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Practice test chapter 19...

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Chapter 19 test questions

1. The agranular leukocyte (agranulocyte) that is capable of phagocytosis is the __________. a) neutrophil b) monocyte c) lymphocyte d) eosinophil b) monocyte 2. People with type "O" blood are considered "universal donors" for transfusions because __________. a) they usually have very strong red blood cells b) their blood lacks A and B agglutinins c) their blood is plentiful in A and B agglutinins d) their blood lacks A and B antigens d) their blood lacks A and B antigens pg.651 3. The white blood cell type that most rapidly increases in number after a bacterial infection is the __________. a) neutrophils b) monocytes c) eosinophils d) lymphocytes a) neutrophils pg.653 4. The common pathway in coagulation ends with __________. a) release of PF-3 b) adhesion of platelets to a damaged vessel wall c) positive feedback of thrombin formation d) conversion of soluble fibrinogen to insoluble fibrin d) conversion of soluble fibrinogen to insoluble fibrin 5. Most of the protein factors that are required for clotting are synthesized by a) platelets.

b) the liver. c) megakaryocytes. d) the spleen. e) the kidneys. b) the liver pg.663 6. The percent fraction of formed elements relative to whole blood is the a) packed volume. b) hematocrit. c) viscosity. d) specific gravity. e) differential cell count. b) hematocrit pg.640 7. Which of the following is a function of the blood? a) defense against toxins and pathogens b) transport of gases c) transport of body heat d) transport of nutrients and wastes e) All of the answers are correct. e) All of the answers are correct pg.639 8. The combination of plasma and formed elements is called a) extracellular fluid. b) packed blood. c) lymph. d) whole blood. e) serum d) whole blood pg.640

9. Each of the following is a characteristic of whole blood, except a a) deep red color from hemoglobin. b) viscosity about the same as water. c) temperature of approximately 38 degrees Celsius.

d) pH of 7.4. e) built-in system for clotting. b) viscosity about the same as water pg.639 10. A person who has a low blood volume is said to be a) hypovolemic. b) isovolemic. c) normovolemic. d) antivolemic. e) hypervolemic a) hypovolemic pg.665 11. The chief difference between plasma and interstitial fluid involves the a) concentration of proteins. b) concentration of water. c) concentration of nitrogen wastes. d) concentration of glucose. e) concentration of electrolytes a) concentration of proteins 12. Which of these is not one of the formed elements of blood? a) antibodies b) lymphocytes c) basophils d) platelets e) RBCs a) antibodies 13. The most abundant solute in plasma is __________. a) sodium ion b) dissolved gases c) glucose d) protein d) protein

14. Serum can't coagulate because the __________ has been removed. a) fibrinogen b) albumin c) immunoglobulin d) protein C a) fibrinogen 15. Transferrin is an example of which kind of plasma protein? a) metalloprotein b) hormone-binding protein c) transport albumin d) steroid-binding protein e) apolipoprotein a) metalloprotein 16. Which plasma protein transports fatty acids and some hormones? a) gamma globulin b) translipin c) albumin d) hormone-binding protein e) steroid-binding protein c) albumin 17. Which organ secretes most of the plasma proteins? a) heart b) pancreas c) kidney d) brain e) liver e) liver 18. Plasma proteins essential in body defense are the a) albumins. b) fibrinogens. c) lipoproteins.

d) immunoglobulins. e) metalloproteins d) imminoglobulins 19. A plasma protein essential for blood coagulation is a) immunoglobulin A. b) fibrinogen. c) metalloprotein D. d) lipoprotein C. e) albumin alpha. b) fibrinogen 20. The formed elements are largely produced within the __________. a) spleen b) red bone marrow c) thymus d) liver b) red bone marrow 21. Red blood cell production is regulated by the hormone a) thymosin. b) erythropoietin. c) renin. d) angiotensin. e) M-CSF. b) erythropoietin 22. The disease sickle cell anemia is an example of what can happen if a) there is insufficient heme in the hemoglobin. b) hemolysis is prevented by a mutated gene. c) the diet is deficient in iron. d) a gene for adult hemoglobin is abnormal. e) red blood cells bind too much oxygen. d) a gene for adult hemoglobin is abnormal

23. When a person who lives at sea level vacations in the Rocky Mountains, you would expect a) a drop in oxygen levels. b) an increase in red blood cell production. c) a rise in hematocrit. d) the release of erythropoietin. e) All of the answers are correct. e) All of the answers are correct 24. An obstruction in blood flow to the kidneys would ultimately result in a) increased erythropoiesis. b) decreased erythropoiesis. c) renal anemia. d) increased sensitivity to vitamin K. e) pernicious anemia. a) increased erythropoiesis 25. The level of erythropoietin in the blood would rise due to all of the following, except a) during periods of fasting. b) as a consequence of hemorrhage. c) at high altitudes. d) when blood flow to the kidneys is disrupted. e) during anemia. a) during periods of fasting 26. Each heme ring in hemoglobin encloses an atom of a) iron. b) magnesium. c) copper. d) calcium. e) sodium. a) iron 27. The function of hemoglobin is to a) carry dissolved blood gases. b) carry bicarbonate ion.

c) stimulate erythropoiesis. d) produce antibodies. e) aid in the process of blood clotting. a) carry dissolved blood gases 28. Pernicious anemia caused by a lack of intrinsic factor is specifically treated by a) oral doses of vitamin B12. b) injections of vitamin B12. c) blood transfusion. d) injections of iron. e) oral doses of iron. b) injections of vitamin B12 29. A bruise appears as a greenish spot in the skin because a) dead white blood cells accumulate at the site of injury. b) red blood cells are green when they leave circulation. c) hemoglobin has leaked from the blood into the injury and hemoglobin has a green color. d) bilirubin from hemoglobin recycling has built-up in the bruise. e) the heme group in the hemoglobin has broken down into biliverdin. e) the heme group in the hemoglobin has broken down into biliverdin. 30. The waste product bilirubin is produced from a) heme molecules lacking iron. b) abnormal proteins found in red blood cells. c) globin chains of hemoglobin. d) iron found in hemoglobin molecules. e) heme molecules plus iron a) heme molecules lacking iron 31. Most of the iron that is removed from degraded hemoglobin is a) excreted by the intestines. b) recycled to the red bone marrow. c) excreted by the liver. d) stored in yellow bone marrow. e) excreted by the kidneys. b) recycled to the red bone marrow

32. The process of red blood cell production is called a) erythropenia. b) hemocytosis. c) hematopenia. d) erythropoiesis. e) erythrocytosis d) erythropoiesis 33. Each hemoglobin molecule contains a) one alpha and one beta chain. b) four alpha chains. c) four iron atoms. d) one heme group. e) a molecule of oxygen and a molecule of carbon dioxide c) four iron atoms 34. A person with a type A positive blood type can safely receive blood from all of these donors except __________. a) O positive b) B positive c) A negative d) A positive b) B positive 35. Which of these is not a surface antigen found on red blood cells? a) Rh b) A c) O d) B c) O 36. Bill wants to determine his blood type, so he takes a few drops of blood from a puncture wound in his finger and mixes it with various antisera. His blood cells agglutinate when mixed with the anti-A sera but not with the anti-B or anti-D sera. This means a) Bill could donate blood to an individual with type O blood.

b) Bill could receive type B-negative blood in a transfusion. c) Bill is Rh positive. d) Bill's red blood cells contain the O surface antigen. e) Bill's plasma contains B antibodies e) Bill's plasma contains B antibodies 37. People with type AB blood are considered the "universal recipient" for transfusions because a) their blood cells lack A and B antigens. b) their blood lacks A or B agglutinins. c) they are usually Rh negative. d) their blood is plentiful in A and B agglutinins. e) they usually have very strong immune systems b) their blood lacks A or B agglutinins 38. Anti-D antibodies are present in the blood of a) all Rh negative individuals. b) all individuals with type AB blood. c) Rh positive individuals who have been exposed to the D surface antigen. d) Rh negative individuals who have been exposed to the D surface antigen. e) all Rh positive individuals. d) Rh negative individuals who have been exposed to the D surface antigen 39. Granulocytes form in a) red bone marrow. b) the thymus. c) the intestines. d) yellow bone marrow. e) the spleen a) red bone marrow 40. The most numerous white blood cells in peripheral circulation are the a) neutrophils. b) lymphocytes. c) eosinophils. d) basophils. e) monocytes

a) neutrophils 41. White blood cells that release histamine at the site of an injury are a) monocytes. b) basophils. c) neutrophils. d) lymphocytes. e) eosinophils. b) basophils 42. ________ are large phagocytic white cells that spend most of their time outside the blood as fixed and free phagocytic cells. a) Neutrophils b) Eosinophils c) Basophils d) Lymphocytes e) Monocytes e) Monocytes 43. White blood cells that are increased in allergic individuals are the a) neutrophils. b) lymphocytes. c) basophils. d) monocytes. e) eosinophils. e) eosinophils 44. Which of the following is true of basophils? a) attract other defense cells b) constitute about 1 percent of WBCs c) granules contain histamine d) granules contain heparin e) All of the answers are correct e) All of the answers are correct 45. An infected wound contains typically contains

a) tissue fluids. b) dead neutrophils. c) cellular debris. d) pus. e) All of the answers are correct e) All of the answers are correct 46. Eosinophils function in: a) destroying antibody-labeled antigens b) production of surface antigens for red blood cells c) antibody production d) production of heparin e) blood coagulation a) destroying antibody-labeled antigens 47. The blood cells involved in specific immunity are the: a) erythrocytes b) lymphocytes c) monocytes d) basophils e) neutrophils b) lymphocytes 48. Non-specific immunity, such as phagocytosis, is a function of which blood cells? a) basophils and eosinophils b) neutrophils, eosinophils, and monocytes c) lymphocytes d) lymphocytes and monocytes e) platelets b) neutophils, eosinophils, and monocytes 49. The function of platelets is to assist in the a) immune response during an infection. b) transport of blood gases such as oxygen. c) destruction of bacteria.

d) removal of worn out red blood cells. e) process called hemostasis. e) process called hemostasis 50. Platelets are pinched off from giant multinucleated cells in the bone marrow called a) myeloblasts. b) erythroblasts. c) lymphoblasts. d) megakaryocytes. e) normoblasts d) megakaryocytes 51. Platelets are cytoplasmic fragments of large cells. red cells that lack a nucleus. blue cells that have a nucleus. tiny cells with a polynucleus. large cells with a prominent, concave nucleus. a) 52. During fibrinolysis __________. a) damaged tissue is pulled together b) fibrinogen is activated c) emboli form d) clots slowly dissolve d) clots slowly dissolve 53. The enzyme that dissolves fibrin is named __________. a) fibrinase b) heparin c) plasmin d) thrombin c) plasmin 54. The complex process that leads to the formation of fibrin from fibrinogen is called __________.

a) syneresis b) fibrinogenesis c) platelet adhesion d) coagulation d) coagulation 55. The extrinsic pathway of coagulation is initiated by the a) release of tissue factor (Factor III) by damaged endothelium. b) release of heparin from the liver. c) activation of Factor VII exposed to collagen. d) conversion of prothrombin to thrombin. e) sticking of platelets to damaged tissue. a) release of tissue factor (Factor III) by damaged endothelium 56. The intrinsic pathway of coagulation is activated by the a) activation of Factor XII exposed to collagen. b) release of heparin from the liver. c) conversion of prothrombin to thrombin. d) release of tissue factor (Factor III) by damaged endothelium. e) sticking of platelets to damaged tissue a) activation of Factor XII exposed to collagen 57. The common pathway of coagulation begins with the a) conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin. b) release of tissue factor by damaged endothelium. c) sticking of platelets to damaged tissue. d) activation of a proenzyme exposed to collagen. e) conversion of Factor X to prothrombinase. e) conversion of Factor X to prothombinase

58. Some rat poisons contain a toxin that blocks the liver's ability to utilize vitamin K. Animals that consume this poison would die of a) thrombocytopenia.

b) starvation. c) acidosis. d) hemorrhage. e) anemia. d) hemorrhage 59. A substance that activates plasminogen might be useful to a) cause clots to form faster. b) initiate clot formation. c) mimic heparin. d) cause clot dissolution to proceed faster. e) recruit neutrophils to an infection. d) cause clot dissolution to proceed faster 60. Which of the following vitamins is needed for the formation of clotting factors? a) vitamin D b) vitamin K c) vitamin E d) vitamin A e) vitamin B b) vitamin K 61. A moving blood clot is called a(n) a) platelet plug. b) procoagulant. c) embolus. d) thrombus. e) plaque. c) embolus 62. Consider these results from a blood lab test. Which value is most likely abnormal? a) RBCs - 5.2 million/μl b) hematocrit - 44 percent c) hemoglobin - 10.7 g/100 ml d) leukocytes - 8600/μl e) platelets - 280,000/μl

c) hemoglobin - 10.7 g/100 ml 63. The most abundant component of plasma is a) nutrients. b) ions. c) gases. d) proteins. e) water. e) water...