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Pharma Mu, Kappa and delta receptors are associated with which group of drugs? a. Barbiturates b. Opioid analgesics c. NSAIDs d. Antihistamines The medical uses of a drug having adrenergic agonists actions would include which of the following? a. Treat hypertension b. Reverse an anaphylactic reactio...

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Pharma 1. Mu, Kappa and delta receptors are associated with which group of drugs? a. Barbiturates b. Opioid analgesics c. NSAIDs d. Antihistamines 2. The medical uses of a drug having adrenergic agonists actions would include which of the following? a. Treat hypertension b. Reverse an anaphylactic reaction c. Reduce anxiety d. Prevent angina pectoris 3. Digitoxin is effective in the treatment of cardiac failure because it a. Is primarily a diuretic b. Produces peripheral vasoconstriction c. Decreases abnormal cardiac rhythms d. Has a positive cardiac inotropic action 4. Which of the ff side effects are the most common with the use of Diazepam (Valium)? a. Mouth, throat ulcers b. Difficulty with urination c. Rash, itch d. Drowsiness, fatigue 5. A drug that reduces the actions of the sympathetic nervous system is called a: a. Adrenergic agent b. Sympathetic amine c. Sympathomimetic d. Sympatholytic 6. Which of the following is used to prevent laryngospasm? a. Succinylcholine (Anectine) b. Neostigmine (Prostigmine) c. Epinephrine d. Atrophine e. Diazepam (Valium) 7. The principal danger associated with the use of nitrous oxide anesthesia in concentrations exceeding 80% is a. Renal damage b. Hypoxia c. Irritation of the respiratory tract d. Liver damage

e. Nausea and vomiting 8. These 2 drugs are considered the 1 st line anti TB drug because it suppress or kill the slow growing, acid-fast bacterium a. Ethambutol and PZA b. INH and PZA c. INH and Rifampicin d. Rifampicin and Ethamutol 9. Which of the ff is not characteristic of the thiazide diuretics? They a. Cause hypoglycemia b. Increase renal excretion of potassium c. Increase renal extraction of sodium and chloride d. Increase hypokalemia 10. The intrinsic ability of a drug refers to the a. Relative concentration of 2 or more drugs that produce the same drug effect b. Dosage of drug that will kill a patient c. Specificity of a drug d. Affinity of a drug to bind on the receptor site e. Ability of a drug to produce a desired therapeutic effect regardless of dosage 11. H2 receptor blockers have the ff actions except a. Treats acid peptic disease b. Anti-histamine c. Anti androgen effect d. Inhibits liver metabolism e. Treats Zolinger Elison syndrome 12. Nitroglycerin dilates the coronary arteries in angina pectoris by: a. Increasing the metabolic work of the myocardium b. Decreasing the heart rate reflexity c. Direct action smooth muscle in the vessel walls d. Increasing the effective refractory period in the atrium 13. These group of drugs form covalent bonds with nucleic acids and proteins with guanine as a common binding site and is effective in treating carcinomas, chronic leukemia and lymphomas a. Alkylating agents b. Amyl nitrite c. Chelating agents d. Digitoxins 14. If Diazepam is to be given intravenously, it is recommended that a large vein be used in order to a. Hasten the onset of action b. Decrease the risk of thrombophlebitis c. Offset the vasoconstrictor qualities of diazepam

d. Prevent release of acetylcholine 15. The adrenergic receptor predominantly seen in heart is the a. Alpha 1 b. Alpha 2 c. Beta 1 d. Beta 2 e. Both beta 1 and beta 2 16. Which of the ff drugs is used principally for its diuretic action? a. Angiotensin b. Meprobamate c. Chlorothiazide d. Vasopressin 17. Heparin inhibits intrinsic pathway of blood clotting thus need when anticoagulation is needed immediately. Which among the ff is not an action of heparin? a. Neutralized tissue thromboplastin b. Blocks thromboplastin generation c. Can enhance removal of fat particles from the blood after fatty meal d. Crosses the placental barrier and cannot be used in pregnancy 18. Phenobarbital, an adult anticonvulsant and sedative drug effective in all seizure. Which among the ff will not develop during drug therapy a. Severe depression b. Drowsiness c. Irritability d. Anxiety e. Nausea f. No answer 19. A sedative often used in the management of anxious pediatric dental patient is a. Phenobarbital b. Secobarbital c. Meperidine d. Chloral hydrate 20. A fear reaction activates the sympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system to result in a. Increased salivation b. Hypertension c. Bradycardia d. Miosis 21. All are characteristic of sulfonylureas except a. Would give a hypoglycemic reaction b. Oral antidiabetic agents

c. Causes the release of endogenous insulin d. Effective in patients with insulin dependent diabetes e. Used in adjunct to diet to treat non insulin dependent DM 22. B1 adrenergic blocking agents will antagonize which of the following actions of epinephrine? a. Cardiac acceleration b. Glycogenolysis c. Vasodilation of skeletal muscle vasculature d. Vasoconstriction of the gastrointestinal vasculature 23. Of the following, which is clinically significant adverse reaction due to Metoprolol? a. Dry mouth b. Arthralgia c. Hallucination d. Drowsiness 24. More widely used in penicillin as it is more acid stable because it does not breakdown in the GI tract. a. Pen G b. V-cillin K c. Pen V d. Ampicillin 25. If norepinephrine or epinephrine were to simulate orcombine with the alpha receptors in the eye, which response would you expect? a. No reaction b. Miosis c. Stenosis d. Mydriassis 26. Opioid receptors are activated by endogenous chemicals that the body produced. Which among this naturally occurring peptides that produce morphine like effect plays a role in pain perception,movement, mood and behavior? a. Mu b. Beta endorphins c. Kappa d. Encephalins e. Dynrphins 27. The antibiotic that is commonly associated with Red man syndrome a. Streptomycin b. Vancomycin c. Clindamycin d. Erythromycin 28. The single most useful agent in resuscitation is a. 1:1000epinephrine for injection

b. An endotracheal tube c. Oxygen d. Aromatic spirits of ammonia 29. Displacement of a drug from protein building sites is expected to increase the a. Duration of drug effect b. Drug effect observed c. Dose required for a given effect d. Activity of medullary centers 30. Which of the ff conditions is a contraindication to the use of atropine to reduce salivation? a. Glaucoma b. Bladder disease c. Peptic ulcer d. Parkinson’s disease 31. Which of the ff drugs is useful in treating dermatologic manifestations of an allergic response? a. Diazepam b. Atropine c. Cimetidine d. Chlorhexidine e. Chloepheniramine 32. Atropine is desirable for preanesthetic medication because it a. Obtunds the cough reflex b. Prevents vomiting c. Reduces glandular secretion in the airway d. Increases secretions of the gastro intestinal tract 33. A patient with grand mal epilepsy would likely be under treatment with a. Phenytoin b. Meprobamate c. Trimethadione d. Pentobarbital 34. The prostaglandins produce all of the ff pharmacologic actions except a. Increases gastric secretion b. Increased capillary permeability c. Pyrexia d. Uterine contraction 35. Cimetidine is administered to a. Relieve cold and flu symptoms b. Aids in sleeping c. Inhibit gastric secretion d. Relieve asthma

36. Acetaminophen is a para aminophenon derivative used as an analgesic torelieve low intensity pain. Which among these is true regarding acetaminophen? a. Inhibits peripheral prostaglandin synthesis b. Inhibits platelet aggregation c. Increased risk of developing Reye’s syndrome d. Inhibits central prostaglandin synthesis e. Can cause hepatic necrosis 37. The antiviral agent penicyclovir is active against which virus? a. Genital herpes b. Herpes simplex type 1 c. Herpes zoster d. Papillomavirus 38. Drug used for the tx of trigeminal neuralgia a. Carbamazepine b. Naloxone c. Chlordiazepoxide d. Phenytoin 39. Phenothiazine is used to a. Suppress coughing b. Produce analgesia c. Produce muscle relaxation d. Produce hypnosis e. Alter psychotic behavior 40. Which of the ff antiepileptic drugs causes hyperplasia of the gingiva? a. Valproic acid b. Phenotoin c. Carbamazepine d. Ethosuximide 41. Factors common to all forms of drug abuse include a. Tolerance b. Physical dependence c. Physiological dependence d. Miosis 42. Administration of which of the ff drugs will not inhibit secretory activity in the oral cavity? a. Mecamylamine b. Scopolamine c. Atropine d. Ephedrine 43. The most widely used tricyclic antidepressant drug is a. Desipramine

b. Imipramine c. Doxepin d. Amitriptyline 44. The principal central action of caffeine is on the a. Hypothalamus b. Corpus callosum c. Cerebral cortex d. Spinal cord 45. Epinephrine reversal is a predictable result of the use of epinephrine in a patient who has received a/an a. Alpha blocker b. Alpha agonist c. Beta blocker d. Adrenergic antagonist 46. Salicylates can cause gastric bleeding in the stomach because of a. Increased prostaglandin level b. Increased movement of the intestine c. Decreased movement of intestines d. Decreased prostaglandin level 47. Local anesthetic agents act primarily a. At the myoneural junction to decrease frequency of pain impulses reaching the CNS b. At a cortical level to decrease the patients awareness of pain impulses c. On the axon membrane to prevent depolarizing potentials d. At ganglionic sites to decrease central pain input 48. Local anesthetia depress which of the following nerve fibers first? a. Large myelinated fibers b. Large unmyelinated fibers c. Small myelinated fibers d. Small unmyelinated fibers 49. Comprises the inner nerve loop a. Greater palatine and nasopalatine nerves b. ASAN, MSAN, PSAN c. Inferior alveolar and lingual nerves d. Allmentioned 50. Complications of infraorbital nerve block a. Tachycardia b. Blindness c. Edema d. Ecchymosis 51. A successful inferior alveolar nerve block will produce anesthesia of the

a. Lower lip, mandibular teeth and labial gingivae of the anterior mandibular teeth b. Lower lip c. Lower lip and mandibular teeth d. Lower lip, mandibular teeth and labial gingivae of the anterior buccal gingivae of the posterior mandibular teeth 52. The anterior superior alveolar nerve arises as a branch of the a. Sphenopalatine nerve b. Greater palatine nerve c. Zygomatic nerve d. Posterior superior alveolar nerve e. Infraorbital nerve 53. Node to node jumping of impulse a. Synapse b. Saltatory conduction c. Neurotransmission d. Nodes of Ranvier 54. Local anesthetic agents act primarily a. On the axon membrane to prevent depolarizing potentials b. At the myoneural junction to decrease frequence of pain impulses reaching the CNS c. At ganglionic sites to decrease central pain input d. At a cortical level to decrease the patients awareness of pain impulses 55. Commercially available local anesthetics are usually a. Hypotonic b. Acidic c. Neutral d. Hypertonic e. Basic 56. Parethesia elicited during a mandibular block injection is due to a. Sodium conductance through the nerve membrane b. Acid pH of the local anesthetic solution c. Poor technique d. Contact of the needle with the nerve trunk 57. Initial repolarization of the nerve after simulation is due primarily to __ the cell a. Diffusion of Na and K outside b. Active transport of Na out of c. Diffusion of K along the concentration gradient out of d. Diffusion of Na along the concentration gradient into e. Active transport of K into

58. Xerostomia is a complication of mandibular blocking which occurs due to the association of lingual nerve to which of the following? a. IAN b. Glossopharyngeal c. Chorda tympani d. Buccal nerve 59. Which of the ff is an important consideration of the intrapulpal injection? a. A long acting anesthetic should be used b. The injection should be given with back-pressure c. Another supplemental injection should not be attempted first d. It will take several minutes for the injection to take effect 60. A sedative hypnotic agent used in the pre operative management of anxious pediatric dental patient. Which is true regarding this non barbiturate sedative hypnotic a. Meperidine is a safe and effective sedation regimen for uncooperative dental patient b. Phenobarbital controls tonic clonic seizures for dental patients c. Chloral hydrate does not relieve pain and when given enters a period of excitement and irritability d. Secobarbital relieves anxiety before surgery and is used to treat insomnia 61. In the absence of MSAN, bicuspids can have innervation from what nerve a. Greater palatine b. Pterygoid plexus c. PSAN d. ASAN 62. General anesthesia with halothane is commonly precede by administration of atropine to a. Induce muscular relaxation by blocking cholinergic receptors b. Reduce salivation and bronchial secretions caused by halothane c. Block the cardiovascular effects produced by the injection of a sympathomimetic drug d. Inhibit vagal overactivity caused by halothane 63. In patients who have a Le Fort II fracture, a common finding is parasthesia over the distribution of the a. Infraorbital nerve b. Inferior alveolar nerve c. Hypoglossal nerve d. Mylohyoid nerve 64. Local anesthetic contains an aromatic group, an intermediate chain and a secondary tertiary amino group. The intermediate chain has 2 purposes except

a. A chemical link which serves as abasis for the classification of local anestgetics b. Separates the lipophilic from hydrophilic end c. Furnishes water solubility d. None 65. Useful for dental procedure that will anesthesize the anterior portion of the hard palate from the mesial of the right 1 st PM to the mesial of the left 1st PM targeting the incisive foramen beneath the incisive papilla a. Greater palatine nerve block b. Infraorbital nerve block c. Nasopalatine nerve block d. Incisive nerve block 66. Following a satisfactory right IAN block injection, also anesthetizing the lingual nerve, which teeth may be extracted without pain? a. The right lateral and lateral incisors b. All mandibular teeth on the right side except the central incisor c. None with this injection alone d. All mandibular teeth on the right side 67. In general anesthesia, the last part of CNS to be depressed is the a. Cerebellum b. Medulla c. Cerebrum d. Midbrain 68. What can be said about intraosseous injection? a. It has been recommended as the primary injection technique b. It allows the anesthetic solution to be deposited directly into the cancellous bone adjacent to the tooth c. It has not been proved effective d. It allows the anesthetic solution to be deposited directly into the pulp tissue of the tooth 69. In which of the following ways can a patient be protected best from the toxic aspects of a local anesthetic? a. Take a thorough medical history b. Have oxygen available c. Use asolution with an epinephrine concentration of 1:50,000 to delay absorption d. Use an aspirating technique e. Use the lowest possible concentration of the LA 70. This local anesthetic group should be avoided in patients with severe liver disease because they can build up in the bloodstream and produce systemic toxicity

a. Ester group b. LA would have no systemic effect c. Both groups produce systemic toxicity d. Amide group 71. The most likely cause of trismus after block anesthesia for surgery in the mandibular area is a. Myosis of the lateral pterygoid muscle b. Excessive edema c. Submandibular cellulitis d. Damage to the medial pterygoid muscle on injection e. Stretching of the pterygomandibular raphe 72. Which of the ff nerve innervates the buccal gingiva of the maxillary 2 nd PM? a. Posterior palatine b. ASAN c. MSAN d. PSAN 73. Allergic reactions to LA are caused by a. Rapid absorption b. Improper technique c. Antigen antibody reaction d. Fast administration 74. Which of the ff statement best describes the mechanism of action of local anesthetics on the nerve axon? a. Decreases Na uptake through Na channels of the axon b. Increases the excitability of the nerve axon c. Increases K outflow from inside to outside the nerve d. Increases the membranes permeability to Na 75. Injection technique that is more prone to hematoma a. MSAN block b. Akinosi c. PSAN block d. Mandibularblock e. Cow Gates Technique 76. Adequate infiltration anesthesia cannot be achieved in the presence of purulent infections because of __ a. Lowered tissue pH b. Increased vascularity in the region c. Pain d. Elevated tissue pH 77. Epinephrine is added to LA because it a. Potentiates the action of all local anesthetics

b. Increases the rate of destruction of the local anesthetics c. Prevents the rapid deterioration of the local anesthetic solution d. Decreases the rate of absorption of the local anesthetic at the injection site 78. LA theoretically should be less effective in acutely inflamed tissue than in normal tissue because inflamed tissue what happens? a. The pH rises thus decreasing available free base b. The pH remains the same, the extracellular fluid dilutes the anesthetic c. The pH rises, thus inactivating the anesthetic d. The pH decreases, thus decreasing available free base 79. Greater palatine foramen is most frequently located a. Mesial to the apex of maxillary 2nd M b. Canine c. Mesial to the apex of maxillary M d. Distal to the apex of maxillary 2nd M e. Distal to the apex of the maxillary M 80. The ff are the indications of intraligamentary injections except a. RCT b. Long rooted teeth c. Tx of children d. Single tooth procedure 81. The IAN is a branch of the a. Anterior trunk of the mandibular nerve b. Deep temporal nerve c. Posterior trunk of the mandibular nerve d. Buccal nerve 82. In PSAN block. The needle approximates, except a. Anterior to external pterygoid muscle b. Posterior to external pterygoid c. Posterior to posterior muscle of maxilla d. Anterior to pterygoid plexus of veins 83. In this technique, the anesthetic solution is deposited at the neck of the condyle a. Akinosi technique b. Cow Gates technique c. PSAN d. Long buccal nerve block 84. Infraorbital nerve block, the needle approximates, except a. None b. Above origin of caninus muscle c. Below head quadrates labii superioris d. Beneath angular head of quadratus labii superioris

85. The anterior palatine nerve supplies sensory innervation to mucosa of the, a. Buccal mucosa opposite the maxillary molars b. Uvula c. Anterior 1/3 of the palate d. Posterior 2/3 of hard palate 86. Method of controlling pain by taking analgesic drugs a. Psychosomatic methods b. Rasing pain threshold c. Block painful impulse d. Removal of cause e. Pain prevention by cortical depression 87. Which of the ff deep bony landmarks is important in performing a block of the 2 nd and 3rd divisions of the trigeminal nerve from the lateral approach? a. Lateral plate of the pterygoid process b. Temporal surface of the sphenoid bone c. Perpendicular plate of the palatine bone d. Styloid process e. Mastoid bone 88. Area of bone resistance upon needle insertion in IAN block: a. Retromolar triangle b. Internal oblique ridge c. Coronoid notch d. External oblique ridge 89. For removal of a root tip from the maxillary antrum, one should block the __ nerve a. Posterior superior alveolar b. Infraorbital nerve c. Second division of the trigeminal d. Anterior superior alveolar e. 3rd division of the trigeminal 90. This technique of mandibular anesthesia is useful for patients suffering from trismus, fractured mandible and mentally handicapped children a. Vazirani-Akinosi Technique b. Cow Gates technique c. IAN block d. Mandibular block 91. To give field block, the local anesthesia should be deposited near ___ a. Large branch of peripheral nerve b. Small branches of peripheral nerve c. Periodontal ligament space d. Main trunk

92. All statement is true regarding the action of LA on nerve membrane exept a. Decrease membrane permeability to Na b. Reduces membrane excitability c. Decrease rate of membrane depolarization d. Increase threshold for electrical excitability e. Increase nerve membrane permeability to Na 93. The ff are innervated by PSAN, except a. Buccal soft tissue of maxillary molars b. Distobuccal root of max 1st M c. Max 2nd M d. Mesiobuccal root of max 1st M 94. This disease involves the afferent nerve of the trigeminal nerve with the exception of the ophthalmic branch. It is casued by pressure on the sensory root of the trigeminal ganglion with px feeling excruciating short term pain when facial trigger zones are touched. a. None of the choices b. Sjorgren’s syndrome c. Tic douloureux d. Bell’s palsy PHARMA-ANES 1. The most probable cause for a serious toxic reaction to local anesthetic<...