Psy220h-au18 - Course Instructed by Dax Urbszat PDF

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Course Instructed by Dax Urbszat...

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UNIVERSITY OF TORONTO MISSISSAUGA AUGUST 2018 FINAL EXAMINATION PSY220H5S Introduction to Social Psychology Dax Urbszat Duration - 3 hours Aids: None The University of Toronto Mississauga and you, as a student, share a commitment to academic integrity. You are reminded that you may be charged with an academic offence for possessing any unauthorized aids during the writing of an exam. Clear, sealable, plastic bags have been provided for all electronic devices with storage, including but not limited to: cell phones, SMART devices, tablets, laptops, calculators, and MP3 players. Please turn off all devices, seal them in the bag provided, and place the bag under your desk for the duration of the examination. You will not be able to touch the bag or its contents until the exam is over. If, during an exam, any of these items are found on your person or in the area of your desk other than in the clear, sealable, plastic bag, you may be charged with an academic offence. A typical penalty for an academic offence may cause you to fail the course. Please note, once this exam has begun, you CANNOT re-write it.

Part A: 40 Multiple Choice (1 mark per question = 40 marks) Part B: 4 Short Essay Questions (15 marks per question for a total of 60 marks) Total of 100 marks

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A. Multiple Choice (40 marks) 1. The act of deliberately hurting someone while driven by anger and performed as an end in itself defines A. manic aggression. B. hostile aggression. C. instrumental aggression. D. deliberate aggression. 2. According to the text, a dynamic salesperson who is self-assured, energetic, and "gogetting" on the sales floor should be described as A. instrumentally aggressive. B. manipulative. C. aggressive. D. assertive. 3. Which of the following is false? A. Animals' social aggression and silent aggression seem to involve the same brain region. B. Alcohol enhances violence by reducing people's self-awareness. C. Poor diets may cause impulsivity. D. Hostile aggression springs from emotions such as anger. 4. Imagine that researchers have come up with a new substance called sumense, which decreases people's self-awareness and reduces their ability to consider the consequences of their actions. What effect do you expect sumense would have on adolescents' aggression? A. There is no reason to believe it would have any effect. B. Sumense would likely enhance aggression. C. Sumense would likely decrease aggression. D. Sumense would decrease aggressiveness of young males. 5. Which of the following best describes the relation between aggressive behaviour and testosterone? A. Testosterone facilitates aggressiveness and aggressiveness boosts testosterone levels. B. Testosterone facilitates aggressiveness only. C. Aggressiveness boosts testosterone levels only. D. There is no relation between aggressiveness and testosterone. 6. Instinct theories of aggression would have the most difficulty accounting for A. silent and social aggression in animals. B. wide variations in aggressiveness from culture to culture. C. biochemical influences on aggression. D. unprovoked outbursts of aggression.

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7. After arguing with her boyfriend, Peter, over the telephone, Roberta smashes down the receiver and then throws the phone across the room. This behaviour most clearly demonstrates A. the weapons effect. B. displacement. C. instrumental aggression. D. Parkinson's second law. 8. Alcohol enhances aggressiveness by reducing A. testosterone levels. B. self-awareness. C. activity in the amygdala. D. All of these choices 9. According to the text, frustration arises from the gap between A. expectations and attainments. B. daily frustrations. C. consistent minor irritations. D. none of the choices are correct. 10. Aggressive behaviour has been linked with A. offensive odours. B. cigarette smoking. C. air pollution. D. all of the choices are correct. 11. Jeremy instigates more and more fights with younger children on the school playground because it gains him the attention and respect of his friends. This most clearly suggests that his aggression is A. the result of frustration. B. instinctive. C. a learned response. D. the result of displacement. 12. Researchers have argued that the presence of guns can elicit violence because they serve as aggression cues. According to your text, what other reason is associated with increased violence when guns, as compared to other weapons, are present? A. People conform to the situational influences around them. B. Social learning theory dictates that observed violence leads to displayed violence. C. Guns put psychological distance between the aggressor and the victim. D. Guns are arousing, but only when the individuals are familiar with them.

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13. The need for mutual attachments meant survival for our ancestors. This need A. is at the core of our existence and thus is characteristic of people everywhere. B. is largely a 20th century motive that is most evident in industrialized societies. C. is a learned motive that serves our more fundamental need for self-esteem. D. conflicts with our more basic need to survive. 14. According to the text, if you just moved into a new place where you don't know anybody and you are an extravert, it is likely you will make friends with A. Brian, your next-door neighbour. B. John, a chemistry major who lives across campus. C. Michael, an introvert who lives on the next floor. D. Stuart, a student who lives off campus and who loves dogs. 15. Twenge and her colleagues found that A. people who feel socially excluded are not only more likely to engage in self-defeating behaviours but are also more likely to disparage or deliver a blast of noise to someone who had insulted them. B. people who feel socially excluded become humbled by the experience and express kindness to those who push them away. C. people who feel socially excluded respond calmly to the exclusion and accept the outcome as it unfolds. D. all of the choices are correct. 16. Rachel notices that the woman ahead of her in line at the grocery store is the same woman who she saw at the mailbox that morning. The next day, on her way to work, Rachel sees the same woman coming out of the new apartment building across the street. According to ___________, Rachel has a good chance of ______________ this woman. A. the reward theory of attraction; becoming a romantic rival of B. the idea of functional distance; becoming friends with C. the contrast effect; comparing herself to this woman D. the derived emotion theory; feeling good when she sees 17. The preference for those who are physically attractive is evident among A. adults judging adults and children. B. children judging other children. C. babies gazing at faces. D. all of these choices. 18. Researchers provide men and women students with various pieces of information about someone of the other sex, including a picture of the person or a brief introduction, and later ask them how interested they are in dating the participant. Results show that A. women are as influenced by a man's looks as men are by a woman's. B. men are somewhat more influenced by a woman's looks than women are by a man's. C. women are somewhat more influenced by a man's looks than men are by a woman's. D. men are influenced by a woman's looks, while women are not influenced at all by a man's looks. Page 4 of 12

19. According to Norman Li's study of how we screen potential mates, the similarity between genders was that both men and women seek A. physical attraction. B. kindness and intelligence. C. a younger mate. D. a more jealous mate. 20. Which of the following traits is not assumed of physically attractive people? A. intelligence B. happiness C. sexual warmth D. honesty 21. The tendency for opposites to mate or marry A. has only been documented among teenage couples. B. has increased in the United States since 1960. C. is just as powerful as the similarity-attraction connection. D. has never been reliably demonstrated. 22. According to Elliot Aronson, "as a relationship ripens toward greater intimacy, what becomes increasingly important is A. the absence of conflict." B. consistent praise." C. autonomy." D. authenticity." 23. Jen is more in love with Stan today than the day she married him. According to research on the relationship between love and perceived attractiveness, A. Jen probably finds Stan to be more attractive today than the day she married him. B. Jen probably finds Stan to be less attractive today than the day she married him. C. Stan probably finds Jen less attractive today than the day he married her. D. Stan and Jen probably see each other as equally attractive. 24. Melissa, a teacher, gets good course reviews and positive feedback. However, after one term, she got a negative evaluation. This negative feedback made her feel more negative than the positive feedback that made her feel happy. This is because A. of the social comparison effect where the negative was not comparable to the positive. B. self-serving biases can also work in a negative direction. C. Melissa is depressed and only focuses on the negative feedback she gets. D. negative information carries more weight and, because it is unusual, grabs our attention.

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25. Manipulating one or two factors while holding others constant is the essence of A. independent variables. B. dependent variables. C. experimental control. D. random sampling. 26. Which of the following research situations best represent an example of correlational research? A. A psychologist administers to his participants a mood questionnaire and collects their demographics data and then looks at the relationship between the variables he considered. B. A psychologist administers to her participants either 3 mg of sugar or 8 mg of sugar and then asks them to complete a mood questionnaire. She will subsequently examine if sugar had an effect on participant's mood. C. All of the choices are correct. D. None of the choices are correct. 27. James is a highly narcissistic male with a big ego. He participates in a psychology experiment where he first received negative feedback from another student about his performance on a writing task, and then played a game against this student and won. As a result of winning, James was given the task of deciding the intensity and duration of an aversive auditory stimulus that would be played to the other student. According to research, James would have administered ________ auditory torture compared to people with normal self-esteem because wounded pride motivates ___________. A. the same amount of; humility B. more; retaliation C. less; embarrassment D. no; shame 28. Nearly half of all marriages end in divorce. Yet in a study of 137 applying for a marriage license, most rated their own chance of divorce as zero. This finding illustrates A. false consensus. B. self-efficacy. C. unrealistic optimism. D. self-verification. 29. Dice players who throw softly to get low numbers and harder to get high numbers demonstrate A. the base-rate fallacy. B. the illusion of control. C. behavioural confirmation. D. regression toward the average.

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30. You're not really convinced that you should see the latest Brad Pitt movie that Julie is raving about because Julie raves about all of his movies. You've relied on A. consensus information. B. information integration. C. correspondent information. D. distinctiveness information. 31. Cognitive dissonance theory proposes that we experience _____________ when our beliefs are _______________. A. fear; uncertain B. pleasure; inconsistent C. tension; inconsistent D. arousal; consistent 32. If you want to improve your ability to empathize with others, self-perception theory recommends A. self-perceptiveness training. B. overjustification of the other's behaviour. C. sitting in front of a mirror while talking with others. D. letting your face mirror the expressions of the person you're trying to empathize with. 33. Compared to happy people, unhappy people ruminate more before reacting to a persuasive message and thus are A. more vulnerable to emotional appeals. B. less easily swayed by weak arguments. C. less involved in judging persuasive messages. D. more vulnerable to one-sided messages. 34. Media influence often occurs through opinion leaders, who in turn influence others. This is an example of A. persuasion. B. conformity. C. foot-in-the door technique. D. two-step flow of communication. 35. One of the main reasons why the studies conducted by Asch and Milgram were so controversial was that A. they taught us an academic lesson about ethics. B. they clearly demonstrated social psychological principles. C. they demonstrated that all people are inherently evil. D. they demonstrated how compliance can take precedence over moral sense.

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36. When the influence of the situation is _________________, the consequent behaviour is likely to be a result of __________________. A. weak; individual personalities B. weak; external circumstances C. strong; internal forces D. strong; dispositions 37. Buck works in a meat packing plant. Normally, the output of each individual on the assembly line is collectively evaluated. However, the plant managers are looking at effectiveness and productivity and decide to identify each individual worker's output. When being evaluated on an individual basis, Buck's productivity is likely to A. increase. B. decrease. C. stay the same. D. be the same as that of the other assembly-line workers. 38. The fact that people associate mostly with others whose attitudes are similar to their own suggests the prevalence of naturally occurring A. social facilitation. B. group think. C. minority influence. D. group polarization. 39. Evolutionary psychology is to _____________ as social-exchange theory is to ______________. A. reciprocity; empathy B. kin selection; rewards and costs C. social responsibility norm; the reciprocity norm D. empathy; rewards and costs 40. When Irving Piliavin and his colleagues staged an emergency—a staggering, collapsing man—on 103 subway trips, they found that the victim was promptly offered assistance almost every time, even when he appeared to be drunk rather than disabled. Further research seems to confirm that bystander helpfulness was due to A. subway passengers' fear of street crime. B. the sophistication and experience of the observers in offering first aid. C. the fact that the situation was unambiguous. D. the fact that subway riders were not in very large groups.

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Part B – Answer all 4 questions [4 questions worth 15 marks each total of 60 marks] Please confine your answers to the space provided on one face of the page. 1. Explain why you are attracted to someone using the following headings: similarity [3 marks], reciprocal liking [3 marks], physical attractiveness [4 marks], and evolutionary psychology [5 marks]. Provide support and/or examples for each. [total of 15 marks]

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2. Explain the principles that make proximity so important to attraction [8 marks] and provide at least 4 examples of studies or demonstrations discussed in the lecture that help explain how proximity affects attraction [4 marks]. Also, explain why you are attracted to someone according to evolutionary psychology [3 marks]. [Total of 15 marks]

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3. Due to media coverage of many disturbing incidents concerning prisoners of war, the military has decided to create a new program for training guards. The military has consulted you for your expertise in this area. What are the conditions and circumstances most likely to lead to the mistreatment of prisoners [6 marks] and what measures can be taken to minimize the risks [6 marks]? Finally, what types of beliefs should be taught and indoctrinated into guards to prevent the abuse of prisoners of war? [3 marks] [total of 15 marks]

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4. [15 marks] Pretend you have decided to start a new religious movement in order to garner some power and improve your financial situation. Describe in detail the methods you would use to create your new religion [2 marks], including who you would recruit [1 mark], how you would recruit them [4 marks], and how you would keep members and strengthen their “faith” once they had joined [5 marks]. Finally, what questions would you ask yourself in order to determine if a group you belonged to was a cult [3 marks]?

End of Examination Total of 100 marks

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