Hazardous Materials Operations 6 PDF

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These are practice tests and the answer keys to both hazmat operations and awareness for OFM testing...

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Multiple Choice

1. The majority of chemical-protective clothing is: A. designed to be disposed of after a single use. B. fully encapsulated. C. designed for use on one specific material. D. reusable. Answer: A

2. Which of the following statements about decontamination of disposable chemical-protective equipment is correct? A. No decontamination is needed prior to disposal. B. Only gross decontamination is required. C. Equipment should be decontaminated sufficiently so that removal is safe for the wearer. D. Decontamination should be thorough and complete. Answer: C

3. In general, chemical-protective garments should be tested at __________ intervals, as well as upon receipt from the manufacturer and after each use. A. 6-month B. 12-month C. 18-month D. 24-month Answer: B

4. Which method is used to test a Level A suit? A. A reagent solution B. Ultrasonic scanning C. Ultraviolet light D. Pressure testing Answer: D

5. Chemical-protective equipment should be: A. stored in direct sunlight. B. stored in a warm, humid location.

C. inspected at regular intervals. D. inspected only when there is a noticeable performance issue. Answer: C

6. What does the A stand for in TRACEMP? A. Assessment B. Asphyxiating C. Airborne D. Atmospheric Answer: C

7. What does the E stand for in TRACEMP? A. Etiological/biological B. Explosive C. Evacuation D. Environment Answer: A

8. What does the P stand for in TRACEMP? A. Psychogenic B. Poison C. Permeation D. Personal protective equipment Answer: A

9. A Level B protective ensemble consists of: A. full turnouts with self-contained breathing apparatus (SCBA). B. multi-piece chemical protective clothing and SCBA. C. ordinary work uniform and an air-purifying respirator or powered air-purifying respirator. D. vapour protection with SCBA. Answer: B

10. __________ is a simple asphyxiant. A. Nitrogen B. Carbon monoxide

C. Benzene D. Hydrazine Answer: A

11. What is the subject of the acronym TRACEMP? A. Methods of terrorist attack B. Symptoms of radiation sickness C. Symptoms of chemical agent poisoning D. Potential types of harm at a hazardous materials incident Answer: D

12. Chemicals pass into and through a material on a molecular level by: A. absorption. B. permeation. C. diffusion. D. infiltration. Answer: B

13. What is the process by which a hazardous chemical flows through closures, seams, or pinholes in a material? A. Leakage B. Seepage C. Penetration D. Intrusion Answer: C

14. What is one drawback of vapour-protective clothing? A. It must be used with a supplied-air respirator. B. It does not protect against liquid splashes. C. It cannot be used in atmospheres that are immediately dangerous to life and health. D. It retains the wearer’s body heat. Answer: D

15. According to the HAZWOPER regulation, Level __________ is the minimum level of protection to be worn when operating in an unknown environment.

A. A B. B C. C D. D Answer: B

16. SCBA must be worn if there is the possibility of exposure to ammonia at a concentration exceeding: A. 150 ppm. B. 300 ppm. C. 450 ppm. D. 500 ppm. Answer: B

17. When referring to a breathing apparatus, what does the S stand for in SARs? A. Self B. Supplemental C. Simple D. Supplied Answer: D

18. Which ensemble consists of a fully encapsulating garment that completely envelops both the wearer and his or her respiratory protection? A. A B. B C. C D. D Answer: A 19. What is Level D protection? A. Chemical splash–protective clothing B. Standard work clothing C. Any type of clothing worn with respiratory protection D. Vapour-protective clothing Answer: B

20. Standard firefighting turnouts provide some protection against which forms of radiation?

A. Alpha only B. Both alpha and beta C. Gamma only D. Neither alpha nor gamma Answer: B

21. Which level of protective equipment permits the use of an air-purifying respirator? A. A B. B C. C D. D Answer: C

22. Level _____ PPE should be used when the hazardous material identified requires the highest level of protection for skin, eyes, and lungs. A. A B. B C. C D. D Answer: A

23. High temperature–protective equipment is designed to provide how much protection from hazardous materials? A. Complete B. Full liquid splash–protection C. None D. Full vapour/gas/mist protection Answer: C

24. Which statement about a Level A ensemble is true? A. It provides complete protection from thermal extremes. B. It is difficult to see when wearing it. C. It protects the wearer from gamma radiation. D. It is ineffective against alpha radiation. Answer: B

25. What level of chemical protection should be used only when there is no atmospheric hazard? A. A B. B C. C D. D Answer: D

26. When doffing the Level C chemical-protective clothing ensemble, what is the last piece of equipment removed? A. Suit B. Helmet C. Gloves D. Boots Answer: B

27. Which type of information must be included in an exposure record? A. Organizational chart that explains the chain of command at the incident B. Name of the party deemed responsible for the incident C. Breakdown of the cost to decontaminate, repair, or replace the affected PPE D. Name of the substances involved in the incident Answer: D

28. What chemical-protective clothing is a single-piece garment that totally encloses the wearer? A. Splash suit B. Encapsulating suit C. Proximity suit D. Chemical-protective suit Answer: B 29. What does the C stand for in CBRN? A. Chemical B. Criminal C. Containment D. Command Answer: A

30. What is the NFPA standard on liquid splash–protective clothing for hazardous materials emergencies? A. 1992 B. 1991 C. 1990 D. 1900 Answer: A

31. Emergency decontamination usually involves: A. multiple wash-and-rinse stations. B. being doused with large quantities of water. C. application of a solution that neutralizes the chemical involved. D. a scan of the body with a Geiger counter to check for radioactivity. Answer: B

32. Which statement about encapsulating Level B garments is true? A. They have one-way relief valves around the hood. B. They have vapour-tight seams. C. They are constructed similarly to Level A garments. D. They offer little or no flash fire protection. Answer: D

33. What is the primary role of the medical monitoring station? A. To evaluate the medical status of personnel engaged in operations B. To develop the incident medical plan C. To provide treatment for exposed personnel D. To evaluate and monitor the incident for medical hazards Answer: A 34. When should the pre-entry briefing medical monitoring and equipment inspection be completed? A. Within the past year B. Just prior to donning PPE C. When first reporting for duty D. Immediately upon arrival Answer: B

35. What is the term for the physical destruction or decomposition of a clothing material due to chemical exposure, general use, or ambient conditions? A. Disintegration B. Degradation C. Deterioration D. Impregnation Answer: B

36. Which of the following statements about chemical-protective clothing is correct? A. It is designed to protect the wearer from injuries if it tears. B. It must provide thermal protection. C. Level A chemical-protective clothing is typically a multi-piece garment. D. The clothing must be compatible with the chemical to which it will be exposed. Answer: D

37. What is the most common problem associated with wearing chemical-protective clothing? A. Claustrophobia B. Heat-related stressors C. Strains and sprains D. Abrasions Answer: B

38. How can you check the compatibility of a particular chemical-protective suit with a specific material? A. Check the suit’s NFPA PPE classification label. B. Check the compatibility chart supplied by the manufacturer. C. Refer to the material compatibility table in the ERG. D. Check the suit’s CEPA PPE classification label. Answer: B 39. Which of these items should be donned last when donning a Level C chemical-protective clothing ensemble? A. Boots B. APR/PAPR face piece C. Gloves D. Suit Answer: B

40. You have responded to a hazardous materials incident involving a substance that has been positively identified. It is determined that an air-purifying respirator is effective with this substance and that the substance does not present a hazard to exposed skin. What is the minimum level of PPE for this situation? A. A B. B C. C D. D Answer: C 41. What is a limitation of forced-air cooling systems used with fully encapsulating PPE? A. Limited operational time B. Limited mobility C. Significant added weight D. Reduced air time Answer: B

42. What does the acronym CBRN refer to? A. Strategic priorities at a hazardous materials incident B. Signs and symptoms of chemical exposure C. Types of terrorist attacks D. Pre-entry checklist items Answer: C

43. Signs that chemical protective clothing is undergoing the process of __________ include discolouration, charring, swelling, and shrinking. A. degradation B. corrosion C. decomposition D. deterioration Answer: A

44. What is the NFPA standard on vapour-protective ensembles for hazardous materials emergencies? A. 1992 B. 1991

C. 1990 D. 1900 Answer: B

45. What level of chemical-protective clothing would a fire fighter wear if he or she needed a high level of respiratory protection, but less skin protection? A. A B. B C. C D. D Answer: B

46. Which cooling technology involves a vest designed to wick perspiration away from the body? A. Forced-air cooling B. Fluid-chilled systems C. Phase-change cooling technology D. Gel-pack vests Answer: C

47. Which level of protection is required for nuisance contamination only, such as dust? A. Level A B. Level B C. Level C D. Level D Answer: D

48. Which statement about chemical-protective clothing is correct? A. All types offer the same degree of protection. B. It must provide thermal protection. C. It should be disposed of after a single use. D. It may be constructed as a single- or multi-piece garment. Answer: D

49. A Level A ensemble protects the wearer from __________ radiation.

A. alpha B. beta C. gamma D. all forms of Answer: A

50. You are working at a hazardous materials incident. In your position, there is no potential for harmful exposure to the substance. What is the minimum level of PPE for this situation? A. A B. B C. C D. D Answer: C

51. Which hand signal should you use when wearing PPE if you need to communicate to other responders that you are okay? A. Tapping your head with one hand B. Tapping your head with both hands C. Placing your hands across your throat D. Waving your hands over your head Answer: A 52. Which material is commonly used to make chemical-protective clothing? A. Latex B. Enriched leather C. Nylon canvas D. Polyvinyl chloride Answer: D

53. Which statement about ice-cooled vests is true? A. They are one of the most expensive cooling technologies. B. They cannot be recharged or reused. C. They can fool the body into thinking it is cold instead of hot. D. They are lighter than forced-air cooling systems. Answer: C

54. During technical decontamination:

A. the respirator or face piece remains in place for as long as possible. B. up to three contaminated responders may occupy a wash-and-rinse station at the same time. C. all PPE is removed before decontamination begins. D. any contaminated hand tools go through the decontamination process simultaneously with the responder. Answer: A

55. Which hand signal is used while wearing chemical protective gear to communicate that you are having air problems? A. Tapping one hand on top of your head B. Tapping both hands on top of your head C. Holding your hands across your throat D. Waving your hands over your head Answer: C

56. From the following list, which item is removed last during technical decontamination? A. Protective suit B. Boots C. Gloves D. Personal clothing Answer: D 57. Where should fire fighters proceed after technical decontamination? A. Rehabilitation area B. Warm zone C. Staging area D. Command post Answer: A...