Anatomy Examination PDF

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General and Oral Anatomy 1. The transverse foramina of the cervical vertebra serves as the passage of which of the following: A. cervicaL artery D. basilar artery B. internal carotid artery E. both B and C C. vertebral artery 2. The vertebral artery passes through which of the following structure? A...

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General and Oral Anatomy 1.

The transverse foramina of the cervical vertebra serves as the passage of which of the following: A. cervicaL artery D. basilar artery B. internal carotid artery E. both B and C C. vertebral artery

2.

The vertebral artery passes through which of the following structure? A. Transverse foramina D. Hypoglossal Canal B. Foramen Magnum E. Foramen ovale C. Carotid Foramina

3.

The internal carotid artery passes thru the internal carotid canal. This canal is located where? A. Squamous temporal bone D. Petrous Temporal bone B. Mastoid temporal bone E. both B and D. C. Tympanic temporal bone

4.

The optic foramen permits the passage of which of the following? A. Optic nerve and ophthalmic artery B. Optic nerve and optic artery and vein C. Optic nerve and ophthalmic division of Vagus Nerve D. Optic nerve and sufraorbital artery E. Optic nerve and ophthalmic nerve

5.

The saddle-like prominence of the body of the sphenoid bone: A. Dorsum sella D. Sphenoid fossa B. Tubercular Sella E. none of these C. Sella Turcica

6.

The posterior boundary of the body of the sphenoid bone is the? A. Dorsum sella D. Sphenoid fossa B. Tubercular Sella E. none of these C. Sella Turcica

7.

The anterior boundary of the body of the sphenoid bone is the? A. Dorsum sella D. Sphenoid fossa B. Tubercular Sella E. none of these C. Sella Turcica

8.

An irregularly- shaped foramen at the junction of sphenoid, temporal and occipital bone? A. Jugular foramen D. Hypoglossal Foramen B. Carotid foramen E. Foramen Lacerum C. Foramen Rotundum

9.

Parts of the ethmoid are the following? I. Inferior nasal concha II. Middle nasal concha III. Superior nasal concha IV. Perpendicular plate of ethmoid bone. A. I, II & III B. II, III & IV C. I, II & IV D. I, III & IV E. I, II, III & IV

10. The opening of the maxillary sinus at the middle nasal concha is called? A. Hiatus senilunaris D. Ostium Mandibulare B. Infundibulum E. both A and B. C. Ostium Maxillae 11. Maxillary sinus opens at the? A. Inferior nasal concha B. superior nasal concha C. middle nasal concha

D. perpendicular plate of ethmoid E. both B and C.

12. The temporomandibular joint is a? A. ginglynu-arthrodial condyloid joint B. ginglynu-arthrodial only C. hinge and sliding only

D. both B and C E. mixed joint

13. The fusion of anterior fontanelle after 24 months is called? A. Lambda D. none of these B. Gonion E. bregma C. delta 14. The junction of frontal, parietal, greater wing of sphenoid bone and temporal bone is known as? A. Nasion D. asterion B. Gonion E. none of the choices C. pterion 15. The junction of the occipital, parietal and temporal bone is? A. Nasion D. asterion B. Gonion E. none of the choices C. pterion

16. The posterior (postero-inferior) wall of the nasal septum. A. vomer B. perpendicular plate of ethmoid bone C. palatine process of the maxilla D. horizontal plate of the maxilla 17. The supero anterior wall of the nasal cavity is: A. cribriform plate of ethmoid bone B. perpendicular plate of ethmoid bone C. anterior surface of the sphenoid bone D. superior nasal concha. 18.

The individual bone of the nasal cavity is: A. nasal bone B. superior nasal concha C. middle nasal concha D. inferior nasal concha

19. The superior wall of the nasal septum: A. perpendicular plate of ethmoid bone B. crbriofrm plate of ethmoid bone C. nasal cartilage D. vomer 20. The foramen of exit of V2 is located at the? A. lesser wing of the sphenoid bone B. Greater wing of the Sphenoid bone C. Petrous temporal D. Tympanic Temporal 21. The nerve supply of the lateral rectus of the eye is: A. VI CN C. III CN B. IV CN D. V CN 22. The nerve supply of the superior oblique rectus of the eye is? A. IV CN C. III CN B. VI CN D. V CN 23. A nerve that provide taste sensation to the anterior 2/3 of the tongue. A. lingual nerve B. glossopharyngeal nerve C. chorda tympani D. hypoglossal nerve 24. The foramen of exit of the XII CN is located at: A. occipital bone near the foramen magnum B. occipital bone above the foramen magnum C. occipital bone anterior to the occipital condyle D. occipital bone posterior to the occipital condyle

25. The anterior belly of the digastric muscle is:

A. B. C. D.

afferent branch of V CN afferent branch of VII CN efferent branch of V CN efferent branch of VII CN

26. The area of the left hemisphere of the brain that is responsible for the recognition of spoken and written language is: A. Wernicke’s area C. Pre-central gyrus B. Brocas Area D. Post central gyrus 27. It lies inferior to pre-frontal cortex in left hemisphere and generates a motor program for the muscle of the larynx, tongue, cheeks and lips to produce sounds A. Wernicke’s area C. Pre-central gyrus B. Brocas Area D. Post central gyrus 28. A lingual papilla without taste receptor. A. Filiform papilla C. vallate papilla B. fungiform papilla D. foliate papilla 29. A syndrome characterized by recurring episode of intense stabbing pain in the Gasserian ganglion: A Tic douloureux C. Neuralgia of the VII CN B. Bell’s Palsy D. Herpes Zoster 30. A lingual papilla with three taste receptor A. filiform papilla C. Fungiform papilla B. vallate papilla D . foliate papilla 31. It is usually located at the upper part of the stomach that secretes HCL and intrinsic factor A. Chief cells B. Parietal cells

C. alpha cells D. beta cells

32. A cell that secretes chymosin and lipase in infant and pepsinogen throughout life. A. Parietal cells C. Chief cells B. Gastric cells D. goblets cells 33. A cell from the liver that removes bacteria and debris from blood A. Paneth cells C. Kupffer cells B. Crypt of Leiberkuhn D. Brunners gland 34. It regulates the passage of bile and pancreatic juice into duodenum A. Hepatobiliary duct C. Common bile duct B. Sphincter of Oddi D. hepatic duct 35. The following are monoamines, a neurotransmitter release at the synaptic region, which one is not included in the group. A. Epinephrine C. dopamine B. norepinephrine D. serotonin E. acetylcholine 36. The open part of the c-shaped cartilage of the trachea is spanned by a smooth muscle called: A. pharyngeal constrictor muscle C. Trachealis B. longitudinal fibers D. circular fibers 37. A detergent like lipoprotein which forms a thin on the inside of the alveoli and bronchioles that disrupts the hydrogen bonds of water and reduces surface tension at the alveoli. A. Pulmonary surfactant C. lecithin spingomyelin B. lipid surfactant D. all of the above 38. A neurotransmitter that is secreted by the hypothalamus, limbic system and highly concentrated at the substantia nigra and involve in the elevation of mood and control of skeletal muscle. A. Dopamine C. histamine B. serotonin D. acetylcholine E. enkephalins 39. A neuroglial cell of the CNS that form the myelin sheath in the brain and spinal cord : A. Oligodendrocytes C. microglial cell B.. astrocytes D. ependymal

40. The outer layer of the adrenal cortex that is responsible for the production of mineralocorticoid or aldosterone

A. Zona reticulosa B. Zona fasciculate

C. Zona glomerulosa D. none of the choices

41. A monoamine neurotransmitter which is a potent vasodilator released by mast cells and basophils of connective tissue: A. Serotonin C. GABA B. Encephalins D. Histamine

42. The mucous membrane that lines the maxillary sinus is called A. Tunica mucosa maxillary C. Schneiderian membrane B. Stratified columnar epithelium D. Stratified ciliated columnar epithelium 43.

The parotid duct after piercing the buccal fat pad and the buccinators muscle opens at the: A. Oral vestibule opposite 1st molar B. Oral vestibule opposite upper 2nd molar C. Sublingual caruncle D. Sublingual fold

44. The Whartons duct opens into the oral cavity proper at the A. Oral vestibule opposite 1st molar B. Oral vestibule opposite upper 2nd molar C. Sublingual caruncle D. Sublingual fold 45.

It begins in the neck at the lower border of the cricoid cartilage, opposite the sixth cervical vertebra, descends along the front of the vertebral column, through the superior and posterior mediastina, and passes through the diaphragm. A. Trachea C. Esophagus B. Larynx D. Pharynx

46. The nerve supply of diaphragm is A. Cervical nerve C. Gastric nerve B. Phrenic nerve D. none of the choices 47. The layer of adrenal cortex that is responsible for the production of glucorticoids or cortisol A. Zona reticularis C. Zona fasciculate/ B. Zona glomerulosa D. none of the choices 48. The layer of adrenal cortex responsible for the production of sex steroids, estrogen and progesterone A. Zona reticularis C. Zona fasciculata B. Zona glomerulosa D. none of the choices 49. The beta cells of the islet of langerhans produces : A. Glucagon C. Insulin B. pancreatic juice D. all of the choices

50. The alpha cells of the islet of langerhans produces A. Glucagon C. Insulin B. pancreatic juice D. all of the choices

51. The accessory gland of the pancreas is called A. duct of Wirsung C. duct of Santorini B. duct of Ravinis D. duct of Bartolins 52. The main duct of the pancreas is called A. duct of Wirsung B. duct of Ravinis

C. duct of Santorini D. duct of Bartolins

53. The ff: are secreted by the adenohypophysis, except: A. atotropin hormone B. Thyrotropin C. Prolactin D. Oxytocin E. Melanocyte stimulating hormone

54.

Parts of the cerebrum, except

A. Insula B cingulated gyrus

C. cerebral peduncle D. Brokas area

55. . Secreted by the anterior pituitary gland, except A. S T H C. A C T H B. A D H D. T S H 56.

Found in the renal medulla, except A. Renal column B. Interlobular veins

E. M S H

C. Renal pyramids D. Minor calyces E. Renal papilla

57. The left bronchus is except: A. Narrower B. Longer

C. Horizontal D. Vertical

58. Parts of the uterine tube, except A. Fimbriae B. Cervical opening

C. Infundibulum D. Uterine opening

59. Found in the vulva, except: A. Labia minora B. Bulbo urethrtal glands

C. Labia majora E. Mons pubis D. Clitoris

60. Cessation of menstrual cycle A. menarche B. menopause

C. adrenache D. thelarche

61. The onset of menstration A. menarche B. menopause

C. adrenache D. thelarche

62. Breast development A. menarche B. menopause

C. adrenache D. thelarche

63. Growth of axillary hair A. menarche B. menopause

C. adrenache D. thelarche

64. A typical female pelvis A. gynecoid B. Antropoid 65.. A male pelvis A. gynecoid B. Antropoid 66. Site of tubal ligation in the fallopian tube A interstitial part B infundibulum 67.. Site for fertilization at the fallopian tube A. interstitial part B. infundibulum

E. Transverse

E. Instertitial

C. Android D. platypelloid

C. Android D. platypelloid

C. ampulla D. Isthmus C. ampulla D. Isthmus

68.. Part of the pituitary gland that secretes the Gonadotropin releasing hormone A. Adeno hypophysis C. Neuro Hypophysis B. Post pituitary galand D. none 69. Found in the superior articulating facet of lumbar: A. Spine C. Transverse process B. Mamillary process D. Accessory process

E. neural arch

70. A tubular depression located at the duodenal villi of small intestine:

A. B. C. D.

crypt of Leiberkuhn Brunnes gland Payers patches None of the above.

71. In order to perform a lumbar puncture (spinal tap) in the adult, the needle is introduced between which of the ffg. spinous processes? A. T12 and L1 C. S1 and 2 B. L2 and 3 D. L 4 and 5 E. S 3 and 4. 72. Which space is entered when performing a spinal tap? A. Arachnoid space C. Subarachnoid space B. Central canal D. Conus medullaris 73. The arterial blood supply of the heart is provided by: I. The right and left pulmonary arteries III. The right and left subclavian arteries II. The right and left coronary arteries IV. The right and left innominate arteries A. I & II B. I & III C. I & IV D. I only E. II only 74. When performing a lumbar puncture (spinal tap), the ffg. structures are pierced by the needle except: A. supraspinous ligament C. arachnoid mater B. posterior longitudinal ligament D. ligamentum flavum E. dura mater 75. Which of the following veins are normally concerned with drainage of the stomach? I. Portal II. Azygos III. Splenic IV. Internal iliac A. I & II B. I & III C. I, III & IV D. II & III E. II, III & IV 76. Which of the following is true regarding curvatures of the maxillary central incisor cervical line / CEJ? A. It is a semicircular curve toward the root apex on the labial surface. B. It shows more curvature towards the incisal on the mesial surface than the distal. C. It is a semicircular curve toward the incisal on the lingual surface. D. Both A & B E. All of the above. 77. Which of the following is true regarding the lingual fossa of maxillary central incisors? A. The mesial marginal ridge marks the mesial boundary of the fossa. B. The CEJ marks the cervical boundary of the fossa. C. The cingulum marks the cervical boundary of the fossa. D. Both A & B E. Both A & D. 78. From the mesial aspect, the crest of curvature (height of contour) in the facial and lingual surface of maxillary incisors are located in which third of the crown? A. Incisal D. junction of middle and cervical B. junction of incisal and middle E. cervical C. middle

79 The maxillary lateral incisors is smaller than maxillary central incisor in all aspect except which one of the following? A. crown length D. root length B. crown width MD E. diameter at the cervix C. crown width LL 80. The mandibular central incisors exhibits which one of the following characteristics when viewed from the incisal aspect? F. The labial surface is more narrow than the lingual surface. G. The incisal ridge is facial to the line bisecting the crown LL. H. The incisal ridge is almost at right angle to the line bisecting the crown LL. I. The LL diameter of the crown is always less than the MD diameter. J. None of the above. 2.

The mandibular lateral incisors exhibits which one of the following characteristics when viewed from the incisal aspect? A. The labial surface is more narrow than the lingual surface. B. The incisal ridge is facial to a line bisecting the crown LL. C. The incisal ridge is curved distolingually. D. The LL diameter of the crown is always less than the MD diameter. E. Both C & D.

3.

Perikymata found on a newly erupted incisors are found numerously on what portion of the crown? A. incisal third D. cervical third B. middle third E. entire crown length C. junction of incisal and middle third

4.

At what surface does mandibular central incisor best exhibit its bilateral symmetry? A. facial surface C. mesial surface B. lingual surface D. distal surface E. incisal surface.

5.

The height of contour of a mandibular incisor when viewed facially is located at what third of the crown? A. Cervical C. junction of cervical and middle B. Middle D. incisal E. junction of middle and incisal

6.

The traditional or mixed dentition periods begins with the emergence of which of the following permanent teeth? A. first molars C. lateral incisors B. lateral incisors D. first premolars E. none of these.

7.

The follicles of the developing permanent incisors and canines are generally positioned? A. facial to the primary roots D. distal to the primary roots B. lingual to the primary roots E. mesial to the primary roots C. have no relationship with the primary roots.

8.

The follicles of the developing premolars are generally positioned? A. facial to the primary roots D. mesial to the primary roots B. lingual to the primary roots E. distal to the primary roots C. within the furcation of the primary molars roots.

88. When viewed from the facial, the mesial outline of the mandibular canine crown and root is generally: A. more convex than the maxillary canine. B. more concave that the maxillary canine C. straight as compared to the maxillary canine D. no difference as compared to the maxillary. 89 Following eruption, the root of the mandibular canine is completed developmentally at what age? A. 5 to 6 years D. 16 to 18 years B. 9 to 10 years E. none of the choices C. 12 to 14 years 90. At what age does the maxillary second premolar crown begin calcification? A. 1 to 1.5 years D. about 3 months prenatal B. about 3 months postnatal E. about 2.5 to 3 years C. about 2 to 2 ¼ years 9.

The maxillary second premolar differs from the maxillary first premolar in which of the following characteristics? A. a shorter MBCR compared to the DBCR B. the absence of a mesial marginal developmental groove. C. both A and B D. Buccal and lingual cusp lengths of more equal length E. A, B and D

10. When viewed from the occlusal aspect, which of the following are differences in the crown of the maxillary second premolar as compared to the first maxillary prermolar? A. a more rounded outline form B. a short central developmental groove. C. both A and B only D. more secondary grooves leading to a wrinkled appearance. E. A, B and D 11. When the occlusal form of the mandibular second premolar is highly variable, which of the following are the most common forms of this tooth? A. 2 cusps, facial and lingual B. 3 cusps, facial, mesiolingual and distolingual C. both A and B D. 2 cusps, mesial and distal E. both B and D

12. The developmental groove form a Y pattern in which of the following premolars?

A. mandibular 2nd with 2 cusps B. mandibulart 1st with 1 cusp C. maxillary 1st with 3 cusps D. maxillary 2nd with 2 cusps E. mandibular 2nd with 3 cusps. 95. Primary teeth differ from permanent teeth in that primary teeth have I. whiter crown II. more pronounced cervical ridges III. comparatively larger pulp cavities IV. comparatively larger and slender roots V. longer crowns compared with their mesiodistal diameters A. I, II & III B. I, II, III & IV C. I, II, III & V D. I, IV & V

E. III, IV & V

96. The following present a trapezoidal outline on their crown portion. I. facial aspect of incisors III. proximal aspect of premolars II. lingual aspect of molars IV. proximal aspect of maxillary molars V. proximal aspect of mandibular molars A. I, II, III & IV B. I, II. III & IV C. I, II, IV & V D. I, II & III E. I & II 97. The cervical line of teeth curves in which two directions? I. Towards the apex on the facial and lingual surfaces. II. Away from the apex on the facial and lingual surfaces. III. Towards the apex on the mesial and distal surfaces. IV. Away from the apex on the mesial and distal surfaces. A. I & II B. I & III C. I & IV D. II & III E. II & IV 98.

The occlusal outline of maxillary first molar contains two obtuse and two acute angles. The acute angles are: I. Mesiolingual II. Mesiofacial III. Distolingual IV. Distofacial A. I & II B. I & III C. I & IV D. II & III E. II & IV.

99.

Which among the permanent teeth has its mesial marginal ridge located more cervically than its distal marginal ridge? A. Maxillary first molar D. Mandibular second molar B. Mandibular first molar E. Mandibular first premolar C. Maxillary first premolar

100. The sixth cusp of mand. 1st molars located on the distal marginal ridge: A. tuberculum intermedium C. cusp of carabeli B. tuberculum sextum D. none of the choices 101. When viewed from the occlusal, which of the following is true regarding the maxillary first molar? A. The crown will be wider in the mesial aspect than the distal aspect. B. The crown will be wider on the lingua; aspect than the buccal a...