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ORAL PATHOLOGYPrepared by: Claire Dianne Nero Demotica, DDM Sources: Mosby, Wells, First Aid, Rudman, etc. What is the best treatment for pyogenic granuloma? a. None b. Surgical excision c. Incision and drainage d. RCT Epstein-Barr virus is associated with the following except: a. Oral hairy leukopl...

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ORAL PATHOLOGY Prepared by: Claire Dianne Nero Demotica, DDM Sources: Mosby, Wells, First Aid, Rudman, etc. 1. What is the best treatment for pyogenic granuloma? a. None b. Surgical excision c. Incision and drainage d. RCT 2. Epstein-Barr virus is associated with the following except: a. Oral hairy leukoplakia b. Nasopharyngeal carcinoma c. Burkitt’s lymphoma d. Koplik’s spots 3. Which of the following is normally characterized by throbbing pain? a. Periapical dental granuloma b. Acute periapical abscess c. Pulp polyp d. Periapical scar 4. An enamel defect resulting from the incomplete formation of the enamel matrix is called: a. Enamel pearls b. Enamel hypocalcification c. Enamel hypoplasia d. Regional odontoplasia 5. Which of the following refers to congenital absence of many (6 or more), but not all teeth? a. Anodontia b. Oligodontia c. Hypsodontia d. Diphyodontia 6. What is the most common cause of xerostomia? a. Hereditary b. Medications c. Tooth decay d. Mouth breathing 7. Where in the oral cavity is malignant melanoma most commonly found? a. Tongue and mandibular alveolar ridge b. Buccal mucosa and pharyngeal pillars c. Palate and maxillary gingiva d. Mucobuccal fold of the lower lip 8. The following presents with radiographic radioluency, except: a. Nasopalatine duct cyst b. Nasolabial cyst c. Globulomaxillary cyst

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d. Median palatine cyst The odontogenic keratocyst is derived from: a. Hertwig’s epithelial root sheath b. Reduced enamel epithelium c. Remnant of dental lamina d. Pre-existing osteoma What is the most common location of Pindborg tumor? a. Tuberosity area b. Maxillary anterior area c. Mandibular-premolar area d. Molar-ramus area The acinic cell carcinoma is derived from serous acinar cells and is found almost exclusively in the: a. Submandibular gland b. Parotid gland c. Minor glands of the palate d. Sublingual gland Erythema multiforme is an acute self-limited eruption characterized by a distinctive clinical eruption, the hallmark of which is the: a. Desquamative gingivitis b. Petechial hemorrhage c. Iris or target lesion d. Mucocutaneous rash Nikolsky’s sign is associated with what disease? a. Erythema multiforme b. Pemphigus vulgaris c. Neurofibromatosis d. Lichen planus The unlimited spread through tissues of an exudate of acute inflammation is characteristic of what? a. Abscess b. Cellulitis c. Leukopenia d. Leukocytosis An odontogenic lesion that contains ductlike or glandlike structures and seen in an age range between 5 and 30 years old, very common to female and usually affects the anterior maxillary: a. Ameloblastoma b. Clear cell odontogenic tumor c. Adenomatoid odontogenic tumor d. Pindborg tumor e. Squamous odontogenic tumor

16. It is composed of islands of tumor cells that mimic the normal dental follicle: a. Plexiform ameloblastoma b. Follicular ameloblastoma c. Basaloid ameloblastoma d. Granular cell ameloblastoma e. Desmoplastic ameloblastoma 17. The following are true for Odontogenic Myxoma except: a. No gender predilection b. Age range is between 10 to 50 yers with a mean age of 30 c. It is often multilocular an often has honeycomb pattern d. Very common in the maxilla e. None of these 18. Cementoblastoma: a. True cementoma b. Very common to male c. Mandibular posterior region d. Both A and B e. Both A and C 19. Differential diagnosis for Osteoblastoma except: a. Cementoblastoma b. Odontogenic myxoma c. Ossifying fibroma d. Fibrous dysplasia e. Osteosarcoma 20. Periapical cementoosseous dysplasia: a. Occurs at the apex of vital teeth b. Biopsy is unnecessary because the condition is usually diagnostic by clinical and radiographic features c. Black women are usually affected d. A, B, and C e. A and C 21. The following are true, except: a. Fibrous dysplasia is very common during the 1st and 2nd decades of life b. Ossifying fibroma is very common during the 3rd and 4th decades of life c. Fibrous dysplasia is treated with surgical excision d. Ossifying fibroma is treated with surgical excision e. Fibrous dysplasia usually occurs at the maxilla.

22. A condition in which the medullary bone is replace by an abnormal fibrous connective tissue: a. Odontogenic myxoma b. Cementifying fibroma c. Fibrous dysplasia d. Ameloblastic fibroma e. None of the above 23. This tumor occurs between the ages 5 and 30 years, and more than 60% affects males. Pain and swelling are the most common presenting symptoms. The lower extremities or pelvis are the most involve bones. When found in the oral cavity, the predilection is for the ramus of the mandible. a. Osteoma b. Central giant cell granuloma c. Ewing’s sarcoma d. Osteoblastoma e. Chondroma 24. The following tumors occur in children and young adults, except: a. Ameloblastic fibroma b. Ameloblastic fibroodontoma c. Odontoma d. Central giant cell granuloma e. Odontogenic myxoma 25. Sarcomas of the facial skeleton involve: a. Surgery only b. Surgery and irradiation c. Surgery and chemotherapy d. Chemotherapy and irradiation e. Surgery, irradiation, and chemotherapy 26. The following are the manifestations of AIDS, except: a. Hairy leukoplakia b. Kaposi’s sarcoma c. Pneumocystic caranii pneumonia d. Herpes e. None of the above 27. This disease is characterize by severe uveitis and retinal vasculitis with optic atrophy and aphtous lesions of the mouth and the genitals: a. Behcet’s syndrome b. Reye’s syndrome c. Erythema multiforme d. Steven-Johnson’s syndrome e. Reiter’s syndrome

28. The surface of an oral squamous cell carcinoma will usually feel: a. Smooth b. Fluctuant c. Rough d. Greasy 29. The most common metastatic lesion to the jawbone is from a primary tumor in the: a. Lung b. Large bowel c. Stomach d. Breast 30. The redness in geographic tongue is due to: a. Loss of filiform papillae b. Enlargement of filiform papillae c. Loss of fungiform papillae d. Loss of circumvallate papillae 31. The most common cause of mucocele: a. Sialolithiasis b. Viral sialadenitis c. Bacterial sialadenitis d. Trauma 32. The most common location for the metastasis of oral cancer is the: a. Pre-auricular lymph node b. Submental lymph node c. Submandibular lymph node d. Clavicular lymph node 33. In Addison’s disease, a characteristic oral finding is: a. Gingival hyperplasia b. Mucosal ulceration c. Macular areas of red pigmentation d. Macular areas of brown pigmentation 34. Which of the following tumors would be classified as being of connective tissue origin? a. Lipoma b. Melanoma c. Carcinoma d. Papilloma 35. Acute alveolar osteitis can be caused by: a. Inability to form a blood clot in an extraction socket b. Inability to keep a blood clot in an extraction socket c. Post-operative infection d. All of the above 36. Metaplasia means: a. Increase in the number of cells

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b. Increase in the size of cells c. Transference of an adult to a primitive form of cell d. Transference of one adult cell type to another adult cell type A boy, 22 months old, has been receiving radiation therapy for a neoplasm in the palate. Which of the following dental anomalies may occur as a result of the radiation therapy? a. Microdontia b. Dens in dente c. Gemination d. Mesiodens The most common malignancy involving the oral cavity is: a. Basal cell carcinoma b. Adenocarcinoma of the salivary gland c. Squamous cell carcinoma d. Osteosarcoma A 20-year old man has a blue nodular mass on the lateral border of the left dorsal tongue. It is soft, has a smooth surface, and blanches upon pressure. Which is the most probable diagnosis? a. Rhabdomyoma b. Leiomyoma c. Hemangioma d. Malignant melanoma The globulomaxillary cyst occurs between the: a. Maxillary canine and first premolar b. Maxillary lateral incisor and canine c. Mandibular lateral incisor and canine d. Manibular canine and first premolar Nasopalatine cysts sometimes are heart-shape when viewed radiographically because of the superimposition of what anatomical structure a. Coronoid process b. Anterior nasal spine c. Zygomatic arch d. Nasal septum Which of the following cysts does not have an epithelial lining? a. Periapical cyst b. Primordial cyst c. Median palatine cyst d. Lateral periodontal cyst Albright’s syndrome consist of the following features except: a. Monostotic fibrous dysplasia b. Polyostotic fibrous dysplasia

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c. Cutaneous pigmentation d. Endocrine disturbance Which one is not caused by a virus? a. Herpetic gingivostomatitis b. Chickenpox c. Syphilis d. HIV infection A cell seen in allergic inflammatory state: a. Lymphocyte b. Plasma cell c. Monocyte d. Eosinophil Which of the following is/are true about acute osteomyelitis a. A sequestrum may be seen b. An involucrum may be seen c. Maybe a sequel of an acute periapical inflammation d. All of the above Median rhomboid glossitis: a. Is an inflammatory condition of the tongue b. Is a precancerous lesion c. Requires treatment with antibiotics d. Is due to persistence of the tuberculum impar In trigeminal neuralgia, which one is not correct? a. An attack of pain is usually preceded by sweating in the region of the forehead b. The pain usually lasts for a few seconds to a minute in the early stages of the disease c. The pain is usually unilateral d. There is a trigger zone What is the most serious complication of a therapeutic dose of radiation to the mandible? a. Erythema b. Osteoradionecrosis c. Obliterating endarteritis d. A and C Which of the following is applicable to an infection caused by Actinomyces Israelii? a. A chronic granulomatous process with caseous necrosis b. A chronic granulomatous process with central fibrosis

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c. Multiple abscesses and draining sinus tracts d. Vesicles and bullae that heal with scar formation Rendu-Osler-Weber disease is: a. Encephalotrigeminal angiomatosis b. Neurofibromatosis c. Hereditary hemorrhagic telangiectasia d. Nevus The malignant tumor derived for smooth muscle cell is: a. Leiomyoma b. Leiomyosarcoma c. Rhabdomyoma d. Rhabdomyosarcoma After obtaining an incisional specimen, a negative biopsy report when there is a clinically suspicious lesion means that: a. The patient can be assured that there is no malignancy at this time b. A second biopsy should be done c. The patient should undergo yearly observation of the area d. The patient should be recalled once a month When an adult differentiated cell acquires the organization of a less differentiated cell: a. Atrophy b. Anaplasia c. Metaplasia d. Hypoplasia A white cauliflower-like protruding growth on the cheek mucosa is: a. Fibroma b. Lymphangioma c. Papilloma d. Lipoma A swelling of the lip the develops rapidly within 5 to 30 minutes and persists for 24 to 36 hours and occasionally for several days, is probably: a. Cellulitis b. Abscess c. Mucocele d. Angioneurotic edema A cyst that has a high recurrence rate: a. Incisive canal cyst b. Nasolabial cyst c. Odontogenic keratocyst d. Radicular cyst

58. The function of the facial nerve is best tested by: a. Swallowing b. Whistling c. Protruding the tongue d. Moving the mandible from side to side 59. What might cause spontaneous tooth eruption prior to birth? a. Administration of cortisone during pregnancy b. Diabetes mellitus in the mother c. Hypothyroidism in mother d. Hyperthyroidism in mother 60. The alkaline phosphatase will be elevated in patients with: a. Myocardial infection b. Paget’s disease c. Kidney failure d. Prostate carcinoma 61. Which of the following clinical disease process affect the TMJ directly? i. Myofascial pain dysfunction ii. Dislocation iii. Ankylosis iv. Arthritis v. Diabetes mellitus b. 1, 2, 3 c. 2, 3, 4 d. 1, 2, 3, 4 e. All of the above 62. Which of the following are characteristic of Ludwig’s Angina? i. Rash on the chest ii. Raised tongue iii. Dysphagia iv. Blurred vision v. Submandibular bilateral swelling b. 1, 2, 4 c. 1, 4, 5 d. 2, 3, 5 e. All of the above 63. Lichen planus may be clinically differentiated from leukoplakia by which of the following? a. Leukoplakia shows characteristics of Wickham’s striae while lichen planus does not b. Lichen planus is grayish while leukoplakia is pearly white

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c. Lichen planus occurs bilaterally while leukoplakia is always unilateral d. The mucosa of lichen planus remains elastic an pliable while leukoplakia is inelastic and leathery A radiograph shows an unerupted mandibular third molar with a 3 cm pericononal radiolucency. The most likely diagnosis is: a. Primordial cyst b. Dentigerous cyst c. Latent bone cyst d. Simple bone cyst e. Ameloblastoma A 15-year old boy has multiple vesiculating oral ulcers, severe pain, malaise, lymphadenopathy, and an oral temperature of 103 degrees Fahrenheit of 3 days duration. The most likely diagnosis is: a. Herpes zoster b. Cat- scratch fever c. Periadenitis aphthae d. Infectious mononucleosis e. Acute herpetic gingivostomatitis Nicotinic stomatitis is characterized by: a. Ulceration of the tonsillar crypt b. An inflamed orifice of Stensen’s duct c. Local exfoliation of filiform papillae d. Ulceration of the inner surface of the lip e. Inflamed orifices of palatal mucous glands An extracted molar has a mass of soft tissue attached to one root. On microscopic examination, the tissue is found to consist of fairly dense, fibrous connective tissue with many lymphocytes, plasma cells, and capillaries. The most probable diagnosis is: a. Fibroma b. Hemangioma c. Radicular cyst d. Granuloma e. Apical scar A 5-year old boy has symmetric, bilateral enlargement of posterior jaws. Radiographic examination reveals multilocular radiolucencies of the jaws. His father reports that he had a similar condition. The most likely diagnosis is: a. Cherubism b. Albright syndrome c. Hyperparathyroidism

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d. Cleidocranial dysostosis e. Juvenile Paget’s disease of the bone Which of the following types of periodontal disease commonly presents with punched-out interproximal papillae, fetor oris, and marginal gingival pseudomembrane formation? a. Chronic periodontitis b. Aggressive periodontitis c. Plaque-induced gingivitis d. Necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis e. Candidiasis A 48-year old female patient walks into our office. She states that she is diagnosed with some disease which she can’t remember the name of. Her physician wants her to follow-up with you, her dentist, regularly to watch out for cancer of tongue and throat. She also has a bald tongue and states that her fingernails “look funny.” What disease does she have? a. Aplastic anemia b. Plummer-Vinson syndrome c. Pernicious anemia d. Cushing’s syndrome The most common salivary gland to be involved in sialolithiasis is the: a. Minor glands of the lip b. Sublingual c. Parotid d. Minor glands of the palate e. Submandibular In acquired syphilis: a. The secondary lesion never heals spontaneously b. The primary lesion never heals spontaneously c. Gummas and mucous patches usually coexists d. Intraorally, mucous patches precedes the appearance of gummas e. Intraorally, gummas preceded the appearance of mucous patches Hutchinson’s incisors are associated with acquired syphilis. a. True b. False Among the following diseases, which is not associated with enlargement of jaw: a. Fibrous dysplasia b. Focal sclerosing osteomyelitis

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c. Ossifying fibroma d. Paget’s disease of bone e. Central giant cell granuloma A disease in which there is hypercementosis expansion of the jaw, loss of lamina dura density, and marked elevation of serum alkaline phosphatase is: a. Paget’s disease b. Hyperparathyroidism c. Rickettsia d. Myxedema e. Acromegaly A tongue lesion often mistaken for a malignant tumor: a. Papilloma b. Fibroma c. Rhabdomyoma d. Granular cell myoblastoma The usual site of ameloblastoma: a. Posterior region of the maxilla b. Descending ramus of the mandible c. Posterior region of the mandible d. Anterior region of the maxilla B cells secrete: a. IL-4 b. IFN-Y c. IL-2 d. TGF-B e. TNF-A Hyperglycemia: a. 100 mg/dL b. 90 mg/dL c. 125 mg/dL d. 75 mg/dL e. 50 mg/dL A dietary deficiency of vitamin B12 causes which of the following? a. Aplastic anemia b. Sickle cell anemia c. Pernicious anemia d. Plummer-vinson syndrome e. Folate deficiency anemia For which type of hepatitis is there a commonly administered vaccine for healthcare workers? a. Hepatitis A b. Hepatitis B c. Hepatitis C d. Hepatitis D e. Hepatitis E

82. The correct temperature for autoclaving/sterilization with moist heat is: a. 121 degrees Celsius for 15 to 20 minutes b. 320 degrees Fahrenheit for 2 hours c. 170 degrees Celsius for 1 hour d. 250 degrees Fahrenheit for 4 hours e. 132 degrees Celsius for 20 to 30 minutes 83. Fluid withdrawn from the peritoneal cavity of a patient complaining of a “swollen belly” was found to be rich in protein with a specific gravity of 1.020 and exhibited a tendency to coagulate. Such a fluid indicates the presence of inflammation and is correctly called: a. Transudate b. Blood c. Serum d. Exudate e. None of the above 84. Which of the following represent lesions of tertiary syphilis? a. Chancre b. Mucous patches c. Gumma d. Tabes dorsalis e. Paresis f. Saddle nose i. a, b, and c ii. b, c, and d iii. c, d, and e iv. d, e, and f v. c, e, and f 85. Negri bodies, Guarnieri bodies, and molluscum bodies are examples of: a. Foreign bodies b. Inclusion bodies c. Asteroid bodies d. Verocay bodies e. Psammoma bodies

ORAL RADIOLOGY Prepared by: Claire Dianne Nero Demotica, DDM Sources: Mosby, Wells, Rudman, etc. 1. The number of electrons flowing per second is measured by what? a. Kilovoltage b. Milliamperage c. Time (sec) d. All of the above 2. The electrons are attracted across the tube only when ______________ is created. a. Enough energy b. Enough heat c. A difference in potential d. A sufficient amount of electrons 3. The speed with which electrons travel from the filament of the cathode to the target of the anode depends upon the: a. Potential difference between the two electrodes b. Number of milliamperes in the tube circuit c. Angle between the filament and the target d. Voltage in the filament circuit e. Size of the electron cloud 4. The heating of the filament in the cathode is controlled by the: a. Step down transformer b. Rheostat c. Voltmeter d. Kilovoltage 5. The wavelength of xray photons is determined by what? a. Kilovoltage b. Milliamperage c. Amount of heat supplied to the filament d. None of the above 6. What should be increased to increase the penetrative quality of xray? a. Exposure time b. Kilovoltage c. Milliamperage d. Collimation 7. The measure of the quality of the xray emitted from the tube is: a. Whole value layer b. Milliamperage setting c. Half value layer

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d. Kilovoltage How should proper subject contrast be maintained when taking a radiograph of a patient with thick heavy bones? a. Increase mA b. Increase kVp c. Increase exposure time d. Increase development time e. Use a high contrast film Bremsstrahlung refers to: a. Streams of electrons approaching the nucleus of a target atom b. A process of nuclear de-excitation c. The mass to energy conversion d. Radiation emitted upon breaking a nucleus e. Electromagnetic radiation from decelerated electrons Which electron has the greatest binding energy to the nucleus? a. J-shell electron b. K-shell electron c. L-shell electron d. Q-shell electron e. Both B and C Of the following, the shorter wavelength is given off by: a. Radar b. Visible light c. Radiowaves d. Electric wave Which of the following are examples of nonparticulate radiation energy? i. Xrays ii. Electron iii. Gamma rays iv. Beta ray...