SPM2 - all about software project management ,notes ,book ,practice set,mcq question. PDF

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SEMESTER VIIISOFTWARE PROJECT MANAGEMENTMultiple Choice Questions. A unique, planned, scheduled activity with one or more objectives referred as A. Project B. Job C. Process D. Task ANSWER: A formalizes acceptance and bnngs project to an orderly end. A. planning. B. closing process. C. control proce...

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SEMESTER VIII SOFTWARE PROJECT MANAGEMENT Multiple Choice Questions. 1. A unique, planned, scheduled activity with one or more objectives referred as A. Project B. Job C. Process D. Task ANSWER: A 2.

formalizes acceptance and bnngs project to an orderly end. A. planning. B. closing process. C. control process. D. executing process. ANSWER: B

3. The Stepwise Project Planning has 0A. 9 B. 10 C. 8 D. 11 ANSWER: B

steps

4. Software systems are likely to be subject to a high degree of A. performance B. change C. time D. strength ANSWER: B

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5. In type of system, system interfaces with the machine. A. embedded B. stock control C. process control D. information ANSWER: A 6. Projects may be distinguished by whether their aim is to produce a A. product, objective B. product, tasks C. tasks, objective D. tasks and null objects ANSWER: A 7. The first stage of the software project is a A. system driven project B. software driven project C. hardware driven project D. objectives driven project ANSWER: D 8. The second stage of software project is A. to create software product B. to meet the objective C. to make up resources D. to close the project ANSWER: C

or meet certain

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which results in a recommended course of action.

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9. In case of product-driven projects, the objectives of the project are defined in terms of A. functional requirements only B. resource and non-functional requirements C. functional and quality requirements D. resource requirements only ANSWER: C

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10. defines what the end product of the project is to do. A. product perspective. B. Non-functional requirements. C. Quality requirements. D. Functional requirements. ANSWER: D

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11. is a system analysis and design method designed primarily to provide functional requirements. A. SSTD. B. SADT. C. SGTH. D. STDH. ANSWER: B 12. Quality requirements in requirement specification include A. response time. B. ease of using the system. C. reliability. D. a, b and c. ANSWER: D

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13. is record of how much the organization is willing to spend to the system A. Resource requirements. B. Functional requirements. C. Security requirements. D. Non-functional requirements. ANSWER: A 14. Projects are by definition A. routine B. non-routine C. specific D. controllable ANSWER: B

and therefore more uncertain than normal undertakings.

15. is tabular representation of the expected risks in a project A. Risk Table B. Assessment Table C. Time Table D. Round Table ANSWER: A 16. CCTA stands for . A. central commission of telecommunication agency. B. central computing and telecommunication agency. C. central computing and telecom agency. D. an NGO. ANSWER: B

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17. standards are needed so that various systems can communicate with each other. A. Hardware. B. Hardware and software. C. Software. D. Shareware ANSWER: B 18. The organization as part of its monitoring and control policy may have a various stages of a project. A. measurement. B. system. C. software. D. testing. ANSWER: A 19. The products handed over to the clients at the end of projects are called as A. software B. application program C. deliverables D. intermediate products ANSWER: C

programme in place which dictates that certain statistics have to be collected at

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20. is the result of an activity. A. Software. B. System. C. Control. D. Product. ANSWER: D 21. Product description contains A. name of the product B. form of the product C. quantity of the product D. both a and b ANSWER: D

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22. The relationship between program design and program specification can be portrayed in A. PFD. B. DFD. C. PDF. D. DDF. ANSWER: A

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23. Which one of the following is NOT an agile method? A. SCRUM B. Extreme Programming (XP) C. DSDM D. Waterfall ANSWER: D 24. Same generic fragment relates to more than A. one. B. two. C. three D. four ANSWER: A

instance of the particular type of the product.

25. is the amount of work that needs to be done. A. Effort. B. Energy. C. Capacity. D. Strength. ANSWER: A 26. Project planning is an A. continuous. B. iterative. C. time consuming. D. conventional ANSWER: B

process.

27. In order to carry out a successful strategic assessment of a potential project there should be strategic plan clearly definingthe organization's A. objectives. B. rules. C. conditions. D. ideas. ANSWER: A 28. The standard way of evaluating the economic benefits of any projects is to carry out a A. price-benefit. B. cost-benefit. C. cash flow. D. fund flow. ANSWER: B

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29. The costs that include the salaries and other employment costs of the staff involved in the development project and all associated costs are A. operational cost. B. development cost. C. setup cost D. direct cost. ANSWER: B 30. Long term or benefits that are considered very difficult to quantify is called A. direct benefits. B. assessable benefits. C. indirect benefits. D. intangible benefits. ANSWER: D

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31. will indicate when expenditure and income will take place. A. Cash flow forecast. B. Cost analysis. C. Fund flow. D. Technical forecast. ANSWER: A 32. is the time taken to break even or pay back the initial investment. A. Back period. B. Payback period. C. Cash back period. D. Rate of Return. ANSWER: B 33. Uncertainties are associated with A. products, processes and resources. B. products, properties and resources C. products, prosperities and resources. D. products, processes and recoveries. ANSWER: A

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34. The availability of staff and experience will be under A. process uncertainty. B. product uncertainty. C. resource uncertainty. D. profit uncertainty. ANSWER: C

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35. Number of interrelated activities can be organized in different ways are called A. activity model. B. network model. C. hierarchical model. D. process model. ANSWER: D

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36. RAD is . A. Resource Application Development. B. Resource Allocation Development. C. Rapid Application Development. D. Rapid Action Development. ANSWER: C 37. JAD is . A. J2EE Application Development. B. J2ME Allocation Development. C. J2SE Application Development. D. Joint Action Development. ANSWER: D 38. The alternate name for Waterfall model is A. two-shot. B. phase shot. C. three-phase. D. one-shot. ANSWER: D

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39. The first phase of waterfall model is A. analysis. B. feasibility Study. C. coding. D. user requirements. ANSWER: B 40. The spiral model is originated by A. B.W.Boehm. B. B.W.Williams. C. B.W.Britto. D. B.W.Hackman. ANSWER: A

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41. An Elaboration of Waterfall which stresses the necessity for validation activities is known as A. extended Waterfall. B. iterative Model. C. V-Process model. D. spiral Model. ANSWER: C

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42. prototypes are used and discarded when the true development of the operational system is commenced. A. Evolutionary. B. Throw away. C. Operational. D. Real. ANSWER: B 43. is as when copies of input screens are shown to the users on a workstation, but the screens cannot actually be used. A. Simulation. B. Annealing. C. Mock-ups. D. RAD system. ANSWER: C 44. Partial working model is classified as A. vertical and horizontal. B. vertical and straight. C. bended and horizontal. D. elevated and horizontal. ANSWER: A

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45. The scope of the deliverables for an increment is rigidly constrained by an agreed deadline called as A. sand boxing. B. time boxing. C. time delaying. D. local delaying. ANSWER: B 46. would mean the change can be implemented without software development. A. One cost. B. Total cost. C. Zero cost. D. No cost. ANSWER: C

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47. SSADM means . A. Straight Systems Analysis Design Method. B. Structured Systems Analysis Design Method. C. Software Systems Analysis Design Method. D. Solutions Systems Analysis Design Method. ANSWER: B 48. Frequent redesigns of the code is often called as A. refactoring. B. redesigning. C. recoding. D. rearranging. ANSWER: A

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49. Which are the two levels of development suggested by Booch? A. Micro and Macro processes. B. Inter and Intra processes. C. Internal and External processes. D. Small and Large processes. ANSWER: A 50. What is SLOC? A. Secret Lines of Code. B. Source Lines of Code. C. Selected Lines of Code. D. Suppressed Lines of Code. ANSWER: B 51. Homogeneity refers to A. not similar. B. similarity. C. singleness. D. house full. ANSWER: B

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52. "Work expands to fill the time available"is A. Brooks Law. B. Peters Law. C. Parkinson's Law. D. Brokers Law. ANSWER: C

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53. The statement "Putting more people on a late job makes it later" is from A. Brooks Law. B. Peters Law. C. Parkinson's Law. D. Brokers Law. ANSWER: A

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54. The statement "If a system does not have to reliable, it can meet any other objective" is from A. Brooks Law. B. Peters Law. C. Parkinson's first Law. D. Weinberg's Zeroth Law. ANSWER: D 55. KLOC indicates A. hundred lines of code. B. source lines of code. C. thousand lines of code. D. million lines of code. ANSWER: C

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56. Engineering practice to derive estimates of software development is called as A. algorithmic model. B. software effort estimation technique. C. software extra estimation technique. D. Markov models. ANSWER: B 57. The top-down approach is normally associated with A. process. B. product. C. effort. D. parametric. ANSWER: D

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models.

58. Effort = . A. system size x productivity rate. B. system size x KLOC. C. person in months / SLOC. D. person in months x productivity rate. ANSWER: A

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59. The estimator seeks out projects that have been completed and that have similar characteristics to the new project is called A. code based reasoning. B. case based reasoning. C. case based analysis. D. code based analysis. ANSWER: B 60. UFP indicates . A. unused function points. B. unstructured function points. C. uniform function points. D. unadjusted function points. ANSWER: D 61. Effort = c x sizek refers to. A. parametric Design. B. COCOMO model. C. organic mode. D. embedded Mode. ANSWER: B 62. is refined by Barry Boehm and his co-workers. A. COCOMO III B. COCOMO IV. C. COCOMO II. D. COCOMO I. ANSWER: C 63. the degree to which there is a large dispersed team as opposed to there being a small tightly knit team. A. Small cohesion. B. Team cohesion. C. Process maturity. D. Team maturity. ANSWER: B 64. is one of the objectives of activity planning. A. Designing. B. Detailed costing. C. Cooperation. D. Team work. ANSWER: B

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65. In the resources are not a constraint for each activity is. A. resource planning. B. schedule production. C. ideal activity plan. D. technical Plan ANSWER: C 66. What is PFD? A. Process Flow Diagram. B. Product Flow Diagram. C. Project Flow Diagram. D. Procurement Flow Diagram. ANSWER: B 67. PERT is . A. Process Evaluation and Review Technique. B. Product Evaluation and Review Technique. C. Program Evaluation and Review Technique. D. Project Evaluation and Review Technique. ANSWER: C 68. CPM is an acronym for A. Control Path Method. B. Critical Path Method. C. Cohesion Path Method. D. Control Path Model. ANSWER: B

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69. The activities have zero duration but are assumed to start at the same time as the first and the end at the same time as the last one is called A. hijacked activity. B. heuristic activity. C. hammocked activity. D. hole activity. ANSWER: C 70. is carried out to calculate the earliest dates on which each activity may be started and completed. A. Backward pass. B. Forward pass. C. No pass. D. Increasing pass. ANSWER: B

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71. The time by which an activity may be delayed without affecting any subsequent activity is called A. action float. B. terminal float. C. free float D. null float ANSWER: C 72. The objective of A. risk management. B. risk maintenance. C. risk taking. D. risky job. ANSWER: A 73. A A. planning. B. hazard. C. safety. D. start. ANSWER: B

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is to avoid or minimize the adverse effects of unforeseen events is called

is an event that might occur and if it occurs, create a problem for the successful completion of the project.

74. = risk likelihood x risk impact. A. Risk estimate. B. Risk expenditure. C. Risk identification D. Risk exposure. ANSWER: D 75. RRL is . A. risk reduction leverage. B. risk relax leverage. C. risk reading letter. D. risk resource letter. ANSWER: A 76. WBS is known as A. Wealth Breaking Scheme B. Wealth Brokerage Scheme C. Work Breakdown Structure D. Work Breakup Structure ANSWER: C

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77. The impact of some risks can be transferred away from the project by A. risk analysis. B. risk control. C. risk transfer. D. risk evaluation. ANSWER: C

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78. The shortest time in which we could expect to complete the activity, barring outright miracles called A. Optimistic Time B. Pessimistic Time C. Most Likely Time D. Shortest Time ANSWER: A 79. PERT combines three estimates of time and obtains a single expected duration is A. te B. tp C. tm D. ts ANSWER: A

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80. is proportional to the difference between the optimistic and pessimistic estimates. A. Activity Regression B. Activity mean C. Activity Standard Deviation D. Activity Variance ANSWER: C 81. The A. x value. B. y value. C. t value. D. z value. ANSWER: D

value in PERT is calculated for each node that has a target date.

82. simulation is an alternate to PERT. A. Morris mano. B. Monte Carlo. C. Markov. D. Hidden Markov. ANSWER: B

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83. talks about how to match the activity plan to the available resources. A. Risk management. B. Allocation management. C. Activity management. D. Resource management ANSWER: D 84. A is any item or person required for the execution of the project. A. risk. B. allocation. C. activity. D. resource. ANSWER: D 85. According to Bob Hughes and Mike Cotterell, resources fall into A. five. B. four. C. seven. D. two. ANSWER: C

categories.

86. is a secondary resource. . A. Money. B. Time. C. Materials. D. Labour ANSWER: A 87. "Each activity has been scheduled to start at its earliest start date" is called as A. likelihood. B. activity schedule. C. probability. D. planning. ANSWER: A

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88. In activities are allocated resources in ascending order of total float. A. total free priority. B. total float priority. C. technical float priority. D. top float priority ANSWER: B

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89. is the selection of individuals in which the final shape of the project team is taken into account A. Independent building. B. Construction building. C. Team building. D. Recruitment. ANSWER: B 90. To know whether a particular individual is available when required is known as A. reliability. B. consistency. C. availability. D. portability. ANSWER: C 91. Activity plans can be illustrated using A. activity bar charts B. activity pie charts. C. activity ball charts D. activity flow charts ANSWER: A

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92. represents expenditure that an organization incurs, which cannot be directly related. A. Under head B. Over head. C. Top head. D. Miscellaneous expenses ANSWER: B 93. Cost schedule of an activity plan is represented by A. ascending steps. B. descending steps. C. sequence of steps. D. reverse steps ANSWER: C

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94. is the group to ensure the satisfactory progress of a project. A. Product board. B. Purpose board. C. Project board. D. Perfect board. ANSWER: C

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95. Check points of a project plan must be A. regular. B. irregular. C. random D. fixed. ANSWER: A

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96. is an activity bar chart indicating scheduled activity dates and durations frequently augmented with activity floats. . A. Bar chart. B. Ball chart. C. Slip Chart. D. Gantt chart ANSWER: D 97. Gantt charts, Slip chars and Ball charts are under A. monitoring. B. verification. C. control. D. visualization. ANSWER: D

process.

98. is the method of recording and displaying the way in which targets have changed throughout the duration of the project. A. Gantt chart. B. Bar chart. C. Timeline. D. Schedule. ANSWER: C 99. The total value credited to a project at any point is known as A. earned value. B. moral value. C. money value. D. recurred value ANSWER: A

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100. The priorities we might apply in deciding levels in monitoring is called as A. deciding monitoring. B. monitoring. C. tracking. D. prioritized monitoring. ANSWER: D

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101. Risk management will occur in the step A. 7 B. 8 C. 6 D. 4 ANSWER: C

of step wise planning.

102. relates to the physical resources used when the software is executed. A. Functionality. B. Maintainability. C. Reliability. D. Efficiency. ANSWER: D 103. Deployment diagrams illustrate the A. static. B. dynamic. C. behavioural. D. activities. ANSWER: A

view of the system.

104. A is a container-like element for organizing other elements into groups. A. classes. B. adornments. C. packages. D. activities. ANSWER: C 105. are denoted by a hollow-diamond adornment on the association. A. Associations. B. Constants. C. Messages. D. Aggregations. ANSWER: D 106. indicates the range of items in association relationships. A. Multiplicity. B. Adornments. C. Roles. D. Instructors. ANSWER: A

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107. Generalization/Specialization is implemented in Object Oriented Programming as A. polymorphism. B. inheritance. C. overloading. D. abstract. ANSWER: B

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108. are building a software product. A. Acquirere. B. Developers. C. Independent evaluators. D. All the above. ANSWER: B 109. An is a named property of a class that describes the object being modeled. A. method. B. constant. C. message. D. attribute. ANSWER: B 110. A Class symbol in UML has A. 4. B. 2. C. 5. D. 3. ANSWER: D

chambers.

111. is a description of a set of objects that share the same attributes,operations, relationships, and semantics. A. Object. B. Class. C. Process. D. Instance ANSWER: B 112. will divide the domain of the task hierarchy in activity diagrams. A. Swim lane. B. Activity. C. Interface. D. Split. ANSWER: A

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113. is the task/process which describes the way in which the actor interact the system. A. Class. B. Flow. C. Object. D. Use case. ANSWER: D 114. Informing to the developer which bug to be fix first is called as A. Severity B. Priority C. Fix ability D. Traceability ANSWER: B 115. A metric used to measure the characteristic of documentation and code called as A. Process metric B. Product Metric C. Test metrics D. None of the above ANSWER: B 116. What are the Types of Integration Testing? A. Big Bang Testing B. Bottom Up Testing C. Top Down Testing D. All the above ANSWER: D 117. Component Level is implemented using A. client. B. server. C. middleware. D. peer. ANSWER: C

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