Griggs Psychology Test Bank PDF

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Official test bank for Griggs Psychology Textbook...

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Name: __________________________ Date: _____________

1. Which statement about the DSM-5 is FALSE? A) The DSM-5 provides diagnostic guidelines for approximately 400 disorders. B) A DSM-5 classification is required by insurance companies before they will pay for therapy. C) The DSM-5 clusters disorders into major categories. D) Compared with previous editions, the number of disorders in the DSM-5 has been reduced.

2. Which statement about labels for mental disorders is TRUE? A) People tend to ignore the labels when interpreting behavior. B) People tend to interpret a person's behavior in relation to the label, and labels are unnecessary for proper treatment of mental disorders. C) Labels do not impact the interpretation of behavior, and labels are needed to determine the proper treatment for mental disorders. D) People tend to interpret a person's behavior in relation to the label, and labels are needed to determine the proper treatment for mental disorders.

3. A biopsychosocial approach to specific phobic disorders would suggest that a _____ factor is involved in the learning of the fear and a _____ factor determines which fears are easier to learn. A) biological; biological B) biological; psychological C) psychological; biological D) psychological; psychological

4. Generalized anxiety disorder differs from a specific phobia because, in generalized anxiety disorder, the anxiety is: A) more global. B) more intense. C) less global. D) less intense.

5. For schizophrenia, concordance rates for identical twins are about _____ percent, and concordance rates for fraternal twins are about _____ percent. A) 50; 70 B) 50; 17 C) 70; 50 D) 70; 17

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6. In schizophrenia, there is a split between _____. In dissociative identity disorder, there is a split between _____. A) fear and attraction; love and hate B) love and hate; fear and attraction C) mental functions and reality; two or more personalities D) two or more personalities; mental functions and reality

7. Which type of treatment does NOT belong with the others? A) drugs B) electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) C) psychotherapy D) psychosurgery

8. Neurogenesis may be impacted by the antidepressant drugs used in _____ therapy and the positive thinking emphasized in _____ therapy. A) biomedical; cognitive B) biomedical; behavioral C) humanistic; psychoanalysis D) humanistic; cognitive

9. _____ are to _____ as fingerprints and DNA are to detectives. A) Psychosurgery and shock therapy; biomedical therapies B) Resistance and transferences; psychoanalysts C) Antidepressant drugs; serotonin and norepinephrine D) Hallucinations and delusions; bipolar disorder

10. Behavioral therapies most directly focus on changing a client's _____, while cognitive therapies most directly focus on changing a client's _____. A) actions; emotions B) emotions; thinking C) actions; thinking D) thinking; emotions

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11. Which statement is NOT a reason that a control for spontaneous remission must be included in assessments of the effectiveness of psychotherapy? A) People can get better without therapy. B) Without a control, researchers may incorrectly assume that improvement was due to therapy. C) With a control, researchers can assess if improvement was significantly greater for treated people. D) Without a control for spontaneous remission, we could not compare the effectiveness of two different forms of psychotherapy.

12. Jeremy is a street performer who tries to make a living doing odd street stunts. However, although he really enjoys doing this, he is failing to make a living because others don't find his stunts entertaining. Jeremy would _____ the criteria for a mental disorder because _____. A) meet; his behavior is maladaptive B) meet; his behavior is atypical C) not meet; no one is distressed by the behavior D) not meet; his behavior is not atypical

13. _____ is the fear of being in places or situations from which escape may be difficult or embarrassing. A) A specific phobia B) Agoraphobia C) Social phobia D) Panic disorder

14. _____ is a disorder in which the person has excessive, global anxiety and worry that cannot be controlled for a period of at least six months. A) Agoraphobia B) Social phobia C) Generalized anxiety disorder D) Panic disorder

15. Which disorder is classified as an obsessive-compulsive related disorder? A) panic disorder B) trichotillomania C) agoraphobia D) social anxiety disorder

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16. Which disorder has the HIGHEST concordance rate? A) bipolar disorder for identical twins B) schizophrenia for identical twins C) major depressive disorder for fraternal twins D) major depressive disorder for identical twins

17. Which disorder is a psychotic disorder? A) obsessive-compulsive disorder B) major depressive disorder C) schizophrenia D) antisocial personality disorder

18. A false sensory perception is a(n) _____, and a false belief is a(n) _____. A) obsession; compulsion B) compulsion; obsession C) hallucination; delusion D) delusion; hallucination

19. Which example BEST provides a biopsychosocial explanation of a mental disorder? A) the ABC model B) the vulnerability–stress model C) counterconditioning D) meta-analysis

20. Which is/are MOST often used to treat bipolar disorder? A) SSRIs B) lithium C) atypical antipsychotic drugs D) MAO inhibitors

21. Tardive dyskinesia is a side effect of long-term use of: A) SSRIs. B) traditional antipsychotic drugs. C) lithium. D) tricyclics.

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22. A _____ therapist interprets resistances and transferences to discover a person's underlying problems. A) psychoanalytic B) client-centered C) behavioral D) cognitive

23. Unconditional positive regard and empathy are to resistance and transference as _____ is to _____. A) rational-emotive therapy; Beck's cognitive therapy B) Beck's cognitive therapy; rational-emotive therapy C) psychoanalysis; client-centered therapy D) client-centered therapy; psychoanalysis

24. Maladaptive behavior is to maladaptive thinking as _____ is to _____. A) psychoanalysis; client-centered therapy B) client-centered therapy; psychoanalysis C) behavioral therapy; cognitive therapy D) cognitive therapy; behavioral therapy

25. Which factor is a part of rational-emotive therapy? A) ABC model B) token economy C) free association D) flooding

26. Which psychotherapy is MOST effective in treating phobic disorders? A) psychoanalysis B) cognitive therapy C) behavioral therapy D) client-centered therapy

27. For a behavior or pattern of thinking to be indicative of a mental disorder, which characteristics must be included? A) It is atypical and maladaptive. B) It is maladaptive and irrational. C) It is maladaptive, irrational, and disturbing to self or others. D) It is atypical, maladaptive, irrational, and disturbing to self or others.

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28. Which statement about the DSM-5 is TRUE? A) The DSM-5 lists fewer disorders than previous editions. B) The DSM-5 is much shorter than previous editions. C) Clinicians using the DSM-5 should be able to make more reliable classifications compared with using previous editions. D) The DSM-5 no longer includes diagnostic guidelines for disorders.

29. Rosenhan's study of labeling has been used to support the conclusion that diagnostic labels _____ behavior. However, critics argue that the near universal discharge diagnosis of “schizophrenia in remission” demonstrates that, once pseudopatients were admitted. the staff _____ of psychotic symptoms. A) caused staff to misinterpret normal; recognized the absence B) caused staff to misinterpret normal; failed to recognize the presence C) help staff correctly identify disordered; recognized the absence D) help staff correctly identify disordered; failed to recognize the presence

30. Which disorder is an anxiety disorder? A) bipolar disorder B) trichotillomania C) obsessive-compulsive disorder D) agoraphobia

31. Panic disorder is often accompanied by: A) agoraphobia. B) obsessive-compulsive disorder. C) bipolar disorder. D) major depressive disorder.

32. Jean washes her hands excessively to the point that her hands are raw because she fears contamination from germs. Her excessive hand washing is a(n) _____, and her persistent and intrusive fear of germs is a(n) _____. A) compulsion; compulsion B) compulsion; obsession C) obsession; compulsion D) obsession; obsession

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33. Those people who have a major depressive disorder often perceive their situation as: A) situation specific. B) being caused externally. C) temporary. D) being their own fault.

34. Hallucinations and delusions are considered _____ symptoms of schizophrenia. A) positive B) catatonic C) disorganized D) negative

35. Which statement about schizophrenia is FALSE? A) Research has found that people are at increased risk for schizophrenia if there was a flu epidemic during the middle of their fetal development. B) The deviant C4 gene associated with schizophrenia seems to fail to prune enough synaptic connections, leading to disorganized thought. C) There are more than 100 gene variants that have been associated with schizophrenia. D) For schizophrenia, the concordance rate among identical twins is about 50%.

36. Personality disorders usually begin in: A) adolescence or adulthood and disappear in old age. B) childhood and disappear in adulthood. C) childhood or adolescence and persist in stable form throughout adulthood. D) adolescence and persist throughout old age but often change in form.

37. Which type of professional may prescribe drugs to treat mental disorders? A) a clinical psychologist B) a clinical social worker C) a psychiatrist D) a psychoanalyst

38. MAO inhibitors, tricyclics, and SSRIs are used to treat: A) anxiety disorders. B) depressive disorders. C) schizophrenia. D) psychotic disorders.

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39. Which statement regarding electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) and transcranial magnetic stimulation (TMS) is FALSE? A) TMS produces memory loss but ECT does not. B) Both ECT and TMS can be considered neurostimulation therapies. C) ECT produces electrical pulses, while TMS produces magnetic pulses. D) Neither TMS nor ECT lead to detectable brain damage or long-term cognitive impairment.

40. Systematic desensitization, an effective way of treating phobias, is a type of _____ therapy. A) behavioral B) cognitive C) client-centered D) psychoanalysis

41. Which type of therapy uses the ABC (activating event, belief about the event, consequence) model? A) Beck's cognitive therapy B) Jones's counterconditioning C) Ellis's rational-emotive therapy D) Freud's psychoanalysis

42. Abnormal psychology is the scientific study of: A) abnormal individuals living in abnormal circumstances. B) mental disorders and their treatment. C) abnormal thinking but not abnormal behavior. D) statistically infrequent circumstances that cause mental disorders.

43. The plea of "not guilty by reason of insanity" is _____ used and is _____ successful. A) commonly; commonly B) commonly; rarely C) rarely; commonly D) rarely; rarely

44. The plea of "not guilty by reason of insanity" is used in _____ of felony cases and is successful about _____ of the time. A) less than 1%; 15% to 20% B) less than 1%; 50% to 60% C) about 15%; 15% to 20% D) about 15%; 50% to 60%

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45. Which criterion is NOT one that can be used for defining abnormal behavior? A) atypical B) irrational C) maladaptive D) unpleasant

46. Which statement about the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders is FALSE? A) The first edition was published more than 100 years ago. B) The latest edition is more reliable than previous editions. C) The latest edition describes approximately 400 disorders. D) The latest edition is almost 1,000 pages long.

47. The number of psychological disorders identified by the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders has increased from 60 in 1952 to approximately 400 in 2013. Which statement is the BEST explanation for the increase in the number of psychological disorders? A) Psychologists have learned how to better differentiate among the various psychological disorders. B) There are significantly more psychologists and psychiatrists available to identify different psychological disorders. C) The increasingly stressful lives of children and adults have led to a significant increase in the number of psychological disorders. D) Changes in the new edition make the diagnoses less reliable.

48. Which statement concerning the DSM-5 is FALSE? A) Clinicians can make more reliable classifications of disorders. B) Insurance companies use DSM-5 classifications to justify payment of therapy services. C) Clinicians use this as a diagnostic tool to provide both the symptoms and causes of various mental disorders. D) Clinicians are more likely to agree on a particular diagnosis for a particular patient.

49. Which statement concerning the DSM-5 is FALSE? A) It includes 20 major categories of disorders. B) A major criticism is that many aspects of normal behavior fit the criteria for diagnosis of a mental disorder. C) People undergoing a normal grief reaction to the loss of a loved one do not fit the diagnosis of major depressive disorder. D) It aids in the accurate diagnosis and treatment of mental disorders.

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50. Which information is NOT included in the DSM-5? A) specific diagnostic criteria B) key clinical features C) background information D) possible causes of specific disorders

51. Which statement describes a major criticism of the DSM-5? A) It leads many aspects of normal behavior to fit the criteria for diagnosis of a mental disorder. B) Because of the way disorders are defined, it will lead to underdiagnosis. C) The DSM-5 is unlikely to be as reliable as past versions of the DSM. D) Health insurance companies will no longer be able to require a DSM classification before paying for therapy.

52. In the Rosenhan (1973) study, _____ realized that the researchers were faking their symptoms. A) neither the staff nor other patients B) other patients but not the staff, C) the staff but not other patients, D) both the staff and other patients

53. What did the Rosenhan (1973) study investigate? A) the variability in schizophrenia symptoms B) the importance of differentiating between clinical and personality disorders C) the perceptual biasing effects of labeling D) the media's role in misrepresenting disordered people

54. Which statement is NOT a conclusion drawn by critics of Rosenhan's interpretation of his finding regarding the effects of labeling? The diagnoses of "schizophrenia in remission": A) were common at the time of Rosenhan's study. B) contradict the assertion that diagnoses are unreliable. C) appear to based on the observation of the absence of psychotic symptoms. D) demonstrate that the initial diagnoses did not significantly influence the clinicians' perceptions.

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55. Rosenhan argued that discharge diagnoses for the pseudopatients relied more on _____. His critics argued that discharge diagnoses for the pseudopatients relied more on _____. A) post-diagnosis behavior; the initial diagnostic label B) the initial diagnostic label; post-diagnosis behavior C) the DSM-5; the initial symptoms that had been reported D) the initial symptoms that had been reported; the DSM-5

56. According to the text, which misrepresentation by television and other media is common of people with disorders? A) People with disorders are violent and dangerous to others. B) People with disorders usually come from families with multiple mental disorders. C) People with disorders are often experiencing a troubled period in their lives and are having difficulty adjusting to it. D) People with disorders are more of a threat to themselves than to others.

57. After reading about the avoidant personality, Tomika begins to think that she has this disorder. Tomika's thinking BEST illustrates: A) the medical school syndrome. B) the perceptual bias of labeling. C) psychosis syndrome. D) the vulnerability-stress model.

58. Medical school syndrome is the: A) increase in vulnerability to disease experienced by medical students who regularly interact with sick patients. B) increase in stress experienced by overworked medical students that can lead to psychological breakdowns. C) high dropout rate among medical students caused by the anxiety and depression resulting from high stress and long work hours. D) tendency to think that you have a disorder or disease when you read about its symptoms.

59. Necessary and sufficient conditions for being diagnosed with a mental disorder are reactions to life's challenges that are: A) atypical and maladaptive. B) maladaptive and irrational. C) irrational and disturbing to ourselves or others. D) atypical, maladaptive, disturbing to ourselves or others, and irrational.

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60. The biopsychosocial approach is an example of: A) classifying disorders in the DSM-5. B) designing graduate school programs to train clinicians. C) explaining abnormal behavior as an interaction of multiple factors. D) conducting therapy adapted by Rogers and Maslow.

61. Which statement about causal explanations for mental disorders and the four major research approaches is TRUE? A) The biological approach is consistently better at explaining all of the various disorders. B) The most in-depth explanations are based on a single research approach. C) Explanations that consider the interaction between the approaches are preferred. D) The sociocultural approach is generally not helpful in explaining mental disorders.

62. _____ is an example of a(n) _____ disorder. A) Bipolar disorder; anxiety B) Specific phobia; anxiety C) Panic disorder; mood D) Schizophrenia; mood

63. Which condition is NOT an example of an anxiety disorder? A) agoraphobia B) panic disorder C) bipolar disorder D) specific phobia

64. Which statement about phobia is FALSE? A) A phobia is indicated by a marked and persistent fear of specific objects or situations that is excessive and unreasonable. B) In the United States, the overall prevalence rate for specific phobia ranges from 7% to 9%. C) The prevalence rate for phobias is lower in teenagers and older adults than the overall prevalence rate. D) Having a specific phobia is about twice as prevalent in women as it is in men.

65. Sam, a(n) _____, is the LEAST likely to have a specific phobia. A) teenage boy B) elderly White man C) Hispanic American woman D) African American woman

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66. Meghan is afraid of snakes. Which factor would NOT contribute to her fear being considered a specific phobia? A) Meghan realizes her fear is excessive and unreasonable. B) Meghan cannot control her fear. C) Meghan avoids places where snakes are likely to be found. D) Meghan is in an area where there are a lot of poisonous snakes.

67. A biological preparedness view of anxiety disorders would suggest that a fear of _____ would be more easily learned than a fear of _____. A) enclosed spaces; spiders B) snakes; public spaces C) snakes; spiders D) public spaces; enclosed spaces

68. Which statement provides the BEST evidence for the role of biological preparedness in causing specific fears? A) Fears that seem to have more evolutionary survival value are more frequent than those that do not. B) Stressful experiences may lead to classical conditioning of specific fears. C) Fears can be excessive and unreasonable, interfering with our normal functioning. D) Some fears are related to biochemical dysfunctions in the brain.

69. Victoria has a marked a...