Gentamicin C. Nitrofurantoin D. Nystatin E. Saquinavir 49. Which of the following can be used to treat β-lactamase producing Staph aureus? A. Flucloxacillin B. Gentamicin C. Nitrofurantoin D. Nystatin E. Vancomycin

50. Which of the following is the best choice for IV treatment of serious pneumococcal, meningococcal and Strep pyogenes infection, as well as most other Gram positive infections? A. Benzylpenicillin

B. Flucloxacillin C. Gentamicin D. Nystatin E. Vancomycin

51. The pathogenesis of systemic Type I hypersensitivity requires: A. Gamma-interferon ( -interferon) production B. Immune complex formation C. Immunoglobulin E (IgE) production D. Interleukin-4 production (IL-4) E. Local IgG production 52. The pathogenesis of systemic Type IV hypersensitivity requires: A. Gamma-interferon ( -interferon) production B. Immune complex formation C. Immunoglobulin E (IgE) production D. Interleukin-4 production (IL-4) E. Local IgG production

53. The pathogenesis of systemic Type II hypersensitivity requires: A. Gamma-interferon ( -interferon) production B. Immune complex formation C. Immunoglobulin E (IgE) production D. Interleukin-4 production (IL-4) E. IgG and IgM production 54. Giant cells: A. Have antioxidant properties

B. Are responsible for pain felt in acute inflammation C. Are a major component of the acute inflammatory response D. Are usually a major component of granulomatous inflammation§ E. Produce vasoconstriction in inflammation

55. Serotonin: A. Have antioxidant properties B. Are responsible for pain felt in acute inflammation C. Are a major component of the acute inflammatory response D. Are usually a major component of granulomatous inflammation E. Produce vasoconstriction in inflammation 56. Which of the following is true A. Vancomycin and gentamicin do not need serum monitoring for toxicity B. Ciprofloxacin and gentamicin inhibit bacteria in the same way C. Amphotericin B can be administered via IV D. Aciclovir is the only drug used to treat herpes E. Clarithromycin inhibits nucleic acid synthesis

57. Which of the following is correct about ß-Lactamase resistance: A. Can only be found in gram negative bacilli B. Is the cause of MRSA outbreaks C. Can be combatted with co-amoxiclav D. Is caused by overuse od Amphotericin B and Echinocandins E. Is never found in HAI 58. Which of the following involves hydrolysis, redox reactions, and cytochrome P-40 enzymes? A. First pass metabolism B. The blood brain barrier C. Phase I metabolism D. Phase II metabolism E. Recirculation

59. Which of the following involves conjugation in order to increase the water solubility and enhance excretion of a metabolised compound? A. First pass metabolism B. The blood brain barrier C. Phase I metabolism D. Phase II metabolism E. Recirculation

60. Which of the following binds to a protein in order to form a ribosome? A. A transcription factor B. A translation factor C. Polymerase D. rRNA E. tRNA

61. Which of the following is true: A. Vancomycin is a cephalosporin that inhibits cell wall synthesis B. Gentamicin is a macrolide that inhibits nucleic acid synthesis C. Ciprofloxacin is a fluoroquinolone that inhibits nucleic acid synthesis D. Co-trimoxazole is an aminoglycoside that inhibits protein synthesis E. Benzyl-penicillin inhibits protein synthesis

62. Osteo-sarcoma is: A. A malignant tumour of bone B. A malignant tumour of connective tissue C. A malignant tumour of fatty tissue D. A malignant tumour of glandular epithelium E. A malignant tumour of white blood cells

63. A lipoma is a: A. Benign tumour of fatty tissue B. Benign tumour of glandular epithelium C. Benign tumour of squamous epithelium D. Malignant tumour of fatty tissue E. Malignant tumour of glandular epithelium

64. An adenoma is a: A. Benign tumour of fatty tissue B. Benign tumour of glandular epithelium C. Benign tumour of squamous epithelium D. Malignant tumour of fatty tissue E. Malignant tumour of glandular epithelium

65. A squamous papilloma is a: A. Benign tumour of fatty tissue B. Benign tumour of glandular epithelium C. Benign tumour of squamous epithelium D. Malignant tumour of fatty tissue E. Malignant tumour of glandular epithelium Answers:

9. C

1. E

10.

D

2. B

11.

C

3. C

12.

B

4. E

13.

E

5. C

14.

A

6. D

15.

B

7. B

16.

E

8. B

17.

A

18.

C

45.

E

19.

C

46.

E

20.

C

47.

A

21.

E

48.

D

22.

B

49.

A

23.

E

50.

A

24.

E

51.

C

25.

E

52.

A

26.

B

53.

E

27.

E

54.

D

28.

C

55.

E

29.

D

56.

C

30.

D

57.

C

31.

E

58.

C

32.

B

59.

D

33.

D

60.

D

34.

C

61.

C

35.

C

62.

A

36.

C

63.

A

37.

D

64.

B

38.

C

65. C

39.

E

40.

A

41.

D

42.

B

43.

E

44.

D...