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[Pharmaclogy - exam practice]

1. Which of the following is carbapenerm? a. Meropenem b. Cefuroxime c.

Ampiciiine

d.

Meziocyline

e. Clarithromycin

2. The major antibacterial effect of concerning: a. Staphylococci b. Streptococci c. Gram(-) Pseudomonas aeruginosal Serrati d. Helicobacter pylori e. Mycopiasmal Chiamydias

3. Sulfasalazine belongs to: a. Sulphonamides b. Penicillins c. Cephalosporins d. Quinolones e. Aminoglycosides antibiotics

4. Which of the following does NOT belong to amino glycoside antibiotics a. Streptomycin b. Kanamycin c. Amikacin d. Tobramycin e. Trimetoprim

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5.

Leukotriene receptor antagonist is NOT a. Zafirlucast b. Monelucast c. Cinalucast d. Zileuton

6. Which of the listed below is NOT characteristic for thyroid hormones? a. increased body temperature b. heat intolerance c. lowered blood free fatty acids d. tremor e. weight gaining

7.

A drug included in the group of beta-adrenergic receptor blockers, showing additional vasodilatory effect, is: a. metoprolol b. bisoprolol c. carvedilol d. omeprazole e. acebutolol

8. The most clinically effective mycobacterial first choice drugs include: 1. isoniazid 2. fluoroquinolone 3. rifampin 4. ethambutol

a. 1,2,3 b. 1,2,4 c. 2,3,4 d. 1,3,4

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e. none of the above

9.

Which of the following statements concerning the effects of metformin is true? a. inhibition of glucogenesis and glycogen’s in the liver b. increase of cellular sensitivity to insulin c. inhibition of intestinal absorption of glucose d. a,b e. a,b,c

10. Beta-lactam antibiotics do NOT include: a. penicillins b. glycopeptides c. cephalosporins d. carbapenems e. monobactams

11. The following are NOT macrolide antibiotics a. erytromycin b. clarithromycin c. roxithromycin d. streptomycin e. all of the above are macrolids

12. The potential side effects of glucocorticoids is/aer NOT: a. anemia b. diabetes c. cataract, glaucoma d. increase in arterial blood pressure e. lipid disorders (iatrogenic Cushing’s syndrome)

13. The mechanism of action of sulfonamides consists of:

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a. suppressing/blocking dehydrogenase of dihydrofolic acid b. suppressing/blocking topoisomerase IV and gyrase c. an antagonizing action to para aminobenzoic acid d. damaging bacterial DNA through the products of acetylation e. suppressing/blocking the synthesis of bacterial protein by binding the 50s ribosome subunit

14. The diuretic that conserve potassium is/are: a. spironolactone b. eperenone c. amiloride d. a,b e. a,b,c

15. The antagonist of angiotensin receptor AT1 is/are: a. losartan b. candesartan c. valsartan d. eprosartan e. all of the above

16. The drug used for elimination of S. aureus from the nasal cavity and for the local treatment of minor dermatitis is/are: a. mupirocin b. bacitracin c. vancomycin d. teicoplanin e. linezolid

17. Ototoxicity, nephrotoxicity and curari form action are side effects of: a. vancomycin

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b. gentamicin c. ciprofloxacin d. bcc e. a,b,c

18. Suppression of cell wall synthesis through binding to the D-Ala-D-Ala end of the newly formed pentapeptide by suppressing tranglycosylase and cross binding is the mechanism of action of: a. fosfomycin b. bacitracin c. vancomycin d. b,c e. a,b,c

19. Please select the FALSE statement concerning metronidazole a. it has an antiprotozoal effect and is effective in the treatment of infections caused by anaerobic bacteria b. is effective in the treatment of colitis caused by Clostridium difficile and in eradication of Helicobacter pylori c. weakly penetrates into cerebrospinal fluid d. causes disulfiram reaction if used together with alcohol e. all of the above are correct

20. Buprenorphine is: a. a partial agonist of mu receptors and an antagonist of kappa receptors b. a partial agonist of mu receptors and an antagonist of delta receptors c. an agonist of delta and kappa receptors d. an agonist of mu and delta receptors e. an agonist of mu and kappa receptors

21. Which of the following drugs NOT be effective in asthma attack? a. Disodium bromide

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b. Theophylline c. Ipratropium bromide d. Salbutamol e. all of the above

22. Mechanism of action of loperamide consists of: a. stimulation of opioid receptors b. blocking opioid receptors c. stimulation of 5-HT4 receptors d. blocking 5-HT4 receptors e. blocking 5-HT3 receptors

23. Contraindications for the use of spironolactone is/are: a. hirsutism b. hiperaldosteronisim c. heart failure d. hyperkalemia e. liver failure

24. Beta-adrenolytic drugs 1. decrease left ventricle ejection 2. are used as antihypertensive medication 3. may cause bronchospasm in patients with asthma 4. are used as antiarrhythmic medication correct answers: a. 1,2,4 b. 1,3 c. 2,4 d. 4 e. 1,2,3,4

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25. Atropin-like drugs are contraindicated in: 1. gastroesophageal reflux 2. glaucoma 3. Parkinson’s disease 4. urine retention correct answers: a. 1,2,4 b. 1,3 c. 2,4 d. 4 e. 1,2,3,4

26. Which of the following drugs is characterized by significant selectivity towards beta2adrenergic receptor in the bronchi? 1. salbutamol 2. isoprenaline 3. terbutaline 4. noradrenaline correct answers: a. 1,2,4 b. 1,3 c. 2,4 d. 4 e. 1,2,3,4

27. The specific antidote used in the treatment of paracetamol intoxication is: a. glucgon b. N-acetylcysteine c. penicillamine d. naloxone e. flumazenil

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28. The reverse transcriptase inhibitors used in AIDS therapy and HIV infections is/are: a. zidovudine b. mepacrine c. nevirapine d. b,c e. a,c

29. The drugs that disrupt bone growth are: a. tetracyclines and fluoroquinolone b. penicillin and cephalosporins c. tetracycline and macrocodes d. carbapenems and cephalosporins e. sulfonamides

30. The representative of fluoroquinolnes is NOT a. gatifloxacin b. qinupristin c. norfloxacin d. ciprofloxacin e. ofloxacin

31. Increasing the potential action of drugs administered together, where the effect is greater than the sum of action of the individual components is called: a. functional antagonism b. hyperadditive synergism c. tachyphylaxis d. additive synergism e. idiosyncrasy

32. The mechanism of action of linezolid consists of: a. Blocking transpeptidase which leads to the suppression of bacterial wall synthesis

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b. Suppression of the introduction of triphosphate deoxynucleotides into the DNA the Herpes simples virus c. Stabilization of the gyrase-DNA complex, which leads to the suppression of DNA replication d. Suppression of the synthesis of bacterial protein by binding to the bacterial ribosome e. Suppression of folic acid synthesis by bacteria

33. Depression of the respiratory centre due to a toxic dose of morphine can be reversed by the administration of: a. nalorphine b. naloxone c. fentanyl d. a, b e. a,b,c

34. Which of the following are given in the case of neuroleptic malignant syndrome: a. biperiden, amantadine b. dantrolene, bromocriptine c. dantrolene, atropine d. diazepam, biperiden e. amantadine, atropine

35. Neuropathy caused by deficit of pyridoxine is a side effect of: a. isoniazid b. rifampicin c. fluoroquinolone d. ethambutol e. streptomycin

36. Aminoglycosides show a bactericidal synergetic effect in combination with: a. tetracyclines

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b. vancomycin c. beta-lactams d. a, b e. b,c

37. The first choice drug in the treatment of Erythema migrant(Lyme disease) is: a. doxycycline, which belongs to the aminoglycosides b. ceftriaxone, which belongs to cephalosporins c. erythromycin, which belongs to macrocodes d. erythromycin, which belongs to anminoglycosides e. doxycycline, which belongs to tetracyclines

38. With the use of Diazepam, you can observe the following effects: a. miorelaxing, anticonvulsant, anxiolytic b. anticonvulsant, sedative, antiemetic c. hypnotic, analgesic, sedative d. anxiolytic, antipsychotic, analgetic e. anticonvulsant, antipsychotic, sedative

39. A patient in anaphylactic shock should have which of following administered to them: a. adrenaline 0.5mg intramuscularly, oxygen 3 l/min, clementine 200mg i.v. b. adrenaline 0.3mg, oxygen 10 l/min, antazoline 200mg i.v. c. noradrenaline 0.5 mg intramuscularly, antazoline 200mg i.v., ranitidine 15mg i.v. d. adrenaline 1mg i.v., oxygen 5 l/min, antazoline 2 mg i.v. e. adrenaline 0.5 mg i.v., clemastine 2mg i.v., ranitidine 150mg orally

40. The first-choice drug in the treatment of systolic cardiac arrest is: a. atropine 3 mg i.v. b. adrenaline 1 mg i.v. c. amiodarone 300 mg i.v. d. lidocaine 300mg i.v.

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e. digoxin 0.1 mg i.v.

41. The anti platelet effect of acetylsalicylic acid is maintained for: a. 1 day b. 2-3 days c. 72 hours d. 6-12 hours e. 7 days

42. he drug of choice in the treatment of pneumonia caused by Mycoplasma pneumonia is: a. Neomycin b. Doxycycline c. Nafcillin d. Cloxacillin e. Vancomycin

43. Postantibiotic effect (PAE) means: a. Persisting adverse side effects after discontinuation of its use b. persisting bacterial flora disturbances despite discontinuation of the antibiotic c. Persisting antibiacterial effect of the frug/preparation following the decrease of active substance concentration below MIC (minimal inhibitory concentration) value d. Persisting of blood coagulation disorders following antibiotic use e. Nono of the above

44. What is the atropine effect upon the heart? a. chronotropic (-) b. chronotropic (+) c. tonotropic (-) d. inotropic (+) e. none of the above

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45. Which of the following statements is FALSE? a. tetracyclines are deposited in bones, dentine, enamel, imparting brown discoloration b. expired tetracyclines may yield symptoms resembling the Fanconi syndrome c. some tetracycline cause photodermatoses d. Orally administered tetracycline preserve the intestinal bacterial flora

46. The antagonist of postsynaptic peripheral alpha 1 receptors is a. Prazosin b. Aminophylline c. Ketanseryne d. Forskolin e. Bromostygmine

47. Which of the following does not belong to non steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs): a. Diclofenac b. Acetylsalicylic acid c. Ibuprofen d. Paracetamol e. Indomethacin

48. Morphine poisoning symptoms are NOT: a. bradycardia b. hypotension c. shallow breathing d. dilated pupils e. drowsiness

49. Absolute contraindications for the use of adsrenolytic beta-blockers include: a. rheumatoid arthritis b. schizophrenia c. second degree atrioventricular block

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d. atrial hypertension e. ischemic heart disease

50. The used of oral antiidiabetic drugs is indicated only if: a. Type I diabetes has been ruled out b. Damage of insular apparatus has occurred c. Insulin ceased to act d. Diet is ineffective e. a,d

51. Which of the following are NOT among the adverse effects of lincosamides: a. clostridium difficile superinfection b. pseudomembranous enteritis c. allergic skin reactions d. liver injury e. hearing impairment

52. Angiotensin receptor AT1 blockers include: a. Losartan b. Kandesartan c. Irbesartan d. Walsartan e. all of the above

53. Drugs used in treatment of migraine headaches do NOT include: a. Acetylsalicylic acid and other non steroidal anti inflammatory drugs b. Acetylsalicylic acid combined with caffeine c. Ergot alkaloids d. Sumatriptan e. Metronidazol

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54. The major side effects of glycocorticosteroids are: a. oedema b. tendency to hemorrhage c. impaired body response to infection d. Cushing’s syndrome e. all of the above

55. The first line drugs used in treatment of tuberculosis do NOT include: a. Isoniazid b. Streptomycin c. Ethionamide d. Ethambutol e. Rifampicil

56. Which of the following beta-blocker are NOT cardioselective a. Sotalol b. Metoprolol c. Atenolol d. Bisoprolol e. all of the above are cardioselective

57. Contraindication got angiotensin convertase inhibitors are: a. unilateral renal artery stenosis b. pregnancy and breastfeeding c. history of angioedema d. all of the above e. b,c

58. Which of the listed below is NOT a characteristic effect of morphine a. inhibition of uterine contraction, which prolongs the time of labour b. strong dilation of pupils

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c. lowering of seizure threshold d. lowering resistance of the respiratory system to partial CO2 pressure e. contraction of the sphincter the common bile duct, which results in elevated pressure in the bile ducts

59. Which is NOT a prokinetic agent a. Metoklopramide b. Domperidone c. Cizapride d. Tegaserod e. Loperamide

60. Lost drug sensitivity as a result of frequent usage, typical of indirect pharmacodynamic mechanisms, is presented as: a. tolerance b. tachyphylaxis c. idiosyncrasies d. cumulation e. hypersensitivity to a drug

61. Which of the drugs specified below may cause hyperglycemia a. thiazide diuretics b. metformin c. glucocorticosteroids d. a, c e. all of the above

62. Loop diuretics include a. furosemide, spironolactone b. acetazolamude, furosemide c. hydrochlorothiazide, indamamide

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d. furosemide, etacrynic acid e. eplerenone, furosemide

63. Choose the correct sentence a. Amiodarone is provided only in the parenteral form b. Side effect of amiodarone include hyperthyroidism or hypothyroidism c. Amiodarone is only used to treat atrial fibrillation d. To be administered intravenously , amiodarone needs to be dissolved in 0.9% NaCl solution e. all of the above

64. The most important regimen in ventricular fibrillation is a. Amiodarone b. resuscitation and defibrillation c. adrenalin administration d. naloxone administration e. lidocaine admiinistration

65. Which of the following should be used in a 3 year old child with enterobiasis A. Mebendazole B. Albendazole C. Amoxicillin D. Erythromycin E. Pyrantel a. A,B,C b. A,C,D c. A,B,E d. C,D,E e. B,C,E

66. Which of the following is used to treat pseudomembranous colitis

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a. clindamycin b. vakomycin c. metronidazole d. a,c e. b,c

67. Which of the following is used to treat herpes zoster? a. oseltamivir b. abakiwir c. nevirapine d. ribavirin e. acyclovir

68. Benzodiazapine have the ____ effects a. somniferous b. anticonvulsant c. pain relieving d. a,b e. a,b,c

69. The symptoms of atropine poisoning are a. dilated pupils, tachycardia, hypothermia b. tachycardia, miosis, hyperthermia c. dryness and redness the skin, dilated pupils, hyperthermia d. hallucination, dilated pupils, bradycardia e. dryness and redness of the skin, miosis, hypothermia

70. In acute exacerbation of bronchial asthma the first line therapy is based on: A. beta 2 mimetic B. oxygen therapy C. glucocorticosteriods iv

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D. beta-antagonists E. aminophylline in nebulization a. A,B,E b. A,B,C c. B,C,D d. A,B,C,E e. B,C,D,E

71. Which of the listed below is NOT a phase II reaction a. acetylation b. methylation c. glutamine conjugation d. hydroxylation e. glycine conjugation

72. Thrombocyte aggregation inhibitors include: 1. acetylsalicylic acid 2. ticlopidine 3. clopidogrel 4. acenocoumarol 5. unfractionated heparin The correct answer is a. 1,2 b. 1,3 c. 1,2,3 d. 1,3,4,5 e. 2,3,5

73. Which of the following requires no laboratory tests to monitor anticoagulation a. acenocoumarol

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b. warfarin c. unfractionated heparin d. low-molecular weight heparin e. all of the above

74. The following should be used in bronchial asthma exacerbation a. inhalation of short acting beta2-mimetic b. oral application of short acting muscarinic receptor antagonist c. aluminum sulphate i.v. d. a, b e. none of the above

75. Which of H2-blockers may cause potency disorders, oligospermia and gynecomastia, due to the dose dependent antiandrogenic effect a. ranitidine b. cimetidine c. famotidine d. nizatidine e. spironolactone

76. Antibiotics are NOT contraindicated in pregnancy are: a. doxycyclinum b. vancomycin c. gentamicin d. amoxycillinum e. c, d

77. True about echinocandins are: 1. they inhibit synthesis of 1.3- β-D-glucan, important part of the fungi cell wall. 2. they are not absorbed in their active form from the alimentary tract. 3. they are absorbed in their active form from the alimentary tract.

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4. caspofungin is the first semi-synthetic representative of this class of anti-fungal drugs. 5. nystatin is the first semi-synthetic representative of this class of anti-fungal drugs. a. 1,3,4 b. 1,2,4 c. 1,3,4 d. 1,2,5 e. 1,3,5

78. Fluoroquinolones and their analogues: a. are inhibitors of subunit A of DNA gyrase b.

are bactericidal

c. are bacteriostatic d.

A ,C

e. A, B

79. The adverse effects of aminoglycosides include: a. cardiotoxicity b. ototoxicity c.

nephrotoxicity

d. b, c e. all of the above are true

80. Which is true about the effect of paracetamol? a. contrary to NSAID, the anti-inflammatory action of paracetamol is substantially weak b.

contrary to NSAID, the anti-inflammatory action of paracetamol is stronger

c. the hepatotoxic effects appears first among paracetamol poisonings d. A ,C e. A, B

81. The potential side effects of opioids is/are: 1. depression of the respiration centre

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2. decrease in arterial blood pressure 3. increase in arterial blood pressure 4. constipation 5. diarrhea correct are: a. 1.3.5 b. 1,2,4 c. 1,2,5 d. 2,5, e. 3,5

82. Metoclopramide (select the FALSE statement): a. is used as antiemetic and prokinetic drug b. the mechanism of action consists of suppression of H2 receptors and due to that it is used for the treatment of gastroesophageal reflux c.

causes motion disturbance, tremor, gynecomastia and impotence

d. is contraindicated in epilepsy, pregnancy, phaeochromocytoma e. increases tension of lower esophageal sphincter and improves stomach emptying, but has no effect on small intestine and colonic motility

83. Neomycin a.

is often administered orally in cases of endocarditis

b. easily permeates/penetrates the blood-brain barrier c. germicidal binds to the 50 s ribosome particle d.

is not absorbed through the digestive system (or absorbed in a small amount)

e.

is not very nephro- and ototoxic

84. The potential side effect(s) of drugs that nonselectively block β adrenergic receptors is/are: a. bronchospasm b. bradycardia c. negative effect on carbohydrate metabolism

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d. negative effect on lipid metabolism e. all of the above

85. The group of anti-hypertensive drugs characterized by the smallest amount of side-effects (at the placebo level) are: a. ngiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors b. angiotensin receptor blockers c.

calcium channel blockers

d. diuretics e. β blockers

86. Indications for the use of N-acetylcysteine Is/are a. cystic fibrosis b. pneumonia c. paracetamol intoxication d.

sinusitis

e. all of the above

87. Morphine can be used in: a. myocardial infarction b.

lung edema

c. neoplastic diseases d.

colic in the course of gallstone disease
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