PARA211 Quiz 4 - Quiz PDF

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Home PARA211 2018 Semester 2 National Unit Assessments Quiz 4 1. Which dermatome level innervates the dorsal part of the hand for the index and middle finger? a. C5 b. C7 c. C8 d. C6 The correct answer is: C7 2. Choose the incorrect response. Non-convulsive or ‘subtle’ status epilepticus: a. Always presents with subtle convulsive movements such as twitching b. Evolves from previously overt generalised convulsive status epilepticus c. Is characterised by coma with ongoing seizure activity on EEG d. Is associated with high mortality The correct answer is: Always presents with subtle convulsive movements such as twitching 3. A risk associated with atrial fibrillation is: a. Thromboembolism and stroke b. Thromboembolism and pulmonary effusion c. Rheumatic heart disease d. Deep vein thrombosis The correct answer is: Thromboembolism and stroke 4. A patient with a GCS of 9 will have the following: a. eye opening to pain, incomprehensible words, withdraw from pain/normal flexion. b. eye opening to pain, no verbal sounds, withdraw from pain/normal flexion; c. eye opening to voice, inappropriate words, withdraw from pain/normal flexion; d. eye opening to pain, inappropriate words, withdraw from pain/normal flexion; The correct answer is: eye opening to pain, inappropriate words, withdraw from pain/normal flexion 5. The seizure type(s) that typically requires Midazolam in the pre-hospital setting is/are: a. Tonic/clonic b. All of the answers are correct c. Myoclonic d. Tonic e. Clonic The correct answer is: Tonic/clonic 6. Which of the following is classified as a focal/partial epileptic seizure? a. Absence b. Myoclonic. c. Tonic / clonic. d. Complex The correct answer is: Complex

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Home PARA211 2018 Semester 2 National Unit Assessments Quiz 4 7. A patient reacts to supraorbital pressure by moving their hand up to his face. How would you record this response? a. Normal flexion b. Localises c. Abnormal flexion d. Extension The correct answer is: Localises 8. As per the most recent GCS update, when assessing a patient, you should: a. Check, Observe, Stimulate, Rate b. Look, Feel, Rate, Stimulate c. Observe, Move, Feel, Rate d. Check, Rate, Feel, Stimulate, The correct answer is: Check, Observe, Stimulate, Rate 9. Autonomic Dysreflexia is a potentially life-threatening condition, which affects individuals with spinal cord injury typically from a lesion at or above: a. T4 b. T5 c. T7 d. T6 The correct answer is: T6 10. Typical signs of a LEFT sided stroke include: a. Thunderclap headache, Altered/LOC, often no facial deficit b. Right face/arm/leg weakness, +/- dysphagia, +/- loss of Right vision c. Left face/arm/leg weakness, +/- inattention to Left, +/- loss of Left vision d. Vertigo (spinning), unsteady gait, double vision (not just blurred) The correct answer is: Right face/arm/leg weakness, +/- dysphagia, +/- loss of Right vision 11. Why is opioid pain relief utilised in the treatment of Autonomic Dysreflexia? a. To increase the bodies response to GTN b. To dull down the noxious stimuli response c. To decrease blood pressure and calm the patient d. To decrease breathing effort and relax muscles The correct answer is: To dull down the noxious stimuli response 12. A symptom of Bell’s palsy is facial paralysis, however symptoms typically differ from stroke because: a. The patient cannot raise their eyebrow or wrinkle forehead on affected side b. The patient has a gradual onset of headache, progressing to maximum intensity c. The patient has facial weakness and dysphasia only d. The patient has facial paralysis and arm weakness only (no leg weakness) The correct answer is: The patient cannot raise their eyebrow or wrinkle forehead on affected side Page 2 of 5

Home PARA211 2018 Semester 2 National Unit Assessments Quiz 4

13. When treating a seizing diabetic patient with a BGL of 1.3mmol/L, the order of management priorities are: a. Treatment of hypoglycaemia then Midazolam then airway & ventilation b. Airway & ventilation then treatment of hypoglycaemia then Midazolam c. Airway & ventilation then Midazolam then treatment of hypoglycaemia d. Midazolam then airway & ventilation then treatment of hypoglycaemia The correct answer is: Airway & ventilation then Midazolam then treatment of hypoglycaemia 14. If you were told by a colleague that their assessment of a patient’s Glasgow Coma Scale was E2, V3, M5, how would you interpret this? a. The patient’s eyes open to sound, they are orientated are able to obey commands b. The patient’s eyes open to pressure, they can utter some words but do not form sentences, and they are able to localise to trapezius pinch. c. The patient’s eyes open to pressure, they are confused and have abnormal flexion d. The patient’s eyes open spontaneously; they are orientated and able to obey commands The correct answer is: The patient’s eyes open to pressure, they can utter some words but do not form sentences, and they are able to localise to trapezius pinch. 15. Drug ‘B’ comes in a 1mg in 10ml ampule. Your patient requires 500mcg of drug ‘B’, how many millilitres will you administer? a. 0.2ml b. 5.0ml c. 2.0ml d. 0.5ml The correct answer is: 5.0ml 16. Which of the following would be classified as a primary headache? a. Acute febrile illness b. Raised intracranial pressure c. Migraine d. Head injury The correct answer is: Migraine 17. When completing a stroke assessment, the finding of an abnormal BGL is suggestive of stroke. a. True b. False The correct answer is 'False'. 18. Acute dystonic reactions present as involuntary, sustained, repetitive muscle contractions that may be painful. Medications most likely to cause an acute dystonic reaction include: a. Antipsychotics b. Antibiotics c. All of the answers are correct Page 3 of 5

Home PARA211 2018 Semester 2 National Unit Assessments Quiz 4 d. Antiemetics The correct answer is: All of the answers are correct 19. Which of the following is NOT a red flag when assessing headaches? a. Progressive over time b. Previous HX of intracranial bleed c. New onset in patients over 50 d. Associated with a fever The correct answer is: Previous HX of intracranial bleed 20. If when you approach the patient they are awake and looking at you, how would you record this on the Glasgow Coma Scale? a. Spontaneous eye opening b. Obeying commands c. Orientated d. Eyes not testable (NT) The correct answer is: Spontaneous eye opening 21. Hypoglycaemia, Todd's paralysis and electrolyte imbalances can be classified as; a. Stroke mimics b. Causes of a stroke c. Stroke symptoms d. Stroke deficits The correct answer is: Stroke mimics 22. Midazolam works by? a. By agonising 5HT b. By antagonising 5HT c. By agonising GABA d. By antagonising GABA The correct answer is: By agonising GABA 23. When assessing a patient, what is the reason for the CHECK step in the assessment? a. To check for dangers b. To identify factors that may interfere with the assessment c. To look at the previous Glasgow Coma Scale assessment on the patient’s chart d. To listen for sounds from the patient The correct answer is: To identify factors that may interfere with the assessment 24. AEIOUTIPS is can be used for differentials of ALOC. 'S' can stand for a. All of the above b. Sepsis c. Stroke d. Shock

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Home PARA211 2018 Semester 2 National Unit Assessments Quiz 4 The correct answer is: All of the above

25. You attend an elderly gentleman who has collapsed at home. His eyes open to voice, his speech is inappropriate/words and he localises to pain. His GCS is: a. 11 b. 14 c. 13 d. 10 The correct answer is: 11

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