Patho 370 CYU #3 - Assigned practice questions for weekly tests. PDF

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Assigned practice questions for weekly tests....

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Path 370: Check Your Understanding #3 1. Myocarditis should be suspected in a patient who presents with: a. Chest pain and ST elevation b. Acute onset of left ventricular dysfunction c. Murmur and abnormal valves on echocardiogram d. Family history of cardiomyopathy 2. A middle-aged patient has a follow up visit for a recorded blood pressure of 162/96 mm Hg taken 3 weeks ago. The patient has no significant past medical history and takes no medications, but smokes 1 1/2 packs of cigarettes per day, drinks alcohol regularly, and exercises infrequently. The patient is about 40 lbs. overweight and admits to a high-fat, high-calorie diet. At the office visit today, the patient’s blood pressure is 150/92 mm Hg. What is the least appropriate intervention for this patient at this time? a. Begin lifestyle modifications b. Begin antihypertensive drug therapy c. Recheck blood pressure in 4 to 6 weeks d. Encourage smoking cessation 3. A patient is diagnosed with cardiogenic shock. The patient is hyperventilating and is therefore at risk for the respiratory complication of respiratory acidosis. a. True b. False 4. Rheumatic heart disease is most often a consequence of: a. Chronic intravenous drug abuse b. Viral infection with herpesvirus c. Beta-hemolytic streptococcal infection d. Cardiomyopathy 5. A patient has a history of falls, syncope, dizziness, and blurred vision. The patient’s symptomatology is most likely related to: a. Hypertension b. Hypotension c. Deep vein thrombosis d. Angina 6. What compensatory sign would be expected during periods of physical exertion in a patient with limited ventricular stroke volume? a. Hypotension b. Bradycardia c. Aortic regurgitation d. Tachycardia 7. Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors block the: a. Release of renin b. Conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II c. Conversion of angiotensinogen to angiotensin I d. Effect of aldosterone on the kidney

8. What results when systemic blood pressure is increased? a. Hypovolemia b. Decreased cardiac output c. Vasoconstriction d. Decreased vascular resistance 9. High blood pressure increases the workload of the left ventricle, because it increases: a. Stroke volume b. Blood volume c. Preload d. Afterload 10. A patient presents to the emergency department with a diastolic blood pressure of 132 mm Hg, retinopathy, and symptoms of an ischemic stroke. This symptomatology is likely the result of: a. Atherosclerosis b. Angina c. Myocardial infarction d. Hypertensive crisis 11. Patent ductus arteriosus is accurately described as a(n): a. Opening between the atria b. Structure of the aorta that impedes blood flow c. Communication between the aorta and the pulmonary artery d. Cyanotic heart defect associated with right-to-left shunt 12. Patients presenting with symptoms of unstable angina and no ST segment elevation are treated with: a. Cardiac catheterization b. Antiplatelet drugs c. Acute reperfusion therapy d. Cardiac biomarkers only 13. An example of an acyanotic heart defect is: a. Tetralogy of Fallot b. Transposition of the great arteries c. Ventricular septal defect d. All right-to-left shunt defects 14. Which finding is indicative of orthostatic hypotension in a person with a supine blood pressure (BP) of 110/70 and a heart rate (HR) of 100? a. Sitting BP 88/60, HR 118 b. Sitting BP 108/68, HR 102 c. Sitting BP 110/78, HR 98 d. Sitting BP 120/80, HR 100 15. Primary treatment for myocardial infarction (MI) is directed at: a. Protecting the heart from further ischemia b. Decreasing myocardial oxygen demands c. Reducing heart rate and blood pressure

d. Activating the parasympathetic system 16. Hypertension is closely linked to: a. Obstructive sleep apnea b. Urinary tract infection c. De Quervain syndrome d. Spinal stenosis 17. New-organ damage is a function of both the stage of hypertension and its duration. a. True b. False 18. The prevalence of high blood pressure is higher in: a. non-Hispanic white adults b. Mexican-American adults c. non-Hispanic black adults d. Asian children 19. Angina caused by coronary artery spasm is called ______ angina. a. Stable b. Classic c. Unstable d. Prinzmetal variant 20. The majority of cardiac cells that die after myocardial infarction do so because of: a. Cell rupture b. Insufficient glucose c. Thrombus d. Apoptosis 21. Tachycardia is an early sign of low cardiac output that occurs because of: a. Tissue hypoxia b. Anxiety c. Baroreceptor activity d. Acidosis 22. Hypertrophy of the right ventricle is a compensatory response to: a. Aortic stenosis b. Aortic regurgitation c. Tricuspid stenosis d. Pulmonary stenosis 23. The majority of cases of anaphylactic shock occur when a sensitized individual comes in contact with: a. Perfumes b. Incompatible blood products c. Animal proteins or dander d. Antibiotics 24. In which stage of shock is a patient who has lost 1200 mL of blood, who has normal blood pressure when supine, but who experiences orthostatic hypotension upon standing? a. Class I, initial stage

b. Class II, compensated stage c. Class III, progressive stage d. Class IV, refractory stage 25. Disseminated intravascular coagulation is a serious complication of septic shock characterized by abnormal clot formation in the microvasculature throughout the body. a. True b. False 26. A patient who is involved in a fall from a tree becomes short of breath. The lung sounds are absent on one side. The patient is experiencing ______ shock. a. Cardiogenic b. Obstructive c. Hypovolemic d. Distributive 27. Cardiogenic shock is characterized by: a. Hypovolemia b. Reduced systemic vascular resistance c. Reduced cardiac output d. Elevated SvO2 28. Low cardiac output in association with high preload is characteristic of ______ shock. a. Hypovolemic b. Cardiogenic c. Anaphylactic d. Septic 29. The progressive stage of hypovolemic shock is characterized by: a. Tachycardia b. Hypertension c. Lactic acidosis d. Cardiac failure 30. Low cardiac output to the kidneys stimulates the release of _____ from juxtaglomerular cells. a. Aldosterone b. Norepinephrine c. Angiotensinogen d. Renin 31. Beta-blockers are advocated in the management of heart failure because they: a. Increase cardiac output b. Reduce cardiac output c. Enhance sodium absorption d. Reduce blood flow to the kidneys 32. Hypotension associated with neurogenic and anaphylactic shock is because of: a. Hypovolemia b. Peripheral pooling of blood c. Poor cardiac contractility

d. High afterload 33. Which dysrhythmia is thought to be associated with reentrant mechanisms? a. Second-degree AV block b. Sinus bradycardia c. Junctional escape d. Preexcitation syndrome tachycardia (Wolf-Parkinson-White syndrome) 34. An abnormally wide (more than 0.10 second) QRS complex is characteristic of: a. Paroxysmal atrial tachycardia b. Supraventricular tachycardia c. Junctional escape rhythm d. Premature ventricular complexes 35. The common denominator in all forms of heart failure is: a. Poor diastolic filling b. Reduced cardiac output c. Pulmonary edema d. Tissue ischemia 36. A patient presenting with fever, hypotension, and lactic acidosis is most likely to be experiencing what type of shock? a. Cardiogenic b. Septic c. Anaphylactic d. Neurogenic 37. The majority of tachydysrhythmias are believed to occur because of: a. Triggered activity b. Enhanced automaticity c. Defective gap junctions d. Reentry mechanisms 38. Sepsis has been recently redefined as: a. A systemic infection with viable organisms in the bloodstream b. A systemic inflammatory response to ischemia c. A systemic inflammatory response to infection d. Severe hypotension in an infected patient 39. In contrast to all other types of shock, the hyperdynamic phase of septic shock is associated with: a. High afterload b. Low cardiac output c. High cardiac output d. Reduced contractility 40. A type of shock that includes brain trauma that results in depression of the vasomotor center is cardiogenic. a. True b. False...