MCQ Practice with Answers PDF

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MCQ that has been generated with the answers in bold. Can be used for practice...

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Which of the following is NOT one of the legal system's criticisms of psychology? A Judges are ignorant of, inexperienced with, or do not understand empirical social science B Judges are liberal and perceive social scientists to be conservative C Judges perceive science as a threat to their power and prestige D Law and social science are rival systems with competing logics

Which of the following statements is the most accurate? A Laws are generally reflective of societal values, which exhibit consistency but do also change over time B Laws are generally reflective of individual values, which exhibit a high level of consistency and do not change over time C Laws are generally reflective of societal values, which exhibit a high level of consistency and do not change over time D Laws are generally reflective of individual values, which exhibit consistency but do also change over time

In general, psychological science has a ______ tolerance for uncertainty, while the legal system has a ______ tolerance for uncertainty A arrogant; respected B unwarranted; justifiable C

high; low D unwavering; flexible

The court's approach to establishing truth is inherently ______ A subjective B wrong C scientific D Adversarial

Approximately what percentage of offenders are male? A 50% B 65% C 80% D 100%

Arrests are most common among which age group? A Early adolescence B Mid-late adolescence

C Young adulthood D Middle age E Old age

"The number of offspring a male can produce is predicted by the number of females he can mate with. This fact enhances sexual competition between males (vis-a-vis females)"

This is an example of a(n) ________ cause of criminal behaviour A proximal B contemporary C distal D Ultimate

Which of the following is NOT a feature of integrated life-course theories of offending? A They typically emphasise one set of causal variables over all others B They examine developmental trajectories associated with offending C They consider the way that biological, psychological, and social factors interact D They incorporate many causal factors

Certain alleles of the "Warrior Gene" encoding Monoamine Oxidase A (MAO-A) cause people to become criminals T True F False (increase in propensity of violent behaviours but does not necessarily result in criminal behaviour)

Which of the following is true? A High IQ and depression are risk factors for criminality B High IQ and impulsivity n are risk factors for criminality C Low IQ and impulsivity are risk factors for criminality D Low IQ and depression are risk factors for criminality

Which mental disorder is a common consequence of an abusive childhood? A Post-traumatic stress disorder B Social phobia C Bipolar disorder D Narcissistic personality disorder

Family size positively predicts delinquency (big families more likely to become criminals) T

True F False

Childhood or adolescent behaviours sometimes have negative consequences that enhance risk later in life and reduce the potential for desistance. What term is used to describe this? A contemporary consequences B conscious consequences C cumulative consequences D corrosive consequences

In Moffitt's developmental taxonomy, adolescents are viewed as being more prone to antisocial behaviour because of: A The maturity crunch B Social loafing C Reinforcement D All of the above

Which of the following is a legitimate criticism of Moffitt's theory? A It understates the persistence of LCP offenders and underestimates their potential for change

B It understates the persistence of LCP offenders and overestimates their potential for change C It overstates the persistence of LCP offenders and underestimates their potential for change D It overstates the persistence of LCP offenders and overestimates their potential for change

What is the correct causal sequence to Farrington? D Long-term antisocial potential  short-term antisocial potential  cognitive processes  antisocial behaviour

Which of the following is not a contributing factor to sexual offending? A Poor attachment B Conditioning via pornography C Cognitive distortions D Narcissism

Compensatory rapists often have feelings of ______, and will use ______ force during an attack A hostility; excessive B inadequacy; excessive C inadequacy; only necessary D

hostility; only necessary

Male regressed/situational child abusers usually have a primary attraction to A male children B female children C adult males D adult females

Freud's psychodynamic theory of child abuse has been... A vindicated B discredited C forgotten D Expanded

In Finkelhor's precondition theory, an offender must be both ______ and ______ for an offence to occur A motivated; disinhibited B male; aggressive C unhappy; addicted to pornography

D emotionally immature; socially isolated

In Hall and Hirschman's quadripartite model, one factor is usually more prominent than the others T True F False

Sexual offenders often use ______ to overcome internal inhibitions A grooming B planning C alcohol D Anxiety

Which of the following is not a major class of causal variables in Ward and Beech's integrated theory? A Genetics and neurobiological factors B Offending behaviours C Ecological factors D Clinical symptoms

Within Ward and Beech's ITSO, there are ______ interacting neuropsychological functions/systems

A two B three C four D Five

In Ward and Beech's ITSO, maintenance and escalation happens when A offending behaviours influence motivation and emotion B offending behaviours influence perception and memory C offending behaviours influence social environments D all of the above are true

In Ward and Beech's ITSO, "trigger factors" are best characterised as being distal predictors T True F False

In 1941, Hervey M. Cleckley published in a highly influential book entitled "The Mask of ______" A Psychopathy B Death C

Sanity D Normality

Which of the following is NOT considered to be a core trait in psychopathy? A Superficiality B Emotional volatility C Manipulativeness D Lack of empathy

Psychopathy is formally recognised as a mental disorder in the DSM-V T True F False

In the DSM-V, psychopathy is included as a descriptor for a sub-type of which personality disorder? A Antisocial Personality Disorder B Borderline Personality Disorder C Sadistic Personality Disorder D Histrionic Personality Disorder

Which of the following statements accurately describes Hare's Psychopathy Checklist-Revised (PCLR)? A It's a self-report measure B Resulting scores range from 0 to 30 C It contains few behavioural items D It requires clinical judgment

Hare originally proposed a ______-factor structure for the PCL-R, but later proposed a ______-factor structure A two; three B three; four C two; four D four; two

The PCL-R is often used in risk assessment T True F False

What estimated percentage of the incarcerated population are psychopaths? A 0-1% B

15-25% C 40-50% D 75-80%

According to the arousal theory of psychopathy, psychopaths have a high aversion ______ A threshold B count C response D to people

Orbitofrontal cortex dysfunction has been heavily and consistently implicated in psychopathy T True F False

Müller (2003) observed reduced responsiveness to aversive images in which brain region of psychopaths? A Hippocampus B Lateral geniculate nucleus C Superior temporal lobe D

Amygdala

Consistent with several other theories, the learning and socialisation theory of psychopathy proposes that low ______ may lead to poor socialisation and an undeveloped conscience A conscientiousness B conditionability C intelligence D Empathy

Skeem and Cooke have argued that the over-reliance on the PCL-R has lead to researchers overemphasising the interpersonal and affective deficits in psychopathy T True F False

The concept of “risk” includes judgments about the: A likelihood of a future hazard B seriousness of future hazards C nature of future hazards D all of the above

The base rate problem describes the fact that predictive models inevitably become less accurate when the phenomenon to be predicted is:

A very rare B very hard to quantify C very accessible D very serious

Laypeople tend to underestimate the difficulty of assessing offending risk T True F False

"I predicted that he would commit violence, but he did not". This is an example of a: A True positive B True negative C False positive D False negative

Psychotic symptoms particularly predict violence risk when the individual suffers command hallucinations T True F False

First generation risk assessments were ______, while second generation risk assessments were ______. A subjective; professional B subjective; actuarial C formal; professional D formal; actuarial

In the early 1980s, it was widely accepted that mental health professionals could accurately predict dangerousness and violence T True F False

The Rorschach and the TAT are often described as ______ measures of personality A actuarial B valid C projective D self-report

Predictors that focus on the nature of the environment in which an individual lives are referred to as: A

static predictors B dynamic predictors C risk management predictors D actuarial predictors

A history of prior violence is an example of a __________ predictor A static B dynamic C risk management D Actuarial

The PCL-R shows moderate predictive validity for violent offending T True F False

When scoring the HCR-20, the final decision on risk is made by: A adding together the numbers B making a clinical judgment on the basis of the numbers C combining the numbers with those derived from the VRAG

D someone with a PhD in clinical psychology

Which of the following static factors has been shown to heighten risk for sexual re-offending? A Being older B Only female victims C Unrelated victims D Living with a lover

The SVR-20 is considered a second generation or actuarial risk assessment T True F False

Phallometric measures are used to assess: A psychopathy B offender motivation C cognitive distortions D deviant sexual arousal

Demographic differences between partners have been found to predict domestic violence T

True F False

According to Greenwood and Petersilia (1976), the crimes that are most likely to be solved are those in which: A The perpetrator(s) was/were apprehended within minutes of the crime being committed B An eyewitness provides a specific relevant piece of information C Either (a) or (b) D None of the above

Eyewitness testimony is the single most frequent cause of wrongful conviction T True F False

______ determine accuracy at the time of the event, whereas ______ determine accuracy during the process of investigation A identification variables; recall variables B recall variables; identification variables C system variables; estimator variables D estimator variables; system variables

Juries are often ambivalent towards eyewitness testimony T True F False

What is the weapon focus effect? A The use of a weapon during a crime draws attention to the face of the perpetrator, thus reducing accuracy of identification B The use of a weapon during a crime draws attention away from the face of the perpetrator, thus reducing accuracy of identification C The use of a weapon during a crime draws attention to the face of the perpetrator, thus increasing accuracy of identification D The use of a weapon during a crime draws attention away from the face of the perpetrator, thus increasing accuracy of identification

Photo array composition represents a ______ variable with a major influence on ______ A system; identification accuracy B system; recall accuracy C estimator; identification accuracy D estimator; recall accuracy

After being advised by police that they have made the "correct" selection, witness confidence in identification tends to ______ over time A

decrease B remain the same C Increase

When recalling previous events, especially after some time has elapsed, details are often: A omitted B altered C falsely added D all of the above

Elizabeth Loftus and colleagues were the first to document: A Integration inflation B Levitation inflation C Inebriation inflation D Imagination inflation

Children are more suggestible than adults during questioning T True F False

When interviewing children, it is advisable to use more ______ A Closed-ended questions B Open-ended questions C Imagination exercises D Chocolate-related bribery

Which of the following is NOT a reason why criminal profiling is considered separate from forensic psychology? A Training in criminal profiling has historically been controlled by the FBI. B There are more jobs than applicants to fill the positions. C Most profilers have not done graduate study in psychology. D Even experienced profilers acknowledge that profiling is more art than science.

Because physical qualities and demographics are also important in identifying criminals, some investigators prefer to use the term _________ profile A psychic B holistic C sociopsychological D

Hierarchical

The offender profile constructed by Thomas Bond of "Jack the Ripper" was very different to the kinds of profiles that are constructed today T True F False

Which of the following is NOT one of the three major approaches to offender profiling A The ideographic personalisation approach B The criminal investigative approach C The scientific statistical approach D The clinical practitioner approach

Unique, personal aspects of a criminal act, often the reflection of a need to express violent fantasies, are a criminal’s _____________. A signature B sociological makeup C M.O. (modus operandi) D Demographics

Which of the following is NOT a step taken in generating a criminal profile when adopting the criminal investigative approach?

A A comprehensive study of the crime and they types of people who commit that crime B A detailed analysis of the crime scene C In-depth examination of the background of the victim D Formulation of predictions of the sites for future crimes

According to Alison et al. (2003), offender profiles are generally: A accurate B unfalsifiable C unambiguous D Precise

A Barnum statement is ______ and can be applied to ______. A vague; most people B vague; few people C precise; most people D precise; few people

BIA stands for: A

behavioural investigative approach B behavioural implementation approach C behavioural investigative advice D behavioural implementation advice

Offender profiling is best characterised as: A an art B a science C neither of the above D it depends on who is doing the profiling and what their approach is

People assume that most confessions are A false B obtained only with great difficulty C true D freely given by the guilty party

Eyewitness testimony is more persuasive to a judge or jury than an admission of guilt T True

F False

What does the term “third-degree tactics” refer to? A Interrogation methods used at the third and final time of questioning B Interrogation methods reserved for cases of third degree murder C Interrogation tactics used primarily in third-world countries D Interrogation tactics that include brutality and torture

Which of the following interrogation techniques are illegal in the United States? A Misrepresentation of the facts of the case B Misleading a suspect that accomplices have confessed C Denying suspects food and water for over 12 hours D Disguising informers as fellow prisoners

Leading the suspect to believe that ______ is the over-arching strategic goal of interrogation A they really committed the crime B a confession would be beneficial C they have no other option D

they will be harmed if they do not confess

Which of the following is NOT one of the interrogation procedures described in your textbook chapter? A Intimidation B Minimization C Rapport building D Maximization

A suspect has the "right to remain silent" in Singapore T True F False

Which of the following is a valid cue to deception? A gaze aversion B fidgeting C unnatural posture D story inconsistencies

Studies about police’s ability to detect deception find that: A

police are not particularly good at distinguishing between truthful and deceptive suspects B in general, police can distinguish between truthful and deceptive suspects very well C police trained as interrogators can distinguish between truthful and deceptive suspects very well D psychologists are better than police at distinguishing between truthful and deceptive suspects

If a person confesses to a crime that they did not commit in order to escape the pressures of interrogation, this is an example of a: A voluntary confession B coerced-compliant confession C coerced-internalised confession D true confession

Vulnerable individuals tend to make coerced-compliant confessions because they are suggestible T True F False

What are the benefits of video recording interrogations? A Enhanced transparency B Learning and feedback C

Protecting the police D All of the above

Which of these is NOT a reason it is so difficult to evaluate insanity? A Insanity and psychosis are not the same thing B Defendants are not permitted to be tested after they are charged with a crime C Insanity is a legal concept, not a psychiatric one D Evaluation of a defendant’s present status may not be relevant to his or her status when the act was committed

Mens rea means C The mental state of knowing the nature and quality of a forbidden act, or “ a guilty mind”

What definition of insanity is currently used in Singapore? A M’Naughten B Durham C ALI D Singapore has abolished the insanity defense

GBMI stands for Guilty but Mostly Insane T

True F False

The final decision regarding sanity is made by A the trier-of-fact B the expert witness for the defence C the most senior forensic psychologist D the police

Which of the following psychological disorders is MOST often associated with insanity pleas? A Major depression B Generalised anxiety C Schizophrenia D Parkinson's disease

Neuroscience can definitively indicate whether a defendant is/was insane or not T True F False

Why might a guilty verdict be preferable to a NGRI verdict?

A The sentence is of a defined length B The conditions will be better C Those who are found NGRI often go free D All of the above

The public generally assumes that: A most insanity pleas involve malingering B insanity pleas happen very frequently C judges are too lenient when evaluating insanity pleas D all of the above

In a global study, Silver et al. (1994) observed an overall insanity plea rate of A 0.1% B 0.9% C 9% D 22%

In ultimate issue testimony, an expert witness attests to the legal sanity of the defendant T

True F False

Which of the following is NOT assessed by Rogers' Criminal Responsibility Assessment Scales (RCRAS)? A organicity B cognitive control C reliability D Competency

Competency to stand trial is also known as fitness to plead T True F False

What is the criterion for determining competency? A State of mind of defendant in the...