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School of Anatomy & Human Biology SEMESTER 1, 2011 EXAMINATIONS

ANHB1101 Human Biology I

FAMILY NAME: _________________________

STUDENT ID:

GIVEN NAMES: ___________________

SIGNATURE: _________________

This Paper Contains: 16 pages (including title page) Section A pages 1 – 9 Section B pages 10 - 16 Time allowed: 2 hours 10 minutes INSTRUCTIONS: 1. Check that you have THREE items. (a) This question paper - Section A questions. (b) A short answer question paper - Section B questions & answers. (c) A sheet for MCQ answers. 2. Write your personal details on ALL of the 3 items. 3. ALL the items listed above must be handed in at the end of the examination. 4. This exam is in two sections. A. 40 Multiple choice questions (MCQ). About 50 minutes. Answer ALL questions. B. 6 Short Answer questions. About 70 minutes. These are in a separate book. Answer ALL questions. 5. Carefully read the instructions at the beginning of each section. 6. This paper contributes 40% to your semester grade.

PLEASE NOTE Examination candidates may only bring authorised materials into the examination room. If a supervisor finds, during the examination, that you have unauthorised material, in whatever form, in the vicinity of your desk or on your person, whether in the examination room or the toilets or en route to/from the toilets, the matter will be reported to the Head of School and disciplinary action will normally be taken against you. This action may result in your being deprived of any credit for this examination or even, in some cases, for the whole unit. This will apply regardless of whether the material has been used at the time it is found. Therefore, any candidate who has brought any unauthorised material whatsoever into the examination room should declare it to the supervisor immediately. Candidates who are uncertain whether any material is authorised should ask the supervisor for clarification. Supervisors Only - Student left at:

Semester 1 2011 Examinations

Page 2

Human Biology I

SECTION A

INSTRUCTIONS 1. Only use a soft lead pencil to write on the answer sheet. Make corrections with an eraser. Do not use white-out or other correcting fluids. 2.

Write your name and student number on the answer sheet.

3.

Blank out the appropriate digits in the student name and number columns.

4.

Answer ALL questions in this section.

5.

Make sure that you start at Question 1.

6.

This section contributes 40% to the total value of this exam.

40 Multiple Choice Questions ~50 minutes 1.

Which of the following statements about anatomical terminology is CORRECT? A B C D E

2.

Which statement about the lower limb is CORRECT? A B C D E

3.

A mid-sagittal plane divides the body into roughly equal anterior and posterior halves. A coronal plane runs parallel to the ground. The heart is proximal to the lungs. The head is superficial to the neck. The palmar surface of the hand faces anteriorly.

The dorsal surface of the limb contains nails. The palmar surface of the foot is on the ground. Movements possible at the knee include abduction and adduction. The ventral surface of the limb faces anteriorly. The bones of the leg include the femur, tibia and fibula.

Which of the following characteristics is used to distinguish subtypes of epithelial tissue? A B C D E

Location in the body. Number of cell to cell junctions. Shape of cells. Number of mitochondria. How long cells live.

Semester 1 2011 Examinations

4.

Desmosome. Tight junction. Gap junction. Nuclear junction. Ion channel.

Cell dimensions are usually measured in: A B C D E

9.

dense irregular tissue. reticular connective tissue. muscle tissue. dense regular connective tissue. epithelial tissue.

The type of intercellular junction that functions as a ‘spot weld’ to provide attachment strength between cells is a: A B C D E

8.

each expresses a different subset of genes. each has different genes. each has different chromosomes. bone cells secrete bone matrix and muscle cells do not. muscle cells have contractile proteins and bone cells do not.

Tendons and ligaments are composed primarily of: A B C D E

7.

Skeletal muscle is usually attached to bones. Cardiac muscle cells have multiple peripheral nuclei. Smooth muscle cells are fusiform shaped. A and C are correct. All are correct.

Bone cells and muscle cells differ in structure and function because: A B C D E

6.

Human Biology I

Which statement about muscle tissue is CORRECT? A B C D E

5.

Page 3

Centimetres. Micrometres. Nanometres. Mililitres. Osmolitres.

The major components of the cell membrane are: A B C D E

Lipids and carbohydrates. Proteins and carbohydrates. Lipids and proteins. Carbohydrates and polysaccharides. Proteins and peptides.

Semester 1 2011 Examinations

Page 4

Human Biology I

10. Which of the following describes a lysosome? A B C D E

A double-membraned organelle that is the "powerhouse" of the cell. A complex network of interconnected membranes that is a communication system in the cell. A tiny, membranous sac that contains enzymes that degrade worn cell parts and debris. A nonmembranous structure that is essential for mitosis. A bilayer of lipid in which proteins are embedded.

11. The organelle where energy is captured and stored in the chemical bonds of ATP is a: A B C D E

Ribosome. Mitochondrion. Peroxisome. Golgi apparatus. Nucleus.

12. Which of the following transport mechanisms does NOT involve membrane fusion at the cell surface? A B C D E

Pinocytosis. Endocytosis. Active transport. Receptor mediated endocytosis. Exocytosis.

13. Centromeres of replicated chromosomes separate during mitotic: A B C D E

Prophase. Metaphase. Anaphase. Telophase. Interphase.

14. Sperm travel through a series of ducts from their site of production to exit from the penis. Which list is in the CORRECT order? A B C D E

Seminal vesicles, efferent ducts, epididymis, vas deferens, rete testis, ejaculatory duct, urethra. Seminiferous tubule, rete testis, efferent ducts, epididymis, vas deferens, ejaculatory duct, urethra. Rete testis, ejaculatory duct, efferent ducts, seminiferous tubules, epididymis, vas deferens, urethra. Seminiferous tubule, ejaculatory duct, rete testis, epididymis, vas deferens, efferent ducts, urethra. Seminal vesicle, rete testis, epididymis, vas deferens, efferent ducts, ejaculatory duct, urethra.

Semester 1 2011 Examinations

Page 5

Human Biology I

15. Which statement about ovarian follicles is CORRECT? Ovarian follicles..... A B C D E

are formed at puberty. are found in the medulla of the ovary. secrete FSH. can be fertilized by a spermatozoa. synthesise estrogen.

16. Which statement about peptide hormones is CORRECT? Peptide hormones….. A B C D E

are comprised of one or more chains of amino acids. can pass through the phospholipid bi-layer of the cell to bind to nuclear receptors. are derived from cholesterol. include testosterone and progesterone. are lipid soluble.

17. Which statement about a combined testosterone and progestin method of male hormonal contraception is CORRECT? A B C D E

A combined testosterone/progestin method of male contraception is commercially available in Australia. A man becomes infertile within a few days of starting the method. Men’s fertility returns within a few days of stopping the method. Progestin inhibits testicular production of testosterone via negative feedback effects on pituitary secretion of LH and FSH. The primary mode of action of the combined method is to inhibit sperm transport through the epididymis and vas deferens.

18. Which statement about sperm transport in the female reproductive tract is CORRECT? A B C D E

Seminal fluid is acidic to protect the sperm from pathogens in the female tract. Progesterone increases the water content of cervical mucus facilitating sperm movement through the cervix into the uterus. Progesterone stimulates uterine contractions to direct sperm to the uterine tube on the side of the dominant follicle. Sperm are guided to the oocyte by chemical signals released from the surrounding cumulus oophorus (granulosa cells). Fertilization occurs in the female ovary.

19. Which statement about the timing of embryological events is CORRECT? A B C D E

The embryonic period is the first 12 weeks of development after which the conceptus is called a fetus. The product of fertilization is called a blastocyst. Neural tube formation starts in week 3 and continues in week 4. Folding occurs during the second week of embryological development. Implantation is completed by the end of the first week after fertilization.

Semester 1 2011 Examinations

Page 6

Human Biology I

20. Which statement about gastrulation is CORRECT? A B C D E

Ectoderm, mesoderm and endoderm all derive from epiblast cells. Gastrulation occurs during the second week of embryological development. The neural tube forms during gastrulation. Hypoblast cells migrate through the primitive streak during gastrulation. Only mesoderm is present at the cloacal and oral membranes.

21. Which statement about pregnancy is CORRECT? A B C D E

Placental secretion of progesterone maintains the corpus luteum. On average, a woman's weight increases by about 25kg during pregnancy. The placenta is the site where fetal and maternal blood mix to exchange nutrients. The majority of maternal weight gain during pregnancy is due to the increasing weight of the fetus. High levels of progesterone during pregnancy inhibit contractile activity of the uterus.

22. New contraceptive technology. Which of the following statements about an anti-GnRH vaccine is FALSE? A B C D E

Anti-GnRH would inhibit spermatogenesis in males. Anti-GnRH would cause elevated testosterone levels in men due to lack of negative feedback. Anti-GnRH would inhibit ovulation in females. Anti-GnRH would suppress LH and FSH in females. Anti-GnRH would suppress LH and FSH in males.

23. Which statement about infertility and infertility treatment is INCORRECT? A B C D E

Infertility affects about 1 in 6 couples. The probability of conceiving in any given month is about 25%. Assisted hatching is a technique in which the sperm is helped to penetrate the zona pellucida. The normal fertilization process can be bypassed with the ICSI technique. About 30% of infertility cases are due to problems with both male and female partners.

24. Evolution. One statement is INCORRECT: A B C D E

Evolution is always too slow to be seen within a human's lifetime. All life forms on Earth are linked in a single evolutionary tree, sharing a single common ancestor. Industrial melanism is an example of an organism reversing its evolutionary tendency. Evolution is descent with modification. Evolution is the unifying theme of the biological sciences.

Semester 1 2011 Examinations

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Human Biology I

25. Evolution. One statement is INCORRECT: A B C

D E

Charles Darwin's evidence for evolution by natural selection included geographic variation. Evolution has been so successful because the purpose of natural selection is to prepare organisms for unforeseen future events. The term 'theory' is used in science to refer to statements of general laws or principles that are widely accepted in the scientific community because predictions from them have been tested many times and found to hold. The scientific method for understanding how the world works depends upon the principle of 'falsification'. Species usually come about by a population being geographically separated into two distinct sub-populations and the subsequent accumulation of differences.

26. Evolution. One statement is CORRECT: A B C D E

All evolution is due to Natural Selection. The measure of reproductive success is termed fitness. The evolution of horses from a 4-toed form to a single hoof was not accompanied by changes in lifestyle. The bones of a penguin's wing and a parrot's wing are analogous structures. The continents move at the rate of a few centimeters each million years.

27. Evolution. One statement is CORRECT: A B C D E

Evolution always leads to increased complexity. Natural Selection causes individuals to evolve. Sexual selection can produce features that reduce fitness. Standard taxonomy divides all mammals into four subclasses, namely, marsupials, monotremes, placentals and humans. Phylogeny refers to evolutionary history.

28. Genetics. One statement is INCORRECT: A B C D E

Homologous chromosomes are pairs that are similar but not identical. Alleles segregate at meiosis. An autosomal gene has a 50% chance of being passed from a parent to an offspring. When the mode of inheritance is autosomal dominant, the proportion of the dominant phenotype in progeny from matings of two heterozygotes will be ½. A trait may be dominant even though an affected father has a normal child.

29. Genetics. One statement is CORRECT: A B C D E

Each nucleotide unit in DNA consists of sugar, phosphate and amino acid. Chromosomal DNA is a double helical molecule in which adenine pairs with uracil, and guanine pairs with cytosine. Messenger RNA is found only in the nucleus. The genetic code is said to be degenerate because it can't evolve. Translation requires transfer RNA.

Semester 1 2011 Examinations

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Human Biology I

30. Genetics. One statement is CORRECT: A B C D E

Inborn errors of metabolism are usually fatal. The symptoms associated with inborn errors of metabolism are always due to lack of product from the defective reaction. Inborn errors of metabolism are usually rare, but in a few years some will become common because of successful treatment. Down Syndrome is an example of an inborn error of metabolism. Scurvy is due to a defective gene.

31. Genetics. One statement is INCORRECT: A B C D E

Average exposure to radiation due to human activity (eg nuclear power stations, medical X-rays etc) is generally more than natural levels. Nonsense mutations produce a stop codon in mRNA. Many inborn errors of metabolism are due to frameshift mutations. Mutagens are agents which increase the frequency of mutation. Somatic mutations can cause cancer.

32. Genetics. One statement is INCORRECT: A B C D E

The structures which separate during anaphase of mitosis are sister chromatids. Meiosis occurs only in gonads. More advanced mammals have the greatest number of chromosomes. Trisomy 21 usually arises from nondisjunction in a parent. In live-born infants, aberrations of the sex chromosomes are more frequent than of the autosomes.

33. Genetics. One statement is INCORRECT: A B C D E

Blood group genes produce antibodies on the surface of red blood cells. Individuals who are 'B positive' will have antigen B, anti-A, and antigen D. The Rh locus is polymorphic in Caucasian populations. The current geographic patterns of genetic variation provide information on past migrations. HLA matching is important for success in kidney transplantation.

34. Genetics. One statement is CORRECT: A B C D E

Amniocentesis for prenatal diagnosis of genetic disease is usually performed at 6-8 weeks of pregnancy. Preparation of banded karyotypes obtained from cells from chorionic villi allows identification of Phenylketonuria (PKU). A primary aim of genetic counselling is to provide the family with the information to make an informed choice. Genetic polymorphisms are not very useful for identifying the source of forensic specimens. Only a very small fraction of human disease has a genetic basis.

Semester 1 2011 Examinations

Page 9

Human Biology I

35. Close similarity in form between a Platyrrhine monkey’s hand and the hand of a Homo sapiens would be due to: A B C D E

Vestigiality. Convergence. Genetic drift. Parallel evolution. Divergence.

36. The forward (rather than lateral) orientation of the anthropoid primate eye is most likely a result of natural selection on which of the following functions? A B C D E

Finding mates over long distances. Bipedal walking on the savannah. Moving quadrupedally through trees. Leaping from branch to branch through trees. Increased brain case volume with increased brain size.

37. Relatively large primate brains are associated with: A B C D E

Living in trees. Eating fruit. Living in large social groups. Both A and C. Both B and C.

38. The pelvis and scapula of the chimpanzee are most likely different from that of humans because: A B C D E

Chimpanzees are not the closest living relatives of humans. Humans are bipedal and chimps are quadrupedal. Humans are bipedal and chimpanzees are more like the common ancestor. Chimpanzees are more arboreal than humans. C and D.

39. Hominin dispersal out of Africa is associated with: A B C D E

more complex tool kits. a larger proportion of meat in the diet the controlled use of fire A and C are correct A, B and C are correct.

40. Australopithecine features include: A B C D E

habitual bipedalism. geographic location Africa and Europe. a central foramen magnum. a brain size over 1000 cc. Molars with thin enamel.

Semester 1 2011 Examinations

Page 10

Human Biology I

School of Anatomy & Human Biology SEMESTER 1, 2011 EXAMINATIONS

ANHB1101 Human Biology I SECTION B FAMILY NAME: _________________________

GIVEN NAMES: ___________________

STUDENT ID:

SIGNATURE: _________________

INSTRUCTIONS 1.

Write your personal details in the space above.

2.

Write your answers on this question paper in the appropriate places.

3. Write in blue or black pen, NOT pencil. 4

Answer ALL 6 questions in this section.

5

Page numbers in this section continue on from section A.

6. This section contributes 60% to the total value of this exam. Each question is of equal value.

For examiners use only 1

2

3

4

5

6

TOTAL / 60

Semester 1 2011 Examinations

Page 11

Human Biology I

QUESTION 1. Cells and tissues

i)

Identify structures labelled on the diagram

H E G C

(4 marks) ii)

Metabolically active cells making proteins typically have a large pale nucleus and a prominent nucleolus. Explain the reason for each of these features.

pale nucleus

prominent nucleolus (2 marks) In the same active cell, name three other organelles you would expect to find a lot of. Give reasons for your answers. 1. 2. 3 (3 marks) iii)

Which primary tissue has the characteristic of being actively mitotic? (1 mark)

Semester 1 2011 Examinations

Page 12

Human Biology I

QUESTION 2. Embryology i)

From which embryological germ layer are somites formed? Name the adult tissue structures...