Constitutional Law-II MCQ-BSL-IV PDF

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Name of the Examination – Summer Examination – 2020 Name of Subject –Indian Constitutional Law II Class – B.S IV(1) The Union List consists of (a) 97 subjects (b) 61 subjects (c) 47 subjects (d) 73 subjects 2) Keshavananda Bharati case is associated with (a) Fundamental Rights (b) Directive Principl...

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Name of the Examination – Summer Examination – 2020 Name of Subject –Indian Constitutional Law II Class – B.S.L IV

(1) The Union List consists of (a) 97 subjects (b) 61 subjects (c) 47 subjects (d) 73 subjects 2) Keshavananda Bharati case is associated with (a) Fundamental Rights (b) Directive Principles of State Policy (c) State right (d) Armed rebellion 3) The members of the Council of states in India are elected for a period of (a) 4 years (b) 5 years (c) 6 years (d) life term 4) The President can’t------- Lok Sabha (a) Dissolve (b) adjourn (c) prorogue (d) summon 5) The duration of an ordinance issued by the President of India is (a) 6weeks (b) 1 year (c) 6 months (d) 6 weeks from the date of assembly of the Parliament 6) Who promulgates ordinance in states (a) Governor (b) Chief Minister (c) President (d) Chief Justice 7) Who presides over the joint sitting of the Parliament? (a) President (b) Vice President (c) Speaker (d) Chief Justice 8) The amending power of the Constitution of India is described in Article (a) 352 (b) 368 (c) 360 (d) 395 9) The ex-officio chairman of the Council of States is

(a) Speaker (b) Vice President (c) Deputy Speaker (d) Deputy Chairman 10) In India the Council of State is responsible to (a) The people (b) the state (c) local government (d) None of these 11) The number of the Anglo Indians nominated to the House of People is (a) 4 (b) 3 (c) 2 (d) 1 12) The number of nominated members to the Council of States is (a) 18 (b) 12 (c) 20 (d) 16 13) How many methods are there to amend the Constitution of India? (a) 5 (b) 4 (c) 3 (d) 2 14) Article 352 of the Indian Constitution deal with (a) centre-state relations (b) Supreme Court (c) state emergency (d) national emergency 15) Article 32 stands suspended during an emergency under Article (a) 352 (b) 356 (c) 360 (d) 362 16) Which article of the constitution of India empower the President to take over the administration of a state on the basis of failure of constitutional machinery (a) 365 (b) 352 (c) 356 (d) 360 17) In India the power of ‘amnesty’ has been given to the (a) President (b) Prime Minister (c) Chief of the army (d) Parliament 18) The President’s rule in a state can be continued at a stretch for a maximum period of

(a) 4years (b) 2years (c) 3 years (d) one year 19) The Council of State in India has how many elected members (a) 250 (b) 238 (c) 245 (d) 230 20) 42ndamendment Act was adopted by the Parliament in (a) 1967 (b) 1968 (c) 1976 (d) 1977 21) The supreme commander of the armed forces in India is (a) President (b) Prime Minister (c) Defence Minister (d) None of these 22) What is the maximum gap permissible between two sessions of the Parliament? (a)3 months (b) 4 months (c) 6 months (d) 12 months 23): The power of president to grant pardon is an independent power distinct from judicial power. It is not judiciable on its merit. Only the area and scope of president’s power under article 72 can be examined by the court” was observed by the Supreme Court in(a) State of Punjab v. Joginder Singh (b) Kehar Singh v. Union of India (c) Maru Ram v. Uion of India (d) all of the above 24) The President of India is elected by (a) Elected members of both Houses of Parliament (b) Members of both Houses of Parliament (c) Elected members of both Houses of Parliament and state legislative assemblies (d) Elected members of both Houses of Parliament and both Houses of the state legislatures 25) Council of States in India can delay a money bill for (a) indefinite period (b) 6 months (c) 1 month (d) 14 days 26) Public Accounts Committee has members from (a) House of the People (b) Council of states only (c) State legislatures (d) Both Houses of Parliament

27) The members of the Council of Ministers are collectively responsible to (a) Judiciary (b) House of the People (c) Council of States (d) The President 28) The term ‘federal’ is derived from the Latin word ‘foedus’ which means (a) Separation (b) Distribution (c) Covenant (d) None of these 29) Which commission has examined the centre- state relations? (a) Sarkaria Commission (b) Sri Krishna Commission (c) Rajamannar Commission (d) Kher Commission 30) In the Indian federal system, residuary powers rest with the (a) Local government (b) State (c) Judiciary (d) Centre 31) Which Article of the Constitution of India provides for co-operation between states? (a) Article 32 (b) Article 360 (c) Article 14 (d) Article 263 32)Madan Mohan Punchi commission was appointed to study (a) Centre-state relations (b) State reorganization (c) Panchayat Raj (d) delimitation of constituencies 33)India is a Republic in the sense that (a) it has an elected Head of the state (b) it has an elected Head of the Government (c) it has a bi-cameral legislature (d) it has sovereign power 34)The Indian federal system can be transformed into a unitary system under (a) Article 368 (b) Article 356 (c) Article 360 (d) Article 352 35)President’s powers in relation to Emergency are provided in (a) Article 352 (b) Article 385 (c) Article 340 (d) None of these 36)The authority to alter the boundaries of state in India rests with

(a) State government (b) Parliament (c) Prime Minister (d) President 37) The High Courts in India do not possess (a) Original jurisdiction (b) Appellate jurisdiction (c) Advisory jurisdiction (d) Revisory jurisdiction 38) Provisions under 9th schedule (a) Can be challenged in a court of law (b) Can’t be challenged in a court of law (c) Can seek opinion in a court of law (d)None of these 39)Under which article of the Constitution the Supreme Court of India has been established (a) 24 (b) 124 (c) 224 (d) 231 40) The High Court has the power to issue writ under article (a) 32 (b) 220 (c) 226 (d) 344 41) The power of the Supreme Court can be enlarged by (a) Cabinet (b) Parliament (c) President (d) Chief Justice 42) Judge of the Supreme Court can be removed from offices by (a) Executive order (b) Impeachment (c) Judicial order (d) Bureaucracy 43) Which article of the Constitution of India deals with the Advisory jurisdiction of the Supreme Court? (a) Article 74 (b) Article 142 (c) Article 143 (d) Article 147 44) Subjects in the -------- schedule is beyond the scope of Judicial Review (a) 8th (b) 9th (c) 12th (d) 3rd

45) The Union Legislature in India is empowered (a) Not to amend the basic structure of the Constitution (b) to amend the basic structure of the Constitution (c) To abrogate the basic structure (d) None of these 46) Original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court is contained in (a) Article 131 (b) Article 129 (c) Article 132 (d) Article 136 47: The power of the President to consult the Supreme Court is under Article (a) 132 (b) 143 (C) 136 (d) 131 48) The Question as to the constitution amending power of the parliament came before Supreme Court for the first time in (a) Shankari Prasad v. Union of India (1951) (b) Golakh Nath v. State of Punjab (1967) (C) Indira Nehru Gandhi v. Raj Narayan (1975) (d) None of these 49) The term of president expires (a) till the life time (b) Four years from the date of his entering to the office (C) Five years from the date of declaring the results (d) five years from the date of entering to the office 50) Which are the grounds for proclamation of Emergency? (a) War (b) External aggression (c) Armed Rebellion (d) All the above 51) Financial Emergency is dealt with under Article (a) 352 (b) 360 (c) 356 (d) None of these 52) Ground(s) for the declaration of financial emergency include(a) Threat to the financial stability of India (b) Threat to the Credit of India (c) Threat to the financial stability / credit of any part of the territory of India (d) all the above 53) Article 80 deals with (a) Composition of Lok Sebha (b) Composition of Rajya Sebha (c) Composition of State Legislative Assembly (d) Composition of State Legislative Council

54) Executive power of the State is vested with (a) People of the State (b) Chief Minister of the State (c) Governor of the State (d) State Legislature 55) The Governor holds office (a) For a period of five years (b) For a period of four years (c) Till the pleasure of the President (d) During the pleasure of the president, and if not recalled earlier, for the period of five years, but continues in his office thereafter till his successor takes over 56) Once the proclamation of Emergency is made, the right of the citizen to move Supreme Court for the enforcement of his fundamental rights is suspended by (a) The Prime Minister of India (b) The President of India (c) The Chief Justice of the Supreme Court (d) The Speaker 57) The powers of the President are (a) Beyond the Constitution (b) In accordance with the Constitution (c) In accordance with the parliament only (d) Supra-Constitutional 58) After a Bill has been passed by the Parliament and sent to the President (a) He can refuse to sign it (b) He has to sign it (c) He can change certain clauses of the Bill (d) He can send it back for consideration 59) The Salary & allowances of the Governor are charged to (a) Consolidated fund of the State (b) Consolidated fund of India (c) Contingency Fund of India (d) from (a) & (b) in equal proportion 60) Members of Lok Sebha are elected by way of (a) People’s representation (b) By the State Legislature (c) Nominations (d) Through Electoral colleges 61) Representation of Lok Sebha is based on (a) Area of the State (b) Population (c) Community (d) Literacy rate 62) A Member of Parliament can claim immunity (a) Both from civil as well as criminal cases (b) From civil cases only (c) From criminal cases only

(d) Cannot claim immunity either from civil or criminal cases 63) Prorogation of the House means (a) The house has been brought into session (b) The house itself stands terminated (c) The session of the house has been terminated (d) None of these 64) The constitution of India provides special procedure for (a) Money Bill (b) Finance Bill (c) Both Money Bill & Finance Bill (d) None of the above 65) The Attorney General of India holds office during the pleasure of (a) The Chief Justice of India (b) The Prime Minister (c) The President of India (d) The Parliament 66) In the event of the resignation or death of Prime Minister (a) The ministry is dissolved (b) Fresh elections must be held (c) The cabinet may choose another leader (d) President’s decision 67) Rajya Sebha has the exclusive authority to (a) Impeach the Vice-President (b) Intimate impeachment proceedings against the Chief Election Commissioner (c) Recommend the creation of new All India Services (d) all off the above 68) A Law made by Parliament having extra-territorial operation shall (a) not be deemed invalid (b) be deemed invalid (c) be deemed ultra-vires (d) be deemed unconstitutional 69) Articles 155-159 of the Indian constitution deal with (a) Inter-state commerce commission (b) Election commission (c) Legislative councils (d) President’s power to appoint and dismiss Governor 70) The Speaker of Lok Sebha has to address his letter of resignation to the (a) Prime Minister b) Deputy Speaker of Lok Sebha (c) President of India (d) Vice-President of India 71) To adjudicate on any dispute relating to any inter-state riversor inter-state valley (a) Only the Supreme Court is empowered under Article 131 (b) High Court of concerned State enjoys concurrent jurisdiction (c) President of India only has the power to decide

(d) The parliament is empowered to establish Tribunal and to that extent the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court may be extended 72) The Supreme Court of India is (a) a Court of Record and has power to punish for its contempt (b) the only highest court of appeal (c) like House of Lords on its judicial side (d) in all respect like the Supreme Court of the USA 73) The judges of the Supreme Court are appointed (a) by the President (b) by the President in consultation with the Chief Justice of India (c) by the President in consultation with the Prime Minister (d) by the President in consultation with the Chief Justice of India and out of the judges of Supreme Court and High Court as he may deem necessary for the purpose 74) The minimum number of judges to sit on a Constitution Bench or on a Bench which gives its advisory opinion on the reference by the President must be (a) One half of the total strength of the Supreme Court (b) Seven (c) Three (d) One Third of the total strength of the Court 75) Supreme Court has original jurisdiction (a) In all inter-state or Union-State disputes (b) In all disputes relating to international relations (c) In disputes to which India and foreign States are parties (d) In conflict between two foreign States 76) It is inappropriate for petitioner in Public Interest Litigation to (a) Write to any single judge of the Supreme Court (b) Act pro bono publico (c) Withdraw proceedings as of right and further too claim that they shall not be continued (d) Ask for the direction of a new legislation 77) A retired judge of High Court cannot (a) Practice in the Supreme Court (b) Practice in any High Court in India (c) Practice in the High Court from which he has retired (d) None of the above 78)The jurisdiction of Supreme Court of India may be enlarged by (a) Parliament by Law (b) Parliament by Resolution (c) The President (d) The President in Consultation with the Chief Justice of India 79) Which Article lays down thatthe laws declared by the Supreme Court would be binding on the courts in India? (a) Article 131 (b) Article 141 (c) Article 143 (d) Article 142 80) Supreme Court struck down a part of the Preventive Detention Act in the

(a) Gopalan Case (b) Golakhnath Case (c) Ramesh Thappar Case (d) Kochunni Case 81) The Structure of Indian Constitution is (a) Federal in form and unitary in spirit (b) Unitary (c) Unitary in form and Federal in spirit (d) Purely Federal 82) The most important feature of a federation is (a) Separation of powers (b) Division of powers (c) Judicial Review (d) Union of States 83) Which Articles of the Indian Constitution discuss the financial relations between the Centre and the Sates? (a) Articles 268-281 (b) Articles 278-291 (c) Articles 289-295 (d) Articles 168-171 84) The Concurrent List contains (a) 47 subjects (b) 68 subjects (c) 42 subjects (d) 38 subjects 85) The Union of India has power (a) to issue administrative directions to the States (b) to delegate administrative functions to the States (c) both (a) and (b) (d) none of the above 86) Emergency can be proclaimed (a) only in whole of the country (b) only in that part of the country where aggression has taken place (c) in any part of the country (d) in the entire country or any part of the territory of India 87) The President can issue the proclamation of Emergency (a) On the advice of Prime Minister (b) On the advice of Council of Ministers (c) in his own decisions (d) When the decision of Union Cabinet for the issuance of such proclamation has been communicated to him in writing 88) The words ‘Socialism’ and ‘Secularism’ were inserted by the (a) 15th Amendment (b) 39th Amendment (c) 42nd Amendment (d) 44th Amendment

89) In which case Supreme Court held that an Amendment of the Constitution under Article 368 was ‘law within the meaning of Article 13’? (a) Golakhnath v. State of Punjab (b) Sajjan Singh v. State of Rajasthan (c) Sankari Prasad v. Union of India (d) Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala 90) Which of the following case was the reason behind the Parliament passing the 24th Amendment of Constitution Act, 1971? (a) Sajjan Singh v. State of Rajasthan (b) Golakhnath v. State of Punjab (c) Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala (d) Minerva Mills v. Union of India 91) First constitutional amendment was challenged in the case of (a) Sankari Prasad v. Union of India (b) Sajjan Singh v. State of Rajasthan (c) A. K. Gopalan v. State of Madras (d) Golakhnath v. State of Punjab 92) A Bill to amend the Constitution may be initiated in (a) Rajya Sebha (b) Lok Sebha (c) Either in Rajya Sebha or Lok Sebha (d) None of the above 93) In Indira Nehru Gandhi v. Raj Narayan, the SC held the amendment unconstitutional oon the ground that (a) the constitution cannot be amended by the Parliament when several of its members are in preventive detention (b) it is violative of free and fair election which is the essential postulate of democracy and which in turn is part of the basic structure of the constitution (c) the constitution cannot be amended when emergency is in vogue (d) amendment is the negation of right to equality 94) In case of conflict between fundamental rights of citizen and privileges of parliament, (a) Parliamentary privilege will have supremacy (b) Fundamental rights will prevail (c) some of the fundamental rights are sacrosanct over which privileges will not prevail (d) generally Parliamentary privileges will prevail. But, parliament while acting against the fundamental rights of the citizens, should not violate due process of law. 95) Which of the following is incorrect (a) Newspapers can publish parliamentary proceedings (b) Newspapers can publish any part of the proceedings with the permission of the Speaker. (c) Newspapers have also the freedom to publish expunged portions of the speech of an MP (d) Parliament has freedom to publish its proceedings 96) Vidhan Sebha has a term of (a) Five years (b) Four years (c) Five Years unless dissolved earlier (d)Two Years unless dissolved earlier

97) Which of the following is continuing body? (a) Lok Sebha (b) Legislative Assembly (c) Legislative Council (d) None of the above 98) Who is considered as the Custodian of Lok Sebha? (a) Prime Minister (b) Leader of Opposition (c) Chief Whip of the ruling party (d) the Speaker 99) Decisions of the disqualification of member of Lok Sebha are taken by (a) Speaker (b) Prime Minister (c) Minister for Parliamentary affairs (d) The parliamentary secretary 100) Provision to Financial Bill is provided under (a) Article 110 (b) Article 115 ( ) Article 117 (d) Article 119

Answer Keys 1: (a) 97 subjects 2: (a) Fundamental Rights 3: (c) 6 years 4: (b) adjourn 5: (d) 6 weeks from the date of assembly of the Parliament 6: (a) Governor 7: (c) Speaker 8: (b) 368 9: (b) Vice President 10: (b) the state 11: (c) 2 12: (b) 12 13: (c) 3 14: (d) national emergency 15: (a) 352 16: (c) 356 17: (a) President 18: (d) one year 19: (b) 238 20: (c) 1976 21: (a) President 22: (c) 6 months

23: (d) all of the above 24: (c) Elected members of both Houses of Parliament and state legislative assemblies 25: (d) 14 days 26: (d) Both Houses of Parliament 27: (b) House of the People 28: (c) Covenant 29: (a) Sarkaria Commission 30: (d) Centre 31: (d) Article 263 32: (a) Centre-state relations 33: (a) it has an elected Head of the state 34: (d) Article 352 35: (a) Article 352 36: (b) Parliament 37: (c) Advisory jurisdiction 38: (b) Can’t be challenged in a court of law 39: (b) 124 40: (c) 226 41: (b) Parliament 42: (b) Impeachment 43: (c) Article 143 44) (b) 9th 45) (a) Not to amend the basic structure of the Constitution 46) (a) Article 131 47: (b) 143 48: (a) Shankari Prasad v. Union of India (1951) 49: (d) five years from the date of entering to the office 50) (d) All the above 51: (b) 360 52: (d) all the above 53: (b) Composition of Rajya Sebha 54: (c) Governor of the State 55: (d) During the pleasure of the president, and if not recalled earlier, for the period of five years, but continues in his office thereafter till his successor takes over 56: (b) the President of India 57: (b) In accordance with the Constitution 58: (d) He can send it back for consideration 59: (a) Consolidated fund of the State 60: (a) People’s representation 61: (b) Population 62: (b) From civil cases only 63: (c) The session of the house has been terminated 64: (a) Money Bill 65: (c) The President of India 66) (a) The ministry is dissolved 67: (c) Recommend the creation of new All India Services

68: (a) not be deemed invalid 69: (d) President’s power to appoint and dismiss Governor 70: (b) Deputy Speaker of Lok Sebha 71: (d) The parliament is empowered to establish Tribunal and to that extent the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court may be extended 72: (a) a Court of Record and has power to punish for its contempt 73: (d) by the President in consultation with the Chief Justice of India and out of the judges of Supreme Cou...