BHP MCQs - Solved practice exams PDF

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1. Who is recognised as the author of the first Australian nursing textbook Lectures for Nurses? Select one. a. Sally Goold b. Virginia Henderson c. Patricia Benner d. Gwendolen Burbridge

2. Who is recognised as a pioneer for Aboriginal nursing in Australia? Select one. a. Sally Goold b. Virginia Henderson c. Patricia Benner d. Gwendolen Burbridge

3. What is the role of the Nursing and Midwifery Board of Australia? Select one. a. To manage registration processes for health practitioners b. To develop standards and codes of practice for nurses c. To manage accreditation of nursing and midwifery education programs d. To manage investigations into complaints about health practitioners

4. What is the role of the Australian Nursing and Midwifery Accreditation Council? Select one. a. To manage registration processes for health practitioners b. To develop standards and codes of practice for nurses c. To manage accreditation of nursing and midwifery education programs d. To manage investigations into complaints about health practitioners

5. The critical thinking attitude of fair-mindedness is: a. Assessing all viewpoints with equal standards not personal judgement b. Actively trying to examine personal biases c. Autonomous and independent thinking d. Being aware of personal knowledge limitations

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6. Reflection in nursing is: a. Ensuring professional appearance by looking in the mirror b. Using the rear view mirror when driving to work c. Ensuring consistent practice by reflecting the practice of your colleagues d. An essential skill in critical thinking

7. Which theory on caring was constructed by the theorist Jean Watson? Select one. a. The six Cs of caring in nursing b. Theory of bureaucratic caring c. Theory of transcultural nursing d. Theory of human caring

8. A way that nurses can improve of their self-awareness is to: a. Apply the Johari Window b. Download an app that beeps when engaging in communication c. Ensure they have minimum 6.25 hours of sleep before clinical shifts d. Engage in a minimum of 30 minutes of reflection on rostered days of

9. The therapeutic relationship phases in correct order are: a. Pre-interaction, working, reflection, termination b. Introductory, working, reflection, termination c. Introductory, establishing, working, termination d. Pre-interaction, introductory, working, termination

10. The principle of person-centred care includes: a. Ensuring the patient is nursed in the centre of the room b. Actively trying to examine personal biases c. Autonomous and independent thinking d. Involvement of family and friends

11. The interpersonal communication process includes: a. Verbal and non-verbal communication b. Sender, message, receiver, response, feedback c. Sender, verbal message, receiver, verbal response d. Overt and covert communication

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12. Which theorist constructed a developmental theory including the stage ‘Identity vs role confusion’? a. Nightingale b. Vygotsky c. Erikson d. Freud

13. Quality and safety is important in nursing and health care because: a. It is a key indicator of a consistent acceptable standard of health care b. It highlights where to lay blame in a sentinel event c. It reduces the risk of a hospital being sued d. It increases communication between healthcare staf

14. Which of the following is NOT a current Quality and Safety strategic plan priority area? a. Patient safety b. Partnering with patients, consumers and communities c. Quality, cost and value d. Supporting health professionals to upskill

15. Which of the following is NOT a current nationally agreed upon strategy to improve the rigor of accreditation? a. Infections b. Medication safety c. Safety in digital health d. Safety in staf – patient ratios

16. Which of the following is NOT a sentinel event identified in 2017? a. Wrong surgical or other invasive procedure performed on a patient resulting in serious harm or death b. Unintended retention of a foreign object in a patient after surgery or other invasive procedure resulting in serious harm or death c. Suspected suicide of a patient in an acute psychiatric unit or acute psychiatric ward d. Musculoskeletal injury from incorrect manual handling

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17. An approved Code of Practice: a. Is a guideline for the ideal standard of practice b. Is automatically admissible as evidence in court proceedings c. Ensures nurses know when to report untoward colleague behavior to AHPRA d. Places the emphasis of healthcare on the person-centred care

18. Research is important in nursing and health care because: a. It provides evidence for nursing practice b. It highlights staf who are needing an update in their skills a. It ensures the safety of all patients b. It increases communication between healthcare staf

19. An example of an acceptable form of evidence in nursing is: a. A peer-reviewed primary research journal article b. Statistics from a government website c. Findings from a current government report d. All of the above

20. Evidence based practice (EVP): a. Is the conscientious, explicit and judicious use of theory-derived, research-based information to make decisions about individualized care delivery b. Ensures there is always new content to keep the publishing business afloat c. Ensures the safety of all patients d. Enables management to pin-point where an error took place

21. The main two types broad of research methodologies are: a. Randomised research and Controlled research b. Evidence based research and Expert Opinion research c. Qualitative research and Quantitative research d. Ethnography research and Lived Experience research

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22. Which of the following are barriers to the use of EVP in nursing: a. Time b. Ability to critique research methods and interpret relevance for current practice c. Access to current research d. All of the above

23. In SA Registered Nurses are registered with: a. The Australian Institute of Health and Welfare b. SA Health c. The Australian Commission on Safety and Quality in Health Care d. The Nursing and Midwifery Board of Australia

24. For a RN to maintain registration they must: a. Have engaged in 2 hours of CPD per week b. Have practiced clinically within the last 10 years c. Have practiced clinically within the last 5 years d. Have engaged in 20 hours of CPD in the last calendar year

25. Safety in the workplace is: a. Governed by legislation b. Informed by policy and procedures of an institution c. Everybody’s responsibility d. All of the above

26. The therapeutic relationship a. Is driven by best practice therapy b. Has four phases c. Is governed by best practice d. Exists between health professionals

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27. Which of the following statements is correct regarding the Consent to Medical Treatment and Palliative Care Act (SA) 1995? Select one. a. It provides guidance for dealing with consent b. It provides a national legislative scheme for the regulation of health care professionals c. It does not apply in the case of an emergency d. All of the above

28. Which of the following statements is correct regarding confidentiality? Select one. a. A RN must be informed on all confidential matters of their patients b. A RN must not divulge confidential details of patient care to anyone other than persons who were present when an incident occurred c. Confidentiality does not apply to minors d. None of the above

29. Which of the following is true of restraint? Select one. a. A RN is able to restrain a patient if they are verbally abusive b. A medical officer can order a restraint for a patient if they are verbally abusive c. A RN is able to use a glove restraint on a confused patient if they are trying to remove their clothing d. None of the above

30. Do patients have the right to refuse medical treatment? Select one. a. Yes if they are deemed competent and have been informed of all aspects of their illness and the treatment b. Yes as every patient has the right to refuse c. No because refusing treatment is a sign of incompetence d. No and they can be restrained if necessary to receive the treatment

31. Do patients have the right to request that their details are not divulged to their family? Select one. a. Yes if they are deemed competent b. Yes as every patient has this right c. No because that is asking health professionals to lie d. No because the family also have the right to know

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32. An example of an adverse drug reaction is when a person experiences anaphylaxis: a. After being prescribed five times the recommended dose of a medication b. After being administered a prescribed medication they have not had before c. After they were prescribed a medication that had a known interaction with another medication they were prescribed d. After mistakenly receiving another patient’s morning medication

33. Safety in medication administration includes: a. Identifying the correct patient b. Efective communication within the inter-disciplinary healthcare team c. Following policy and procedure d. All of the above

34. An example of an adverse drug event is when a person experiences harm: a. After taking a medication that was left on the bed of the patient in the next room b. After being administered a prescribed medication they have not had before c. After forgetting to take their usual morning medication d. After refusing to take a medication

35. The Quality Use of Medications Framework: a. Was developed by Florence Nightingale during the Crimean War b. Outlines Australia’s use of medicines policy c. Is a standard of the Registered Nurse Standards for Practice d. All of the above 36. What may influence a person’s ability to detect safety risks: a. A sensual deficit (blindness, hearing loss etc) b. Lack of education c. Inadequate information d. All of the above

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37. What is the first step in the Nursing Process? Select one. a. Evaluation b. Assessment c. Planning d. All of the above

38. Which one of the following is part of the components of informed consent? Select one. a. Informing family members of the outcome of a diagnostic procedure b. Verifying the person’s details c. Ensuring a person is cognitively capable of providing consent d. All of the above

39. Which of the following is an example of subjective data? Select one. a. Identifying the correct patient b. A person’s baseline heart rate is recorded as 64 bpm on the RDR chart c. A person states they have a pain score of 4/10 d. All of the above

40. Which of the following is the normal adult range for respirations? Select one. a. 60-100 bpm b. 12-20 bpm c. 8-20 bpm d. 95-100 bpm

41. What is the purpose of documentation? Select one. a. There is less documentation needed if everything is done correctly b. It will cover you legally so you are not sued if there is an incident c. It is a legal record of a person’s health and the healthcare they received d. All of the above

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42. Which of the following statements are correct regarding informed consent? Select one. a. RNs are to obtain informed consent for every procedure with a person b. A person must be cognitively able to give informed consent c. In the case of an emergency, a nurse may perform procedures without consent d. All of the above

43. Which factors may effect a person’s blood pressure? Select one. a. Emotional stress b. Cafeine c. Smoking d. All of the above

44. How does the RN measure which cuff is appropriate for taking a person’s blood pressure? Select one. a. The cuf will measure 50% of the person’s arm b. The cuf will measure 25% of the person’s arm c. The cuf will measure 40% of the person’s arm d. None of the above

45. Which is the following is true of a of a blood pressure? Select one. a. 120/80 is a normal adult blood pressure b. Systolic readings below 100 must be reported c. Systolic readings above 140 must be reported d. All of the above

46. Which pulse is most commonly used when taking a blood pressure using the palpatory method? Select one. a. The radial pulse b. The carotid pulse c. The brachial pulse d. All of the above

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47. Which of the following statements are correct regarding the Health Practitioner Regulation National Law Act (SA) 2010? Select one. a. It provides guidance for medical staf and medical assistants b. It provides a national legislative scheme for the regulation of health practitioners c. It does not apply in the case of an emergency d. All of the above

48. On which system is Australian law based on? Select one. a. The Common Law system of England b. The Common Law system of Canada c. The Common Law system of New Zealand d. The Common Law system of Australasia

49. What are the four principles that must be proven to substantiate an allegation of negligence? Select one. a. b. c. d.

Duty, Beach, Cause & Harm Duty, Breach, Cause and Vicarious Liability Duty, Breach, Cause & Harm None of the above

50. Is a RN liable if they do not provide first aid in an emergency situation? Select one. a. Yes because they are registered as a nurse b. Yes because they are trained in basic life support c. No because they are trained for a clinical setting not a side of the road setting d. No but if they begin first aid they must continue until medical assistance arrives

51. Which of the following statements is true of Vicarious Liability? Select one. a. It is a way that the institution can live through its employees b. A RN does not need to have their own professional indemnity insurance policy as the employer is always vicariously liable c. Employers may be found negligent through acts of their employees d. It is a way that prevents employees from being sued

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52. Ms Amy Walters is ordered 25 mg Captopril, orally. Available stock is 5 mg / mL liquid. What volume should be administered? a. 5 mL b. 2.5 mL c. 4 mL d. 10 mL

53. Ms Amy Walters is ordered 25 mg of Captopril, orally. Available stock is 12.5 mg tablets. How many tablets should be administered? a. 2 tablets b. ½ tablet c. 4 tablets d. 1 tablet

54. Ms Amy Walters is ordered 50 mg of Captopril, orally. Available stock is 12.5 mg tablets. How many tablets should be administered? a. 2 tablets b. ½ tablet c. 4 tablets d. 1 tablet

55. Ms Amy Walters is ordered 12.5 mg Captopril, orally. Available stock is 5 mg / mL liquid. What volume should be administered? a. 5 mL b. 2.5 mL c. 4 mL d. 10 mL

56. Ms Amy Walters is ordered 50 mg Captopril, orally. Available stock is 5 mg / mL liquid. What volume should be administered? a. 5 mL b. 2.5 mL c. 4 mL d. 10 mL

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57. When converting 153 mg to grams the answer is: a. 1.53 g b. 15.3 g c. 0.153 g d. 153 g

58. When converting 0.511 mg to micrograms the answer is: a. 0.511 microgs b. 511 microgs c. 511 mgs d. 5.11 microgs

59. When converting 8400 microgs to mg the answer is: a. 84.0 mg b. 8.4 mg c. 8.04 mg d. 840 mg

60. Converting 0.90 Kg to g (grams) is: a. 9.0 g b. 90 g c. 9000 g d. 900 g

61. Ms Mary Young is ordered 120 mg of Gliclazide, orally twice a day. Available stock is 80 mg tablets. How many tablets should be administered? a. b. c. d.

½ tablet 4 tablets 1 ½ tablets 1 tablet

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62. Ms Mary Young is ordered 120 mg of Gliclazide, orally twice a day. Available stock is 30 mg tablets. How many tablets should be administered? a. ½ tablet b. 4 tablets c. 1 ½ tablets d. 1 tablet

63. Ms Mary Young is ordered Gentamicin 320mg, IV twice a day. Available stock is 40 mg / mL vials. What volume should be administered? a. 8 mLs b. 50 mLs c. 3.2 mLs d. 200 mLs

64. Ms Mary Young is ordered Gentamicin 320mg, IV twice a day. Available stock is 80 mg / 50 mL vials. What volume should be administered? a. 8 mLs b. 50 mLs c. 3.2 mLs d. 200 mLs

65. Ms Amy Walters is ordered 12.5 mg of Prednisolone, orally twice a day. Available stock is 5 mg tablets. How many tablets should be administered? a. 3 tablets b. 2.5 tablets c. 5 tablets d. 2 tablets

66. Ms Amy Walters is ordered 500 mg of Cephalexin, orally twice a day. Available stock is 250 mg capsules. How many tablets should be administered? a. 2.5 capsules b. 5 capsules c. 1 capsule d. 2 capsules 13

67. Mr Tai Cam is ordered 15 mg of Morphine, orally PRN. Available stock is 5 mg tablets. How many tablets should be administered? a. ½ tablet b. 3 tablets c. 1 ½ tablets d. 1 tablet

68. Mr Tai Cam is ordered 30 mg of Morphine syrup, orally PRN. Available stock is 5 mg / mL. What volume should be administered? a. 6 mL b. 30 mL c. 8 mL d. 5 mL

69. Mr Tai Cam is ordered 15 mg of Morphine suspension, orally PRN. Available stock is 20 mg / mL. What volume should be administered? a. 3 mLs b. 0.5 mLs c. 1.5 mLs d. 0.75 mLs

70. Ms Amy Walters is ordered 12.5 mg of Prednisolone, orally once a day. Available stock is 5 mg / mL. What volume should be administered? a. 3 mL b. 2.5 mL c. 5 mL d. 2mL

71. Ms Amy Walters is ordered 500 mg of Cephalexin, orally three times a day. Available stock is 125 mg / 5 mL suspension. What volume should be administered? a. 12.5 mL b. 5 mL c. 20 mL d. 10 mL 14

72. Mr Tai Cam is ordered Paracetamol 960 mg, orally four times a day. Available stock is 120 mg chewable tablets. How many tablets should be administered? a. 6 tablets b. 3 tablets c. 9 tablets d. 8 tablets

73. Mr Tai Cam is ordered 400 mg of Ibuprofen suspension, orally four times a day. Available stock is 100 mg / 5 mL. What volume should be administered? a. 5 mL b. 20 mL c. 8 mL d. 4 mL

74. Mr Tai Cam is ordered 125 micrograms of Digoxin, orally once a day. Available stock is 50 microgs / mL. What volume should be administered? a. b. c. d.

5 mLs 0.5 mLs 1.5 mLs 2.5 mLs

75. Ms Amy Walters is ordered 960 mg of Paracetamol, orally four times a day. Available stock is 120 mg / mL liquid. What volume should be administered? a. 5 mL b. 2.5 mL c. 6 mL d. 8 mL

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76. Ms Amy Walters is ordered 300 mg of Phenytoin, orally once a day. Available stock is 125 mg / 5 mL liquid. What volume should be administered? a. 12 mL b. 12.5 mL c. 5 mL d. 30 mL

77. Mr Tai Cam is ordered Phenytoin 300 mg, orally once a day. Available stock is 50 mg chewable tablets. How many tablets should be administered? a. 6 tablets b. 3 tablets c. 9 tablets d. 8 tablets

78. Mr Tai Cam is ordered 200 mg of Ibuprofen liquid, orally four times a day. Available stock is 100 mg / 5 mL. What volume should be administered? a. b. c. d.

5 mL 20 mL 8 mL 10 mL

79. Mr Tai Cam is ordered 150 micrograms of Thyroxine, orally once a day. Available stock is 100 microgs / 5 mL. What volume should be administered? a. b. c. d.

5 mLs 7.5 mLs 1.5 mLs 2.5 mLs

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80. Mr Vincent Romero is ordered 1 g Asprin, orally. Available stock is 500 mg dissolvable tablets. How many tablets should be administered? a. 2 tablets b. ½ tablet c. 4 tablets d. 5 tablets

81. Mr Vincent Romero is ordered 1500 mg Asprin, orally. Available stock is 300 mg dissolvable tablets. How many tablets should be administered? a. 3 tablets b. 1 tablet c. 4 tablets d. 5 tablets

82. Mr Vincent Romero is ordered 1.5 g Asprin, orally. Available stock is 300 mg dissolvable tablets. How many tablets should be administered? a. 3 tablets b. 1 tablet c. 4 tablets d. 5 tablets

83. Mr Vincent Romero is ordered 1500 mg Asprin, orally. Available stock is 500 mg dissolvable tablets. How many tablets should be administered? a. 3 tablets b. 1 tablet c. 4 tablets d. 5 tablets

84. Mr Vincent Romero is or...