Chapter 3 - The Cell (Human Anatomy and Physiology 2nd Edition - Erin Amerman) PDF

Preview

Summary

This material covers:
Module 3.2: Structure of the Plasma Membrane (Functions of membrane proteins)
Module 3.3: Transport Across the Plasma Membrane (Osmosis, Passive Transport)
Module 3.4: Cytoplasmic Organelles (The Cell and its organelles)...

Description

Exam Name___________________________________

MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1) What is NOT one of the three main parts of a cell? A) cytoplasm C) plasma membrane

1) B) nucleus D) extracellular fluid

Answer: D 2) What is NOT a function of the plasma membrane? A) catalyze macromolecules into subunits C) structural support

2) B) isolate the cell from its surroundings D) communication with other cells

Answer: A 3) Cytosol is also known as: A) blood plasma. C) intracellular fluid (ICF).

3) B) extracellular fluid (ECF). D) the cytoskeleton.

Answer: C 4) The main component of the cytosol is: A) water. B) the nucleus.

4) C) organelles.

D) sugars.

Answer: A 5) Molecular machines that perform specific functions for the cell are: A) the plasma membrane. B) cytosol. C) the cytoskeleton. D) organelles.

5)

Answer: D 6) Which of the following best describes the structure of the plasma membrane? A) The plasma membrane is a phospholipid bilayer surrounding the cell. B) The plasma membrane is composed of cristae. C) The plasma membrane is a double layer of protein enclosing the plasma. D) The plasma membrane is a single-layered membrane that surrounds the nucleus of the cell.

6)

Answer: A 7) Which of the following would NOT be a component of the plasma membrane? A) glycoproteins B) cholesterol C) phospholipids D) cytoskeleton

7)

Answer: D 8) Which of the following is NOT a function of the plasma membrane proteins? A) acting as enzymes B) stabilizing temperature C) acting as carriers D) acting as channels Answer: B

1

8)

9) Why is cholesterol a critical component of the plasma membrane? A) Cholesterol transports certain molecules into the cell. B) Cholesterol serves a role in cell recognition. C) Cholesterol catalyzes metabolic reactions from its position within the plasma membrane. D) Cholesterol stabilizes the structure of the plasma membrane when the temperature changes.

9)

Answer: D 10) Which of the following describes the fluid mosaic model of the plasma membrane structure? A) The lipid bilayer is solid at body temperature, thus protecting the cell. B) The plasma membrane is composed of two layers of proteins embedded with lipids. C) The phospholipid bilayer is embedded with associated proteins, cholesterol and sugars and has a dynamic arrangement. D) Phospholipids consist of a polar head and a nonpolar tail made of three fatty acid chains.

10)

Answer: C 11) Simple diffusion requires: A) carrier proteins. C) a concentration gradient.

11) B) protein channels. D) the use of energy.

Answer: C 12) Carbon dioxide is a small molecule that moves through the phospholipid bilayer with its concentration gradient by: A) osmosis. B) facilitated diffusion. C) primary active transport. D) simple diffusion.

12)

Answer: D 13) Sodium ions are moving with their concentration gradient with the use of a protein channel across a plasma membrane. Determine the type of membrane transport used to transport these sodium ions. A) primary active transport B) simple diffusion C) osmosis D) facilitated diffusion

13)

Answer: D 14) A substance moves by facilitated diffusion into a cell. What is required for its transport? A) ATP only B) a pump C) both ATP and a protein channel D) either a protein channel or a carrier protein

14)

Answer: D 15) What is transported across a membrane during osmosis? A) sugars B) water C) solutes

15) D) salts

Answer: B 16) Aquaporins may be employed during: A) simple diffusion. C) active transport.

16) B) endocytosis. D) osmosis.

Answer: D

2

17) During osmosis, water moves across a selectively permeable membrane toward a solution with: A) more water molecules. B) the highest solute concentration. C) the lowest solute concentration. D) the lowest osmotic pressure.

17)

Answer: B 18) A cell is placed into a 3% dextrose solution. At that concentration, the solution is isotonic to the cell If the concentration of dextrose in the solution is increased to 5%, the cell is now in a(n): A) less concentrated solution. B) isotonic solution. C) hypotonic solution. D) hypertonic solution.

18)

Answer: D 19) Cellular swelling is likely to occur when blood cells are immersed in: A) more concentrated solutions. B) isotonic solutions. C) hypotonic solutions. D) hypertonic solutions.

19)

Answer: C 20) Which of the following best describes a cell's response to being placed into an extracellular solution that is hypertonic to the cytosol? A) lysis B) crenation C) no net gain or loss of water D) swelling

20)

Answer: B 21) Identify the type of solution into which this cell has been placed.

21)

A) hypertonic B) isotonic C) hypotonic D) a solution with equal solute concentration as the cell Answer: C 22) The total solute concentration of a red blood cell is about 2%. Sucrose cannot pass through a red blood cell's plasma membrane, but water and urea can. Which of the following solutions will cause a red blood cell to shrink? A) a hypertonic sucrose solution B) a hypertonic urea solution C) a hypotonic sucrose solution D) a hypotonic urea solution Answer: A

3

22)

23) Active transport processes: A) move solutes with or along their concentration gradients. B) require cells to expend energy (ATP). C) move solutes from a higher concentration to a lower concentration. D) move solutes through the phospholipid bilayer without the use of integral proteins.

23)

Answer: B 24) A process that requires energy to move a substance against its concentration gradient is called: A) active transport. B) osmosis. C) facilitated transport. D) passive transport.

24)

Answer: A 25) The Na+/K+ pump transports three sodium ions out of the cell for every two potassium ions moved into the cell. This is an example of: A) a symport pump. B) an antiport pump. C) facilitated diffusion. D) a uniport pump.

25)

Answer: B 26) Resting membrane potential is due to unequal concentrations of: A) water molecules. B) acids and bases. C) phospholipids and proteins. D) ions.

26)

Answer: D 27) Two types of active transport via vesicles are: A) endocytosis and exocytosis. B) simple diffusion and facilitated diffusion. C) primary active transport and secondary active transport. D) diffusion and osmosis.

27)

Answer: A 28) A white blood cell engulfs a bacterium through a process called: A) facilitated diffusion. B) exocytosis. C) primary active transport. D) endocytosis.

28)

Answer: D 29) Which of the following best describes secondary active transport? A) Secondary active transport involves the movement of a substance into a cell with its concentration gradient. B) Secondary active transport involves the movement of a substance into a cell through a protein channel with its concentration gradient. C) Secondary active transport occurs when one substance is coupled with the passive transport of a second substance. D) Secondary active transport involves the movement of water by osmosis into a cell.

29)

Answer: C 30) Which of the following processes are functionally opposite to one another? A) endocytosis and exocytosis B) simple diffusion and facilitated diffusion C) phagocytosis and pinocytosis D) osmosis and simple diffusion Answer: A

4

30)

31) Muscle cells require an abundant amount of ATP to function. Therefore, muscle cells have numerous: A) lysosomes. B) mitochondria. C) ribosomes. D) peroxisomes.

31)

Answer: B 32) The reactions of oxidative catabolism, or aerobic respiration, can occur in the mitochondrion only in the presence of: A) alkaline pH. B) oxygen. C) carbon dioxide. D) hydrogen ions.

32)

Answer: B 33) What is NOT a function of the peroxisome? A) oxidize toxic substances C) synthesize certain phospholipids

33) B) break down fatty acids D) protein synthesis

Answer: D 34) Where does protein synthesis occur? A) peroxisomes B) mitochondria

34) C) lysosomes

D) ribosomes

Answer: D 35) You can differentiate the smooth endoplasmic reticulum (SER) from the rough endoplasmic reticulum (RER) due to the presence of ________ on the RER. A) free ribosomes B) bound peroxisomes C) bound ribosomes D) bound lysosomes

35)

Answer: C 36) Which organelle modifies, sorts, and packages proteins and lipids for export from the cell? A) mitochondrion B) cytoskeleton C) endoplasmic reticulum D) Golgi apparatus

36)

Answer: D 37) What organelle degrades old, worn-out organelles and cell components? A) lysosome B) peroxisome C) rough endoplasmic reticulum (RER) D) Golgi apparatus

37)

Answer: A 38) What is NOT part of the endomembrane system? A) endoplasmic reticulum C) lysosome

38) B) peroxisome D) Golgi apparatus

Answer: B 39) Place the following steps of endomembrane system function in the correct order. 1. Golgi apparatus receives transport vesicles from the RER. 2. Ribosomes on the RER synthesize proteins. 3. Proteins are packaged into transport vesicles. 4. Modified proteins may be secreted from the cell by exocytosis. 5. Proteins are modified by the Golgi apparatus. A) 2, 3, 1, 5, 4 B) 3, 2, 1, 4, 5 C) 2, 4, 3, 1, 5 D) 1, 2, 3, 5, 4 Answer: A

5

39)

40) Which of the following statements about the cytoskeleton is FALSE? A) The cytoskeleton synthesizes proteins. B) The cytoskeleton functions in movement. C) The cytoskeleton supports the plasma and nuclear membranes. D) The cytoskeleton provides the characteristic shape and size to a cell.

40)

Answer: A 41) Microtubules are composed of protein subunits known as: A) actin. B) tubulin. C) keratin.

41) D) myosin.

Answer: B 42) Human cells that lack centrioles cannot: A) metabolize sugars. C) divide.

42) B) move. D) synthesize proteins.

Answer: C 43) Through the microscope, you see cells swimming. Each cell has a long tail that moves in a whip-like manner. What type of cellular extension have you observed? A) flagellum B) centriole C) microvillus D) cilium

43)

Answer: A 44) Most of a cell's DNA is located in its: A) ribosomes. C) nucleus.

44) B) lysosomes. D) Golgi apparatus.

Answer: C 45) Which of the following components of the nucleus is composed of DNA? A) nuclear lamina B) nuclear pores C) chromatin D) nuclear envelope

45)

Answer: C 46) Tightly coiled DNA molecules present during cell division are known as: A) chromosomes. B) the nucleosome. C) the nuclear envelope. D) the nucleoplasm.

46)

Answer: A 47) How many homologous chromosome pairs are present in most human cells? A) 23 B) 46 C) 4

47) D) 18

Answer: A 48) Within the nucleus, where does ribosome assembly occur? A) nuclear pore B) centromere C) nucleoplasm

48) D) nucleolus

Answer: D 49) The triplet codes in DNA needed to specify a specific polypeptide chain are found in the: A) anticodon of tRNA. B) codon of mRNA. C) gene. D) cytoplasm. Answer: C

6

49)

50) The unit of DNA that specifies a certain amino acid is called a ________, the same unit of mRNA is called a(n) ________ which, during protein synthesis, is matched by the ________ of tRNA. A) gene; triplet; amino acid B) nucleotide; triplet; gene C) triplet; anticodon; codon D) triplet; codon; anticodon

50)

Answer: D 51) Where does transcription of DNA into RNA occur? A) Golgi apparatus C) mitochondrion

51) B) nucleus D) peroxisome

Answer: B 52) Place the following steps of protein synthesis in the correct order as they occur. 1. mRNA is produced in the nucleus. 2. Ribosome moves along mRNA. 3. DNA uncoils for transcription. 4. Polypeptide is produced. 5. tRNA brings amino acids to the ribosome. 6. mRNA moves to the ribosome. A) 2, 1, 5, 4, 3, 6 B) 3, 5, 1, 6, 2, 4 C) 3, 1, 6, 2, 5, 4 D) 2, 4, 6, 1, 3, 5 Answer: C

7

52)

53) A mutation has changed the sequence in a codon from UGG to UGA. Using the codon chart provided in this figure, determine the change in the amino acid sequence.

A) from tryptophan to stop C) from start to stop

53)

B) from glycine to glutamine D) from threonine to threonine

Answer: A 54) Transcribe mRNA from this strand of DNA. TACGGTAGT A) A T G C C A T C A C) U A G C C U A C U

54) B) A U G C C A U C A D) U T G C C U T G U

Answer: B 55) How many codons are present in the following strand of mRNA? UACGGUAGUAUG A) 4 B) 12 C) 3 Answer: A 8

55) D) 6

56) Before the mRNA transcribed from a gene can be used for translation into a protein, it must be: A) coated with phospholipids for transport out of the nucleus. B) folded into its proper three-dimensional configuration. C) modified to remove introns, exons spliced together, and transported into the cytosol. D) modified to remove exons, introns spliced together, and transported to a tRNA molecule.

56)

Answer: C 57) What is the role of RNA polymerase in transcription? A) RNA polymerase binds the DNA promoter and builds an mRNA molecule. B) RNA polymerase catalyzes the unwinding of the DNA double helix. C) RNA polymerase carries the code for the amino acid in a sequence of nucleotides. D) RNA polymerase signals the end of the mRNA molecule.

57)

Answer: A 58) What are the two steps of protein synthesis that produce a protein from a gene? A) transcription and translation B) replication and transcription C) mitosis and cytokinesis D) replication and translation

58)

Answer: A 59) Tetracycline is an antibiotic used to treat infections. It binds with bacterial ribosomes and inhibits the tRNA molecule from binding to the ribosome. What process is interrupted? A) transcription B) mitosis C) translation D) replication

59)

Answer: C 60) Provide the tRNA anticodon that is complementary to this mRNA codon: UAC. A) TUG B) AUG C) ATG D) TAG

60)

Answer: B 61) The tRNA molecule binds a start codon of the mRNA molecule during: A) termination. B) initiation. C) transcription.

61) D) elongation.

Answer: B 62) Elongation of the polypeptide continues as long as a new tRNA molecule situates in the: A) E site of the ribosome. B) P site of the ribosome. C) A site of the ribosome. D) M site of the ribosome.

62)

Answer: C 63) The stage of the cell cycle in which the cell grows and prepares for cell division is called: A) mitosis. B) cytokinesis. C) interphase. D) metaphase.

63)

Answer: C 64) Cells that stall in a state of the cell cycle known as G0 are said to be: A) nondividing cells. B) dead cells. C) rapidly dividing cells. D) cancerous cells.

64)

Answer: A 65) Cell division occurs during: A) S phase. B) M phase.

65) C) G1 phase.

Answer: B

9

D) G2 phase.

66) What occurs during the period of interphase known as the S phase? A) Proteins, organelles, and cytosol are divided between the daughter cells. B) DNA replication (synthesis) takes place. C) Genetic material is divided between the daughter cells. D) The cell is rapidly synthesizing proteins.

66)

Answer: B 67) What is the role of DNA helicase during the S phase of interphase? A) DNA helicase builds RNA primers on the existing DNA strands. B) DNA helicase removes the RNA primer and replaces it with DNA. C) DNA helicase catalyzes the addition of nucleotides to the new DNA strands. D) DNA helicase unwinds the two strands of DNA.

67)

Answer: D 68) What is the correct order of the phases in the M phase of the cell cycle? A) metaphase, prophase, anaphase, telophase B) prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase C) prophase, anaphase, metaphase, telophase D) anaphase, telophase, prophase, metaphase

68)

Answer: B 69) If a chemotherapy drug prevents the mitotic spindle from forming during the M phase of the cell cycle, then what specific phase has been disrupted? A) metaphase B) prophase C) telophase D) anaphase

69)

Answer: B 70) The completion of cytokinesis accompanies: A) telophase. B) metaphase.

70) C) prophase.

D) anaphase.

Answer: A 71) If a cell has 18 chromosomes and undergoes mitosis, how many chromosomes would each daughter cell have? A) 36 B) 18 C) 72 D) 9

71)

Answer: B 72) What process divides the cytosol, organelles, and proteins? A) mitosis B) prophase C) synthesis

72) D) cytokinesis

Answer: D 73) During which phase of mitosis are sister chromatids separated when the mitotic spindle fibers shorten? A) anaphase B) metaphase C) telophase D) prophase

73)

Answer: A 74) Programmed cell death is called: A) neoplasia. B) hydrolysis.

74) C) apoptosis.

Answer: C

10

D) metastasis.

75) Cancer cells: A) have a slower mitotic rate than normal body cells. B) do not spread into other body tissues. C) are indistinguishable from normal body cells. D) may exhibit metastasis.

75)

Answer: D ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.

76) Discuss the components of the cytoplasm. Answer: The cytoplasm includes the intracellular fluid component known also as cytosol, the organelles, and the cytoskeleton. The cytosol, or intracellular fluid, is the fluid portion of the cytoplasm. Organelles are like molecular machines that perform specific functions within the cell. The cytoskeleton consists of a network of protein filaments that support the cell, help create and maintain its shape, and hold the organelles in place. 77) Describe the fluid mosaic model of the plasma membrane. Answer: The fluid mosaic model defines the plasma membrane as a dynamic structure of multiple components. The plasma membrane contains many components in addition to the phospholipid bilayer. Proteins, other lipids, and carbohydrates are scattered throughout the phospholipid bilayer. These components are reminiscent of a mosaic made of many small pieces. The current membrane model reflects the dynamic state in which the structure of the plasma membrane changes from moment to moment. Phospholipids and other membrane components shift and move rapidly to provide fluidity. These components are critical to membrane function. 78) Differentiate between integral proteins and peripheral proteins found associated with the plasma membrane. Answer: Integral proteins typically span the entire width of the membrane. When they do reach both sides of the membrane they are known as transmembrane proteins. Peripheral proteins are found only on one side of the membrane. They are loosely bound to the membrane surface or to integral proteins, and can move horizontally along the membrane surface. 79) Predict water movement across a membrane by osmosis when a concentration gradient is present. Answer: Water moves from a solution with a lower solute concentration (and more water molecules) across a membrane to a solution with a higher solute concentration (and fewer water molecules). The net movement of water m...