Patho Quizlet PDF

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Patho Study online at quizlet.com/_n2vkq 1.

T

Nonpathogenic bacteria in the gastrointestinal tract produce chemicals that inhibit colonization of pathogenic microorganisms

2.

T

Many of the normal bacterial flora in the intestines produce vitamin K and assist with the absorption of calcium, iron and magnesium.

3.

T

Opsonization is a process that renders bacteria more susceptible to phagocytosis.

4.

F

The main function of natural killers cells is recognition and elimination of bacteria

5.

F

The inflammatory response is the body's first line of defense.

6.

F

Activated T and B lymphocytes provide innate immunity.

7.

F

Neutrophils are involved in activation of the adaptive immune system.

8.

T

Several bacteria, such as Mycobacterium tuberculosis, are resistant to killing by granulocytes and can survive inside macrophages.

9.

T

Eosinophils phagocytose parasites

10.

T

Resolution is best defined as the restoration of original structure and physiologic function.

11.

C

What is a purpose of the inflammatory process? A. To provide specific responses toward antigens B. To lyse cell membranes of microorganisms C. To prevent infection of the injured tissue D. To create immunity against subsequent tissue injury

12.

13.

14.

B

D

C

How do surfactant proteins A & D provide innate resistance? A. They initiate the complement cascade. B. They promote phagocytosis C. They secrete mucus. D. They synthesize lysosomes. Which secretion provides antibacterial and antifungal fatty acids and lactic acid to provide a first line of defense? A. Tears B. Saliva C. Perspiration D. Sebaceous glands Which bacterium grows in the intestines after prolonged antibiotic therapy? A. Lactobacillus B. Candida albicans C. Clostridium difficile D. Helicobacter pylori

15.

A

Which antimicrobial peptide is activated by tumor necrosis factor alpha and is found in alveolar macrophages and T-lymphocytes? A. -Defensins B. -Defensins C. Cathelicidin D. Interleukin 1

16.

B

What process causes edema that occurs during the inflammatory process? A. Vasodilation B. Increased capillary permeability C. Endothelial cell contraction D. Emigration of neutrophils

17.

A

What process causes heat and redness that occur during the inflammatory process? A. Vasodilation B. Platelet aggregation C. Increased capillary permeability D. Endothelial cell contraction

18.

A

Which component of the plasma protein system tags pathogenic microorganisms for destruction by neutrophils and macrophages? A. Complement cascade B. Clotting system C. Kinin system D. Immune system

19.

C

What is a vascular effect of histamine released from mast cells? A. Platelet adhesion B. Initiation of the clotting cascade C. Vasodilation D. Increased endothelial adhesiveness

20.

D

What is an outcome of the complement cascade? A. Activates the clotting cascade B. Prevents the spread of infection to adjacent tissues C. Inactivates chemical mediators such as histamine D. Attacks bacterial cell membranes

21.

A

What is function of the complement cascade called opsonization? A. It is the tagging of pathogenic microorganisms for destruction by neutrophils and macrophages. B. It is the processing of pathogenic microorganisms so that activated lymphocytes can be created for acquired immunity. C. It is the destruction of glycoprotein cell membranes of pathogenic microorganisms. D. It is the anaphylatoxic activity resulting in mast cell degranulation.

22.

D

Which chemical interacts among all plasma protein systems by degrading blood clots, activating complement and activating the Hageman factor? A. Kallikrein B. Histamine C. Bradykinin D. Plasmin

23.

A

Which chemical mediators induce pain during an inflammatory response? A. Prostaglandins and bradykinin B. Leukotrienes and serotonin C. Tryptase and histamine D. Phospholipase and prostacyclin

24.

25.

C

C

What effect does chemotactic factor have on the inflammatory process? A. It causes vasodilation around the inflamed area. B. It stimulates smooth muscle contraction in the inflamed area. C. It directs leukocytes to the inflamed area. D. It produces edema around the inflamed area. Which chemical mediator derived from mast cells retracts endothelial cells to increase vascular permeability and causes leukocyte adhesion to endothelial cells? A. Leukotrienes B. Prostaglandin E C. Platelet-activating factor D. Bradykinin

26.

D

What are the inflammatory effects of nitric oxide (NO)? A. It increases capillary permeability and causes pain. B. It increases neutrophil chemotaxis and platelet aggregation. C. It causes smooth muscle contraction and fever. D. It decreases mast cell function and decreases platelet aggregation.

27.

C

When looking at white blood cell differentials, nurses know that patients have early, acute inflammatory reactions when they notice elevations of which leukocyte? A. Monocytes B. Eosinophils C. Neutrophils D. Basophils

28.

B

The predominant phagocytic cells in the later stages of an inflammatory response are: A. neutrophils. B. monocytes. C. macrophages. D. eosinophils.

29.

B

What is the role of eosinophils in regulating vascular mediators released from mast cells? A. Eosinophils release arylsulfatase B, which stimulates the formation of B lymphocytes. B. Eosinophils release histaminase, which limits the effects of histamine during acute inflammation. C. Eosinophils release lysosomal enzymes, which activate mast cell degranulation during acute inflammation. D. Eosinophils release immunoglobulin E, which defends the body against parasites.

30.

D

Which cytokines are produced and released from virally infected host cells? A. Interleukin 1 (Il-1) B. Interleukin 10 (Il-10) C. Tumor necrosis factor alpha (TNF D. Interferons alpha and beta (IFN and IFN )

31.

C

Where is tumor necrosis factor alpha (TNF ) secreted? A. From virally infected cells B. From bacterial infected cells C. From macrophages D. From mast cells

32.

B

Which manifestation of inflammation is systemic? A. Formation of exudates B. Fever and leukocytosis C. Redness and heat D. Pain and edema

33.

A

One systemic manifestation of the acute inflammatory response is fever that is produced by: A. endogenous pyrogens acting on the hypothalamus. B. bacterial endotoxin acting on the hypothalamus. C. antigen-antibody complexes acting on the hypothalamus. D. exogenous pyrogens acting directly on the hypothalamus.

34.

A

What occurs during the process of repair after tissue damage? A. Destroyed tissue is replaced by non-functioning scar tissue. B. Regeneration occurs in which original tissue is replaced. C. Resolution occurs when tissue is regenerated. D. Destroyed tissue is replaced by epithelialization.

35.

C

What is the role of fibroblasts during the reconstructive phase of wound healing? A. To generate new capillaries from vascular endothelial cells around the wound B. To establish connections between neighboring cells and contract their fibers C. To synthesize and secrete collagen and the connective tissue proteins D. To provide enzymes that debride the wound bed of dead cells

36.

B

_____ may activate the complement system. A. Viruses B. Antigen-antibody complexes C. Mast cells D. Macrophages

37.

B

The _____ system is a plasma protein system that forms a fibrinous network at an inflamed site to prevent spread of infection to adjacent tissues and keep microorganisms and foreign bodies at the site of greatest inflammatory activity. A. complement B. coagulation C. kinin D. fibrinolysis

38.

39.

40.

41.

C

A

C

C

In the clotting cascade, the intrinsic and the extrinsic pathways converge at: A. factor XII. B. Hageman factor. C. factor X. D. factor V. When histamine binds the histamine 2 (H2) receptor, inflammation is: A. inhibited. B. activated. C. accelerated. D. not changed.

44.

B

Many neonates have a transient depressed inflammatory response because: A. their circulatory system is too immature to adequately perfuse tissues. B. they are deficient in complement and chemotaxis. C. they have an insufficient number of mast cells. D. their lungs are too immature to deliver oxygen to tissues.

45.

C

Why do many older adults have impaired inflammation and wound healing? A. Because their circulatory system cannot adequately perfuse tissues. B. Because they are deficient in complement and chemotaxis. C. Because they have underlying chronic illnesses. D. Because they have an insufficient number of mast cells.

46.

B

What is a role of natural killer cells? A. To initiate the complement cascade B. To eliminate malignant cells C. To bind tightly to antigens D. To proliferate after immunization with antigen

47.

B E A D C

Match each step of phagocytosis with its function. A. Opsonization B. Engulfment C. Phagosome D. Fusion E. Destruction

Frequently histamine 1 (H1) and histamine 2 (H2) receptors are located on the same cells and act in a/an _____ fashion. A. synergistic B. additive C. antagonistic D. agonistic

1. Microorganisms are ingested 2. Microorganisms are killed and digested 3. Enhance recognition and adherence of bacteria by phagocytes

Which of the following indicates a correct sequence in phagocytosis? A. Engulfment, recognition, fusion, destruction B. Fusion, engulfment, recognition, destruction C. Recognition, engulfment, fusion, destruction D. Engulfment, fusion, recognition, destruction

4. Lysosomal granules enter the phagocyte 5. Intracellular phagocytic vacuole is formed 48.

42.

A

Which solution is best to use when cleaning a wound that is healing by epithelialization? A. Normal saline B. Povidone-iodine C. Hydrogen peroxide D. Dakins solution

43.

C

A keloid is the result of which dysfunctional wound healing response? A. Impaired epithelialization B. Impaired contraction C. Impaired collagen matrix assembly D. Impaired maturation

B A B B

Match the biochemical barriers with its function. (Terms can be used more than once.) A. Secrete antibacterial and antifungal fatty acids and lactic acid B. Attack cell walls of gram positive bacteria

6. Tears 7. Sebaceous glands 8. Perspiration 9. Saliva 49.

T

Each individual T and B lymphocyte specifically recognizes only one particular antigen

50.

F

Antibodies cannot protect a host against viral infections

51.

F

Most antigens react directly with cells of the immune system

52.

T

Before birth, humans produce a large number of T lymphocytes (T cells) and B lymphocytes (B cells) that have the capacity to recognize almost any foreign antigen found in the environment.

53.

T

An antigen that is capable of inducing an immune response is called an immunogen.

54.

F

T lymphocytes are primarily responsible for protection against bacteria and a variety of viruses.

55.

T

Major histocompatibility complex (MHC) molecules are located on the surface of all body cells except erythrocytes.

56.

F

Endogenous protein antigens are presented by Class II molecules of major histocompatibility complex (MHC).

57.

T

While macrophages present processed antigens to memory Th cells, B lymphocytes present antigens to helper Th cells.

58.

T

The helper T cell (Th) interacts with immunocompetent B cells causing the production of a plasma cells.

59.

B

What are primary characteristics that differentiate the immune response from other protective mechanisms such as inflammation? A. The immune system responds in the same way each time it is activated. B. The immune response is specific to the antigen that initiates it. C. The immune response is a short-term response to a specific pathogen. D. The immune response is an innate response, rather than acquired.

60.

C

Where do B lymphocytes mature and undergo changes that commit them to becoming B cells? A. In the thymus gland B. In regional lymph nodes C. In bone marrow D. In the spleen

61.

A

What is the term for the process in which lymphoid stem cells migrate from the bone marrow to the central lymphoid organs (the thymus or bone marrow) where they undergo cellular changes into either immunocompetent T cells or immunocompetent B cells? A. Generation of clonal diversity B. Clonal differentiation C. Clonal selection D. Clonal competence

62.

B

Which type of immunity is produced by an individual after either natural exposure to the antigen or after immunization against the antigen? A. Passive acquired immunity B. Active acquired immunity C. Passive innate immunity D. Active innate immunity

63.

A

What type of immunity is produced when an immunoglobulin crosses the placenta? A. Passive acquired immunity B. Active acquired immunity C. Passive innate immunity D. Active innate immunity

64.

C

The portion of the antigen that is configured for recognition and binding is called an antigenic determinant or a(n): A. immunotope. B. paratope. C. epitope. D. antigenitope.

65.

B

What is the most important determinant of immunogenicity? A. The antigen's size B. The antigen's foreignness C. The antigen's complexity D. The antigen's quantity

66.

D

When antigens are administered to patients to produce immunity, why are different routes of administration used (e.g., some are given intravenously, whereas others are given subcutaneously or nasally)? A. Different routes allow the speed of onset of the antigen to be varied, with intravenous route being the fastest. B. Some individuals appear to be unable to respond to an antigen by a specific route, thus requiring the availability of different routes for the same antigen. C. Antigen-presenting cells are highly specialized and thus require stimulation by different routes. D. Each route stimulates a different lymphocytecontaining tissue resulting in different types of cellular and humoral immunity.

67.

A

How are the functions of major histocompatibility molecules and CD1 molecules alike? A. They are both antigen-presenting molecules. B. They both bind antigens to antibodies. C. They both secrete interleukins during the immune process. D. They are both capable of activating cytotoxic T lymphocytes.

68.

C

Where are antibodies produced? A. In helper T lymphocytes B. In the thymus gland C. In plasma cells D. In the bone marrow

69.

70.

71.

A

B

D

Which immunoglobulin is present in blood, saliva, breast milk, and respiratory secretions? A. Immunoglobulin A (IgA) B. Immunoglobulin E (IgE) C. Immunoglobulin G (IgG) D. Immunoglobulin M (IgM) Which antibody is detected in the circulation to indicate a typical primary immune response? A. IgG B. IgM C. IgA D. IgE How is the function of the B-cell receptor (BCR) complex different from the function of circulating antibodies? A. The B-cell receptor (BCR) complex communicates information about the antigen to the helper T cell. B. The B-cell receptor (BCR) complex secretes chemical signals to communicate between cells. C. The B-cell receptor (BCR) complex recognizes the antigen on the surface of the B lymphocyte. D. The B-cell receptor (BCR) complex communicates information about the antigen to the cell nucleus.

72.

C

If a person had very low levels of Ig__, he or she may be more susceptible to infections of mucous membranes. A. G B. M C. A D. E

73.

A

During which phase of life does the generation of clonal diversity occur? A. In the fetus B. In the neonate C. In the infant after first immunizations D. In the first year of life

74.

75.

C

B

Which are characteristics of the generation of clonal diversity? A. The process involves antigens selecting those lymphocytes with compatible receptors. B. The process allows the differentiation of cells into antibody-secreting plasma cells or mature T cells. C. The process takes place in the primary (central) lymphoid organs (i.e., thymus and bone marrow). D. The process causes antigens to expand and diversify their populations. Which are characteristics of clonal selection? A. The process is driven by hormones and does not require foreign antigens. B. The process involves antigens selecting those lymphocytes with compatible receptors. C. The process takes place in the primary (central) lymphoid organs (i.e., thymus and bone marrow). D. The process generates immature, but immunocompetent T and B cells with receptors

76.

C

Which is an example of an exogenous antigen? A. Virus B. Cancer cells C. Bacteria

77.

B

Which cytokine is needed for the maturation of a functional helper T cell? A. Interleukin-1 (Il-1) B. Interleukin-2 (Il-2) C. Interleukin-4 (Il-4) D. Interleukin-12 (Il-12)

78.

C

Helper T 2 cells (Th2) produce interleukin 4 (Il-4) that suppresses which lymphocytes? A. B lymphocytes B. Cytotoxic T lymphocytes C. Helper T1 cells (Th1) D. Memory T lymphocytes

79.

B

What are characteristics of helper T1 cells (Th1)? A. They are induced by antigens derived from allergens. B. They are induced by antigens derived from cancer cells. C. They produce interleukins 4, 5, 6, and 13. D. They assist in the development of humoral immunity.

80.

A

What are characteristics of helper T2 cells (Th2)? A. They are induced by antigens derived from allergens. B. They are induced by antigens derived from cancer cells. C. They produce interleukin 1 (Il-2) tumor necrosis factor ß and interferon D. They assist in the development of cell-mediated immunity.

81.

D

When a person is exposed to most antigens, how long does it take before an antibody can be detected in the circulation? A. 12 hours B. 24 hours C. 3 days D. 6 days

82.

B

How are vaccinations able to provide protection against certain microorganisms? A. Because of the strong response from immunoglobulin M (IgM) B. Because of the level of protection provided by immunoglobulin G (IgG) C...