Microbiology A Systems Approach: Ch8 Test Bank PDF

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Test bank for General Microbiology, Microbiology a systems approach....

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Student name:__________ TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 1) ATP molecules are catalysts that lower the activation energy needed to initiate a reaction. ⊚

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2) Building block molecules for biosynthetic pathways come from the cell's catabolic pathways and from the environment. ⊚

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3) Hydrolysis reactions are catabolic reactions that use water to split the reactant into smaller subunits. ⊚

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4)

Exoenzymes from pathogens are called virulence factors.

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5)

The best way to control a metabolic pathway is to control the fastest enzyme in the series.

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6) Denaturing an apoenzyme will destroy the three-dimensional shape of the protein, making it nonfunctional. ⊚

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ATP is composed of deoxyribose, adenine, and three phosphate groups.

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8) Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate is an intermediary of glycolysis that can also be utilized in biosynthetic pathways. ⊚

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ATP synthase is a complex enzyme needed for oxidative phosphorylation.

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10) All aerobic bacterial species have identical electron acceptors in their electron transport systems. ⊚

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11)

Only yeast produce alcohol as a fermentation product.

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12)

Oxygen-containing ions are used by some bacteria in their electron transportsystem.

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13)

Microbes can utilize only carbohydrates for energy production.

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14)

Photosynthesis occurs in chloroplasts of prokaryotes.

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15)

All organisms that are photosynthetic are oxygenic.

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16) Recently discovered bacteria that inhabit the ocean floor undergo photosynthesis using light from chemical reactions, the breaking of mineral crystals, or from bubble formation. ⊚

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17) Cells generate ATP from the release of chemical energy from nutrients, whereas chlorophyll-containing organisms generate ATP via the light-dependent reactions of photosynthesis as well as from the oxidation of nutrients. ⊚

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18) During the Calvin cycle, carbon dioxide gas is fixed into a solid, organic form; this is an endergonic process driven by ATP generated from aerobic respiration. ⊚

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MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 19) The term used to describe all of the chemical reactions within a cell is ______.

A) catabolism B) redox reactions C) phosphorylation D) metabolism E) cellular respiration

20)

Enzymes are _______.

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A) broken down in reactions that require energy input B) proteins that function as catalysts C) used up in chemical reactions D) not needed for catabolic reactions E) carbohydrate or protein in composition

21) The formation of peptide bonds between amino acids to build a polypeptide is an example of ______.

A) anabolism B) phosphorylation C) fermentation D) catabolism E) glycolysis

22)

Reactants are converted to products by _______.

A) enzymes releasing energy B) breaking and forming bonds C) enzymes binding to products D) reactants always releasing energy

23)

Each of the following are true of enzymes except _______.

A) they can be used over and over B) they may or may not require cofactors C) their active site is specific to the substrate D) they increase the activation energy of a reaction E) their action may involve minerals

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24) The cell's metabolic reactions involve the participation of _______ that lower the activation energy needed for the initiation of a reaction.

A) cofactors B) vitamins C) enzymes D) ATP E) coenzymes

25)

An apoenzyme is ______.

A) part of a simple enzyme B) also called a coenzyme C) the protein part of a holoenzyme D) often an inorganic metal ion E) an RNA molecule

26)

A holoenzyme is a combination of a protein and one or more substances called ______.

A) substrates B) apoenzymes C) catalysts D) cofactors E) ribozymes

27)

Important components of coenzymes are _______.

A) vitamins B) metallic ions C) active sites D) substrates E) ribozymes

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28)

A type of cofactor would be ______.

A) vitamins B) metallic ions C) active sites D) substrates E) ribozymes

29)

Ribozymes are ______.

A) ribosomes which catalyze reactions B) unique to prokaryotes C) unique to eukaryotes D) catalysts for RNA splicing E) catalysts for DNA splicing

30)

Enzymes that are only produced when substrate is present are termed ______.

A) exoenzymes B) endoenzymes C) constitutive enzymes D) induced enzymes E) conjugated enzymes

31) Enzymes that catalyze the removal of electrons from one substrate and the addition of electrons to another are called ______.

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A) transferases B) oxidoreductases C) lyases D) isomerases E) ligases

32) The bacterial genus Bacillus can utilize starch as a nutrient by splitting the starch molecule into smaller molecules of glucosewith the addition of water. The enzymes to do this would be classified as ______.

A) transferases B) oxidoreductases C) ligases D) hydrolases E) isomerases

33) Enzymes that catalyze the removal of a a functional group and its subsequent attachment to a new substrate are called ______.

A) transferases B) oxidoreductases C) isomerases D) lyases E) ligases

34)

The most likely place where an exoenzyme participates in a chemical reaction is ______.

A) in mitochondria B) within the cell membrane C) in lysosomes D) in cytoplasm E) outside of the cell

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35)

All of the following are exoenzymes except ______.

A) ATP synthase B) streptokinase C) penicillinase D) collagenase

36)

During aerobic cellular respiration, the final electron acceptor is ______.

A) pyruvic acid B) oxygen C) nitrate D) cytochrome C E) FAD

37) Anabolic reactions that involve ligasesand release water molecules when bonds are formed are called ______ reactions.

A) reduction B) condensation C) oxidation D) transfer

38) Your bacterium is growing on a type of medium called casein agar, which contains milk protein (casein). There is a clear zone around the growth area of the bacterium, showing that it is synthesizing the enzymes needed to catalyze the breakdown of casein. These enzymes are considered ______.

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A) apoenzymes B) exoenzymes C) ribozymes D) endoenzymes

39)

Enzymes that function inside a cell are ______.

A) apoenzymes B) exoenzymes C) constitutive enzymes D) regulated enzymes E) endoenzymes

40)

Enzymes that are always present, regardless of the amount of substrate, are ______.

A) apoenzymes B) exoenzymes C) constitutive enzymes D) regulated enzymes E) endoenzymes

41) When enzyme action stops due to a buildup of end product that acts as a regulatory molecule, this control is called ______.

A) competitive inhibition B) enzyme induction C) enzyme repression D) noncompetitive inhibition

42)

Each of the following are denaturing agents except ______.

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A) high temperature B) low temperature C) high pH D) low pH

43)

Noncompetitive inhibition is best described as _______.

A) the substrate binding to DNA, blocking enzyme transcription B) the end product binding to DNA, blocking enzyme transcription C) the substrate binding to enzyme in a regulatory site D) the end product binding to enzyme in noncompetitive site E) an anabolic reaction

44)

Metabolic pathways that regenerate their starting molecule are called ______ pathways.

A) linear B) bidirectional C) convergent D) cyclic E) divergent

45) When the product of reaction A becomes the reactant of reaction B, this exemplifies a _______ metabolic pathway.

A) linear B) bidirectional C) convergent D) cyclic E) divergent

46)

Most electron carriers are ______.

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A) coenzymes B) enzymes C) hydrogen D) inorganic phosphate

47)

Exergonic reactions _______.

A) include synthesis of large carbohydrates B) only occur in heterotrophs C) occur during aerobic cellular respiration D) do not occur in anaerobic cellular respiration E) occur when ADP binds to inorganic phosphate to form ATP

48)

In the cell, energy released by electrons is often used to phosphorylate ______.

A) ATP B) ADP C) pyruvic acid D) oxygen E) NAD

49)

In addition to electrons, which of the following is also involved in electron transfer?

A) ADP B) Glucose C) Carbon D) Hydrogen E) Carbon dioxide

50)

Each of the following are electron carriers except ______.

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A) NAD B) FAD C) NADP D) FADP

51)

FAD, NADP, NAD, and coenzyme A are all carriers of ________.

A) hydrogens B) electrons C) ATP D) Both hydrogens and electrons are correct.

52) The step involving ATP, hexokinase, and the phosphorylation of glucose to glucose-6phosphate is _______.

A) the final step of the Krebs cycle B) the first redox reaction of the electron transport system C) an example of oxidative phosphorylation D) an example of substrate-level phosphorylation E) an example of photophosphorylation

53)

Which of the following is not a process that regenerates ATP?

A) Oxidative phosphorylation B) Reductive phosphorylation C) Substrate-level phosphorylation D) Photophosphorylation

54)

All of the following pertain to glycolysis except _______.

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A) it occurs without oxygen B) it ends with formation of pyruvic acid C) it occurs during fermentation D) it degrades glucose to CO 2 and H 2O E) it involves reduction of NAD

55)

Glycolysis uses 2 ATP and produces _______.

A) 2 ATP only if oxygen is present B) 2 ATP without oxygen C) 4 ATP only if oxygen is present D) 4 ATP without oxygen

56)

The formation of citric acid from oxaloacetic acid and an acetyl group begins ______.

A) glycolysis B) the electron transport system C) the Krebs cycle D) fermentation E) oxidative phosphorylation

57) Which of the following is not part of the step that occurs between glycolysis and the Krebs cycle?

A) Reduction of NAD+ B) Coenzyme A attaches to an acetyl group C) Oxidation of pyruvic acid D) Pyruvic acid accepts electrons from NADH

58)

Substrate-level phosphorylation occurs in _______.

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A) glycolysis and the electron transport chain B) photosynthesis and glycolysis C) glycolysis and the Krebs cycle D) the Krebs cycle and the electron transport system E) the electron transport system only

59)

The majority of NADH is produced in ______.

A) glycolysis B) the Krebs cycle C) the electron transport system D) photosynthesis E) fermentation

60)

In bacterial cells, the electron transport system is located in the ______.

A) cell membrane B) mitochondria C) chloroplasts D) ribosomes E) cytoplasm

61) Each NADH that enters the electron transport system results in the production of _____ ATPs.

A) 2 B) 3 C) 24 D) 36 E) 38

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62) As the electron transport carriers shuttle electrons, they actively pump _______ into the outer membrane compartment, setting up a concentration gradient called the proton motive force.

A) ATP B) phosphate C) hydrogen ions D) oxygen E) NADH

63) The redox carriers of the electron transport system that have a tightly bound metal atom responsible for accepting and donating electrons are ______.

A) NAD molecules B) FAD molecules C) NADP molecules D) the cytochromes E) the flavoproteins

64) Each FADH2 from the Krebs cycle that enters the electron transport system results in the production of _____ ATP(s).

A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) 5

65)

In which pathway is the most NADH generated?

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A) The electron transport system B) The Krebs cycle C) Glycolysis D) Alcoholic fermentation E) Mixed acid fermentation

66)

During which phase of cellular respiration is the majority of ATP formed?

A) Electron transport system B) The Krebs cycle C) Glycolysis D) Processing of pyruvic acid for the Krebs cycle E) All phases produce the same number of ATP molecules.

67) In bacterial cells, when glucose is completely oxidized by all the pathways of aerobic cellular respiration, what is the maximum number of ATP generated?

A) 2 B) 3 C) 24 D) 36 E) 38

68)

In which stage of aerobic respiration is water produced?

A) Glycolysis B) The Krebs cycle C) The electron transport system

69) How many carbon dioxide molecules are produced by the complete aerobic breakdown of one glucose molecule?

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A) 2 B) 3 C) 4 D) 5 E) 6

70) An oxidase detection test can be used to identify certain bacteria because they are missing or lack expression of ______.

A) cytochrome C oxidase B) NAD C) mitochondria D) ATP synthase E) coenzyme Q

71) What chemical causes death in many eukaryotes because it blocks cytochrome C oxidase?

A) Copper B) Iron C) Cyanide D) Oxygen E) Carbon monoxide

72)

Which of the following is not true of anaerobic respiration?

A) It involves glycolysis. B) It generates some ATP. C) It utilizes an electron transport system. D) It uses the same final electron acceptor as aerobic respiration.

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73)

Reduction of nitrogen-oxygen ions and compounds by some bacteria is called ______.

A) aerobic respiration B) denitrification C) nitrification D) fermentation E) deamination

74) The reactions of fermentation function to produce _______ molecules for further use in glycolysis.

A) pyruvic acid B) ATP C) NAD+ D) NADH E) glucose

75) When glucose is broken down by glycolysis during bacterial fermentation, what is the usual net production of ATP?

A) 2 B) 3 C) 24 D) 36 E) 38

76)

Mixed acid fermentation _______.

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A) produces butyric acid B) occurs in all bacteria C) produces several different acids plus CO 2 and H D) is seen in Streptococcus and Lactobacillus E) also produces ethanol

77)

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Fermentation ______.

A) requires an organic electron acceptor B) requires oxygen C) only occurs in aerobic organisms D) is equivalent to aerobic respiration in ATP production E) is the same as anaerobic respiration

78)

Which of the following is not a photosynthetic pigment?

A) Carotenoid B) Leukophyll C) Phycobilin D) Chlorophyll

79)

Which of the following is not true of the light-dependent reactions of photosynthesis?

A) They occur in thylakoid membranes. B) They generateNADPH. C) They generate glucose from CO 2 and H 2O. D) The photons cause magnesium to release electrons. E) ATP is generated by a chemiosmotic mechanism.

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80) The unknown bacterium that you are testing makes the enzyme phenyalanine deaminase, as indicated by the results of aphenylalanine test. This enzyme facilitates the removal of a/an______ group from the organic compound so it can be converted into an intermediate compound for the Krebs cycle.

A) carboxyl B) amino C) phosphate D) hydroxyl

81) The property of organisms to integrate catabolic and anabolic pathways to improve cell efficiency is called ______.

A) metabolism B) amphibolism C) anabolism D) catabolism E) biosynthesis

82)

The process of forming glucose from various metabolic intermediates is called ______.

A) glycolysis B) amphibolism C) phosphorylation D) amination E) gluconeogenesis

83)

The principle sites of amphibolic interaction occur during ______.

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A) glycolysis and photosynthesis B) the Krebs cycle and the electron transport system C) glycolysis and the Krebs cycle D) fermentation and the Krebs cycle E) fermentation and glycolysis

84) Intermediates from the Krebs cycle can be converted to amino acids by the process of ______.

A) amination B) deamination C) phosphorylation D) beta oxidation E) gluconeogenesis

85)

Which of the following characterize the Calvin cycle?

A) A process that requires light B) Nitrogen is fixed into an organic form C) Produces glucose as an end product D) Produces carbon dioxide and water E) Produces oxygen

86) Sulfa drugs like Bactrim, given for bacterial infections, inhibit bacteria by blocking folic acid synthesis. The precursor molecule of folic acid is para-amino benzoic acid (PABA). Interestingly, PABA has a structure very similar to a sulfa drug. If a sulfa drug is present, the bacterial enzyme will bind the sulfa drug because of structural similarity. This is an example of ______.

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A) enzyme induction B) enzyme repression C) noncompetitive inhibition D) competitive inhibition E) catabolite repression

87) You have a tube of nutrient broth, in which E. coli is growing. Upon analyzing the broth chemistry, you find:oxygen content has dropped a bit, but carbon dioxide has gone up a lotformic, acetic, and lactic acids are presentWhat kind of metabolism has most likely occurred?

A) Fermentation B) Aerobic respiration C) Anaerobic respiration D) Photosynthesis

88)

When comparing fermentation and anaerobi...