OD-OS-ROENT pre-boards exam PDF

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OD-OS-ROENT Which artery descends on the posterior surface of the maxilla and supplies the maxillary sinus and maxillary molar and premolar teeth? a. Sphenopalatine artery b. Infraorbital artery c. Greater palatine artery d. Posterior superior alveolar artery In healing process, this is called ___ a...

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OD-OS-ROENT 1. Which artery descends on the posterior surface of the maxilla and supplies the maxillary sinus and maxillary molar and premolar teeth? a. Sphenopalatine artery b. Infraorbital artery c. Greater palatine artery d. Posterior superior alveolar artery 2. In healing process, this is called ___ and is associated with avulsive injury, local infection and inadequate closure of wound. a. Healing by 3rd intention b. Healing by initial intention c. Healing by secondary intention d. Healing by reactive intentions as response to trauma 3. In cleidocranial dysplasia, most commonly impacted teeth are: a. Maxillary molars b. Maxillary premolars and incisors c. Mandibular incisors and premolars d. Mandibular molars 4. Impacted supernumerary teeth is feature of: a. Plummer Vinson syndrome b. Gardner’s syndrome c. Klinefelter syndrome d. Marfan’s syndrome 5. Which of the following sites for squamous cell carcinoma has the most unfavorable prognosis? a. Upper lip b. Lower lip c. Gingiva d. Buccal mucosa e. Dorsum of the tongue 6. Wickman’s striae may be found on mucus membrane of the patient with: a. Lichen planus b. White spongy nevous c. Keratosis follicularis d. Erythema multiforme 7. Problems experienced by the patient, which may be used to identify the underlying pathology is/are: a. Prognosis b. Diagnosis c. Sign d. Symptom

8. Teeth with high degree of amberlike translucency and a variety of colors from yellow to blue gray and crowns readily wear: a. Dentinogenesis imperfecta b. Amelogenesis imperfecta c. Odontodysplasia d. Dentin dysplasia 9. A patient has a pulse rate of 72, a respiratory rate of 15, a BP of 120/80, warm pink extremities and pupils that constrict during near accommodation. What is the most likely diagnosis? a. Diabetes b. Acute anxiety syndrome c. Coronary artery syndrome d. Myopia e. Normal patient 10. An asthmatic patient is characterized by having all of the following except: a. Bronchi that rapidly and spontaneously change caliber in response to various irritants b. Inspiratory wheezes c. Hyperactive bronchi d. A history of allergy 11. The sign which indicates that a tooth is most severely periodontically involve is: a. Depressibility and/or rotatability b. Radiographic evidence of 50% bone loss c. Pocket depth of 5mm 12. Which is correct about complications of dental extractions? a. Teeth lost into the oropharynx do not require intervention b. Infections are common c. Dry socket occurs in 10% of 3rd molar extractions d. Patients with numbness lasting more than 4 weeks should be referred for micro neurosurgical evaluation. 13. An increased erythrocytes sedimentation rate (ESR): a. Is the result of high BP b. Is specific for rheumatic fever c. Suggests the presence of an infection somewhere in the body d. Is due to an increase in the size and weight of the RBC 14. Hypercementosis may be associated with: a. Acromegaly and Paget’s disease b. Histocytosis X-disease(pulmonary, eosinophilic granuloma) c. Osteogentic sarcoma d. Von Recklinhaussen’s disease of the bone(neurofibromatosis) 15. An 18 year old female requested anesthetic improvement of her own “brown teeth”. She reported that her mom and the siblings have the same condition. Radiographically, there is absence of pulp chambers and canals of most teeth and unusually short tapering roots. These are characteristics of:

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a. Erythroblastosis fetalis b. Dentinogenesis imperfecta c. Amelogenesis imperfecta (enamel only) d. Fluorosis It is the physical expansion of the artery a. Pulse rate b. Temperature c. Respiratory rate d. Blood pressure Examination of a 79 year old man reveals a 3cm flat, mottled brown-black splotchy lesion on the left side of his face. The margins of the lesion are not palpable. The patient states that the lesion has been increasing in size for 10 years. The most likely diagnosis is: a. Junctional nevus b. Nodular melanoma c. Superficial spreading melanoma d. Age spot e. Lentigo maligna It is an infection of the soft tissue that usually occurs around the crown of a partially impacted tooth. a. Conjunctivitis b. Alveolar osteitis c. Trismus d. Pericoronitis A 42 year old female having very hard elevation on the palate with intact mucosa at 3x4cm, whose father died of cancer. Observation was done rather than biopsy. This is indicative of: a. Most common exostosis b. Cancer phobia on the part of the patient c. An exostosis d. Pleomorphic adenoma (most common tumor of the palate) Which of the following is true of a thorough dental history? a. Will decrease the rate of caries formation b. Unnecessary in edentulous patients c. Will prevent viral infections d. Should be standardized so that nothing is overlooked Acronynia (pink discoloration of the skin), hypophosphatasia and progeria (age prematurely) are rare conditions in which: a. Multiple supernumerary teeth are often present b. Premature exfoliation of deciduous teeth is known to occur c. Delayed eruption of teeth is common d. Precocious eruption of teeth invariably occurs A swelling on the anterior floor of the mouth is soft and painless. It has been present for several months. The overlying mucosa has a bluish tinge. The most likely diagnosis is:

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a. Obstructed sublingual gland duct b. Infected periodontal abscess c. Carcinoma of the floor of the mouth d. Retention cyst e. Mixed salivary gland tumor The most common extraoral cause of halitosis is: a. Kidney dysfunction b. Chronic sinusitis with post nasal drip c. Indigestion d. Diabetes mellitus A full E cylinder of oxygen contains approximately: a. 150 L at a pressure of 2000psi b. 750 L at a pressure of 2000psi c. 300 L at a pressure of 2000psi d. 600 L at a pressure of 2000psi A comparison of the different diseases and contrasted by the use of the clinical, pathological and lab exam is ___ diagnosis a. Final b. Tentative c. Differential d. Prognosis e. Referral A subnormal temperature (hypothermia-exposed to extreme cold, injury, body goes into shock) is common to all except: a. Angioneurotic edema (swelling after exposur to cold) b. Syncope (loss of conciousness) c. Aniline intoxication (used in dyes, drugs and plastics) d. Myxedema (Myx-dry-hypothyrodism) A radiographic technique that will detect and monitor salivary gland disease is? a. Sialography b. Anthography c. Ultrasonography d. None of the above If it is necessary to perform a coniotomy, entry should be made at the: a. Cricothyroid ligament b. Thyroid membrane c. Thyroepiglottic ligament d. Cricoid cartilage e. Thyroid notch A subjective sensation associated with a feeling of inadequate respiration is: a. Bronchial obstruction b. Tachypnea

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c. Dyspnea d. Bradypnea The approximate day of suture removal post-operatively is: a. 8 – 10 days b. 5-7 days c. 3-4 days d. After 24 hours e. After 36 hours In a left subcondylar fracture,clinical findings will show: a. Bilateral crepitus b. Light bleeding intraorally c. Profuse bleeding extraorally d. Premature contact on the right side e. Inability to move the mandible to the right side Bleeding during surgical procedure is controlled effectively by: a. Applying vasoconstrictors b. Clamping and tying out vessels c. Suturing the flaps d. Applying pressure over the wound The beak of extraction forceps is designed so that most of the extraction pressure is transmitted to: a. Cement-enamel junction b. Alveolar bone c. Crown of the tooth d. Dentino-enamel junction e. Root of the tooth Which of the following will most likely cause an autogenous tooth transplant to fall during the third year? a. An inflammatory resorption of supporting bone b. Ankylosis of the tooth c. Development of root caries d. An idiopathic chronic progressive root resorption When the edges of an aseptic wound are in apposition, it heals by: a. Secondary intention b. Primary intention c. Tertiary intention d. Indirect intention The best method of treating a greenstick fracture of the mandible is by a. Bringing the teeth into normal occlusion with interdental wiring b. Applying barton bandage c. Intra-osseous wiring of the fragments into their exact anatomic alignment d. Extra-skeletal pin fixation

37. A procedure to increase the vertical height of the mandible by vertically splitting the anterior portion of the mandible and repositioning the lingual segment superiorly a. Augmentation genioplasty b. Visor steotomy c. Sandwich osteotomy d. Maxillary osteoplasty 38. The most sensitive indication of acute blood is a combination of a. Shallow ventilation and sweating b. Tachycardia and hypotension on sitting up c. Nausea, dizziness and cyanosis d. Tachycardia and tremor while recumbent e. Hypernea and restlessness 39. Which of the following patients should probably be hospitalized for oral surgical procedure indicated? a. Patient on anticoagulant therapy whose present prothrombin time is 1.25 times his normal time and who needs a single tooth removed b. Person with a prosthetic cardiac valve who needs multiple extractions and an alveoplasty procedure c. Diabetic whose disease is controlled by daily insulin injections and who needs a chronically infected tooth removed d. Patient who received large daily doses of steroids which were discontinued six months previously and who needs a single tooth removed e. None of these 40. Which of the following pathologic conditions should be considered in a patient whose CBC shows an elevated eosinophil coun? a. Allergic reaction b. Asthma c. Pemphigus d. Parasitic infection e. All of these 41. On oral surgery, cold compresses are applied: a. To promote better circulation on the affected area b. Immediately before surgery c. Immediately after surgery d. To prevent spread of infection e. To avoid swelling in the area 42. Because of its root structure, which of the following teeth is the least responsive to rotation forces during extraction? a. Maxillary 1st premolar b. Maxillary central incisor c. Mandibular canine d. Mandibular 1st premolar

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e. Mandibular 2nd premolar What is the most common complication of a compound fracture? a. Marked malocclusion b. Induced salivation c. Malunion d. Infection All are clinical features of cysts, except: a. Crepitation b. Pain c. Rapid expansion d. Fluctuance When would you place a suture over a single extraction socket? a. If the patient requests it b. Routinely c. When there is severe bleeding from the gingiva or if the gingival cuff is torn or loose d. Never A nasal antrostomy following a Caadwell-Luc is created in the : a. Inferior meatus of the nose b. Superior meatus of the nose c. Depends on the age of the patient d. Middle meatus of the nose A result in response to a more intense or prolonged irritation from an infected root canal, producing extension of the chronic apical periodontitis beyond the pdl: a. Periapical cyst b. Periapical abscess c. Periapical granuloma d. Condensing osteitis e. None of these Which type of mandibular fracture is the most difficult to diagnose? a. Simple comminuted b. Greenstick c. Compound d. Compound comminuted e. None of these Rumpele-Leede, or the tourniquet test is a measure of: a. Factor IX deficiency b. Capillary fragility c. Clottinh time d. Blood pressure The ideal bone graft should do each of the following, except: a. Withstand mechanical forces b. Produce an immunologic response

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c. Induce osteogenesis d. Become replaced by host bone A patient with an elevated Bence-Jonce protein and multiple radiolucent areas in the mandible and the skull may have a. Burkitt’s lumphoma b. Hodgkin’s disease c. Adenocarcinoma d. Multiple myeloma Excisional biopsy is the most apt procedure to which of the following conditions? a. Leukoplakic area covering most of the buccal mucosa b. 1 cm exophytic mass on the buccal mucosa c. 3 cm submucossal indurated mass d. 2 cm painless ulcer of 14 days duration Progressive weakness, loss of weight, hypotension, and pigmentation are characterized of: a. Peutz-Jegherz syndrome b. Hyperparathyroidism c. Bowen’s disease d. Diabetes mellitus e. Addison’s disease All of the following are contraindications to tooth extraction except: a. Acute infectious stomatitis b. Acute pericoronitis c. Acute dentoalveolar abscess d. End-stage renal disease All are clinical features of cysts, except: a. Rapid expansion b. Crepitation c. Fluctuance d. Pain Varicella and variola are examples of ___ type of lesion a. Macule b. Vesicle c. Papule d. Bullae e. Pustules Which of the following describes the use of hydroxylapatite for alveolar ridge augmentation? a. Hydroxylapatite is considered to be osteoinductive (bone forming) b. Compaction or compression of hydroxylapatite after augmentation generally does not occur c. Granule migration and excessive augmentation are common problems with hydroxylapatite materials d. Patients with hydroxylappatite augmentation to the anterior maxilla should be without their maxillary prosthesis for a minimum of one month

58. Open fracture of the bone resulting to open communication with the oral cavity: a. Compound b. Complicated c. Comminuted d. Simple greenstick 59. SLOB means: a. Same Left Opposite Buccal b. Same Lingual Opposite Buccal c. Same Lingual Over Buccal d. Side of Lingual is Opposite the Buccal 60. Which of the following does not control magnification of the radiograph? a. Object film distance b. Cathode size c. Alignment of film d. Objects radiation film e. Focal spot-film distance 61. The primary actions of radiation on the living system are direct and indirect. Direct effect is when the photon is absorb by water which produce changes in the biologic macromolecules. a. 1st statement false, 2nd true b. 1st statement true, 2nd false c. Both statements are true d. Both statements are false 62. Exposure for a complete intraoral x-ray examination for an adult patient a. 50 rads b. .01 rad c. 5 rads d. 2 rads e. 1 rad 63. After developing her bitewings, a dentist realizes that she has too much overlap between the contacts of adjacent teeth. This is an error caused by: a. Incorrect horizontal angulation b. Too little vertical angulation c. Beam not aimed at center of film d. Too much vertical angulation 64. Intensifying screens are used with extraoral films to: a. Improve image quality b. Increase the exposure time c. Decrease radiation to the patient d. Increase the Kvp 65. Which of the following is the correct description of intensifying screens: a. Thicker phosphor layers result in faster screens b. Thinner phosphor layers result in more unsharpness

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c. Thicker phosphor layers result in less unsharpness d. Thinner phosphor layers will result to faster screens Which of the following components of an x-ray unit determines quality of the x-ray beam? a. X-ray timer switch b. Cathode filament temperature c. Milliamperage control switch d. Autotransformer The density of a radiograph is reduced by increasing: a. Exposure time b. Kilovoltage c. Miliamperage d. Diameter of the aperture e. Source-film distance Radiographic sign of ankylosed teeth: a. Thick lamina dura b. Wide periodontal space c. Loss of periodontal space d. Break in lamina dura Which of the following statements are false? Tungsten is used as a target material because: I. Of its ability to decelerate electrons from the cathode II. Of its low vapor pressure at high temperature III. It has a high atomic number IV. It has high degree of thermal conductivity V. It has a light nucleus with few orbiting electrons to interfere with the flow of electrons a. IV,V b. I,III c. II,IV d. III,V e. I,II The primary reason for using fast films is to: a. Reduce the radiation dose to the patient b. Reduce the processing time c. Save time in the dental office d. Give a better image quality The paralleling technique is recommended over the bisecting-angle technique because: a. It cuts developing time b. It uses slow film c. It gives a less distorted picture of the length of the tooth d. Positioning the film is easier The paralleling technique is recommended over the bisecting-angle technique because: a. Positioning the film is easier b. It uses slow film

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c. It cuts developing time d. It gives a less distorted picture of the length of the tooth The electrons that revolve in shells around the nucleus: a. Have a positive charge b. Have no charge, either positive or negative c. Have negative charge d. Have either a positive or negative charge Which of the following is a hardening agent in film processing? a. Potassium hydroxide b. Acetic acid c. Potassium alum d. Potassium bromide The component of developer that gives detail to the radiographic image is: a. Sodium sulfite b. Sodium carbonate c. Potassium bromide d. Hydroquinone If a film is stripped from its pocket and exposed to light, after processing it will: a. Turn white b. Turn black c. Be translucent d. Be unaffected If the intensity of a beam of radiation is 12 at a point 12 inches from the target, the intensity of the beam at 24 inches is: a. 4 b. 2 c. 6 d. 3 Uses of the panoramic radiograph include all of the following except? a. Evaluation of impacted teeth b. Detection of diseases, lesions and conditions of the jaws c. Examination of the extent of large lesions d. Evaluation of eruption patterns and growth and development e. Diagnosis of early carious lesions A periapical of the left maxillary canine shows an elongated tooth which does not capture the apex of the canine. While taking the periapical of the left maxillary canine, the operator had an: a. Incorrect vertical angulation b. Wrong usage of film c. Incorrect horizontal angulation d. None of these The advantage of the paralleling technique over bisecting-angle technique is:

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a. That the central ray is perpendicular to an imaginary line drawn through half the angle between the long axis of the teeth and the film b. The increased anatomic accuracy of the radiographic image c. The greater magnification of the image d. The increase object-film distance The technique that show the upper and lower crowns on the same radiograph is called the: a. Bisecting-angle technique b. Occlusal technique c. Paralleling technique d. Bite-wing technique To avoid exposure to secondary radiation when taking radiographs, the dentist should stand: a. At least 3 ft from the px b. At the back of the px c. At least 6ft from the source of secondary radiation d. Next to the px The x-ray beam is filtered to: a. Restrict the beam size b. Soften the beam c. Remove short wavelength x-rays d. Remove long wavelength x-rays The least radiosensitive tissue in the body a. Blood b. Skin c. Nerve tissue d. Muscle tissue Earliest radiographic sign of periapical disease of pulpal in origin: a. Break in lamina dura b. Loss lamina dura c. Widen periodontal space d. Loss periodontal space Which of the following is not a disadvantage of the bisecting technique? a. Image on x-ray film may be dimensionally distorted (amount may vary) b. May not be able to judge the correct alveolar bone height c. Increased exposure time d. Due to the use of a short cone (which results in divergent rays), the image is not a true reproduction of the object The primary purpose of a lead diaphragm within the cone of an x-ray tube head is to: a. Eliminate long wavelength x-ray photons b. Increase penetrating qualities of the beam c. Reduce or eliminate tube head leakage d. Restrict size and shape of the beam of radiation Radiographic image contrast is primarily ...