Questions and Answers ana physio microana pharma anes microbio patho PDF

Title Questions and Answers ana physio microana pharma anes microbio patho
Course Dentistry
Institution Centro Escolar University
Pages 30
File Size 247.3 KB
File Type PDF
Total Downloads 175
Total Views 326

Summary

The cranium is comprised of the following bones EXCEPT: D a. Frontal bone d. Nasal bone b. Ethmoid bone e. none of the above c. Temporal bones The compact bone of the skull is separated by a layer of spongy bone called the E a. Pterion d. Vomer b. Lamba e. Diploe c. Bregma The following bones make u...


Description

1. The cranium is comprised of the following bones EXCEPT: D a. Frontal bone d. Nasal bone b. Ethmoid bone e. none of the above c. Temporal bones 2. The compact bone of the skull is separated by a layer of spongy bone called the E a. Pterion d. Vomer b. Lamba e. Diploe c. Bregma 3. The following bones make up the margins of the orbit EXCEPT: A a. Nasal bone d. Maxilla b. Frontal bone e. none of the above c. Zygomatic bone 4. The joint between the parietal bones and the occipital bone is called D a. Sagittal suture d. Lambdoid suture b. Pterion e. Acetabulum c. Coronal suture 5. The internal acoustic meatus transmits which of the following structures: B a. Trigeminal nerve (V) and facial nerve (VII) b. Facial nerve (VII) and vestibulocochlear nerve (VIII) c. Vestibulocochlear nerve (VIII) and vagus nerve (X) d. Trigeminal nerve (V) and vagus nerve (X) e. None of the above 6. The following are features of the sphenoid bone: B I. Sella turcica II. Superior orbital fissure III. Cribriform plate a. I b. I and II c. II and III

d. e.

I, II and II none of the above

7. The styloid process is a projection of which bone? C a. Frontal bone d. Nasal bone b. Parietal bone e. Occipital bone c. Temporal bone 8. This is a crescent-shaped fold of dura mater that roofs over the posterior cranial fossa: C a. Falx cerebri d. Diaphragma sellae b. Falx cerebella e. none of the above c. Tentorium cerebelli 9. The right and left lateral ventricles are within the: A a. Cerebrum d. Pons b. Diencephalon e. Medulla c. Midbrain

10. Cerebrospinal fluid is produced by the ____ in lateral, third and fourth ventricles of the brain. B a. Arachnoid villi d. Auerbach’s plexus b. Choroid plexus e. Sacral plexus c. Meissner’s plexus 11. The motor area of the brain is located in the A a. Precentral gyrus of the frontal lobe b. Precentral gyrus of the parietal lobe c. Postcentral gyrus of the frontal lobe d. Postcentral gyrus of the parietal lobe e. Temporal lobe 12. The median portion that connects the two cerebellar hemispheres B a. Vomer d. corpus callosum b. Vermis e. none of the above c. Folia 13. The following are components of the middle ear EXCEPT: A a. External auditory meatus d. stapedius muscle b. Ossicles e. none of the above c. Tegmentum tympani 14. The muscles of mastication are innervated by D a. CN VII b. CN V1 c. CN V2

d. CN V3 e. none of the above

15. The secretomotor function of the facial nerve includes the control of which of the following salivary glands? D a. Submandibular d. A and B b. Sublingual e. B and C c. Parotid 16. Which among the following is NOT a component of the brachial plexus? A a. C4 d. C8 b. C5 e. T1 c. C6 17. The perception of taste in the anterior 2/3 of the tongue is mediated by B a. Glossopharyngeal nerve d. all of the above b. Chorda tympani of the CN VII e. none of the above c. Lingual nerve of CN V3 18. Which of the following extrinsic muscles of the tongue is NOT innervated by the hypoglossal nerve? D a. Genioglossus d. Palatoglossus b. Hyoglossus e. none of the above c. Styloglossus 19. The primer of the conducting system, and is also called the pacemaker of the heart A a. a. SA Node d. Purkinje fibers b. b. AV Node e. Bundle branch c. c. AV bundle

20. Divides the scapula into supra- and infraspinatus fossae – C a. glenoid fossa d. acromion b. suprascapular fossa e. none of the above c. spine of the scapula 21. The most medial bone among the bones of the proximal row of carpals - A a. pisiform d. calcaneus b. trapezium e. scaphoid c. trapezoid 22. The muscle used for forceful expiration is - B a. internal intercostal muscle b. rectus abdominis muscle c. external intercostals muscle

d. serratus anterior e. latissimus dorsi

23. The total number of spinal nerves in the nervous system - A a. 31 pairs d. 33 pairs b. 30 pairs e. 32 pairs c. 60 pairs 24. The bifurcation of the trachea is at the level of the - E a. sternal angle d. A and B only b. transverse ridge e. all of the above c. between T4 and T5 vertebrae 25. Lateral rotation of the foot is known as - B a. inversion b. eversion c. dorsiflexion

d. plantar flexion e. none of the above

26. The ulna is described as - D a. more medial compared the radius d. A and B b. has an olecranon process e. A, B and C c. articulates with the humerus as a plane joint 27. The most medial of the distal carpal bones - A a. hamate d. trapezium b. trapezoid e. capitate c. scaphoid 28. These are muscles connecting the upper limb to the vertebral column EXCEPT - E a. trapezius muscle d. rhomboid major muscle b. levator scapulae muscle e. Serratus anterior muscle c. rhomboid minor muscle

29. The left main bronchus is described as - E a. wider b. shorter c. more vertical

d. A, B and C e. none of the above

30. Axillary artery is the continuation of which blood vessel - D a. brachiocephalic d. subclavian b. common carotid e. jugular vein c. external carotid

31. Rotator cuff muscles include - E a. teres major b. supraspinatus c. infraspinatus

d. all of the above e. B and C only

32. The right lung has the following characteristics - D a. it has 3 lobes d. A and C only b. it has a cardiac notch e. B and C only c. it has 2 fissures 33. The femoral artery is a branch of the - C a. popliteal artery b. peroneal artery c. external iliac artery

d. internal iliac artery e. none of the above

34. Contraction of the muscles of the anterior compartment of the leg leads to - D a. extension of the ankle d. A and B b. dorsiflexion e. B and C c. plantar flexion 35. The largest branch of the lumbar plexus - D a. Sciatic nerve d. Femoral nerve b. Obturator nerve e. Ilioinguinal nerve c. Popliteal nerve 36. The temporomandibular joint is a ______ joint. - C a. fibrous d. cartilagenous (fibrocartilage) b. cartilagenous (hyaline) e. none of the above c. synovial

37.The second heart sound is produced by contraction of the ventricles and the closure of _____ valves. E a. mitral and aortic d. mitral and pulmonic b. mitral and tricuspid e. aortic and pulmonic c. tricuspid and pulmonic 38. The anterior border of the pelvic inlet - C a. sacrum b. ileopectineal line c. symphysis pubis

d. pubic arch e. none of the above

39. The following are parts of the uterus EXCEPT - E a. fundus d. external os b. body e. vagina c. internal os 40. The shortest and least dilatable portion of the male urethra - B a. prostatic urethra d. penile urethra b. membranous urethra e. external meatus c. ureteral urethra 41. The muscular coat of the urinary bladder wall is called - D a. dartos muscle d. detrusor muscle b. pelvic diaphragm e. none c. levator palpebrae superioris

42. The true pelvis is the area _______. - B a. above the pelvic brim b. below the pelvic brim c. of the pelvic brim

d. all of the above e. none of the above

43. Olfactory cortex is located in what part of the brain - B a. parietal d. A and B b. frontal e. none of the above c. occipital 44. The following muscles are supplied by the oculomotor nerve, EXCEPT - A a. lateral rectus d. medial rectus b. superior rectus e. inferior oblique c. inferior rectus 45. The following are innervated by cranial nerves - D a. sternocleidomastoid muscle b. trapezius muscle c. pectoralis muscle

d. A and B e. A, B and C

46. The main function of this organ is the storage of bile - B a. liver d. spleen b. gall bladder e. none of the above c. urinary bladder 47. A gland found below the urinary bladder which secretes the seminal fluid - A a. prostate gland d. thyroid gland b. seminal vesicle e. none of the above c. bulbourethral gland 48. The largest of the salivary glands - D a. sublingual b. submaxillary c. submandibular

d. parotid e. none. All of them are equal in size

49. The type of epithelium lining the conduction vessels of the respiratory tract - B a. pseudostratified squamous d. columnar ciliated epithelium b. pseudostratified columnar ciliated e. cuboidal ciliated c. stratified squamous 50. Which of the following is incorrect - A a. there are 8 cervical vertebrae b. there are 12 thoracic vertebrae c. there are 5 lumbar vertebrae

d. the sacrum is composed of fused bones e. the coccyx is composed of fused bones

51. The analog of the scrotum in the female - D a. labia minora b. mons pubis c. clitoris

d. labia majora e. vestibule

52. In the female, the rectum is ___ to the vaginal vault - A a. posterior d. anterior b. inferior e. none of the above c. superior

53. Which of the following is not present in the 7th cervical vertebrae - B a. spinous process d. body b. bifid spine e. lamina c. foramen transversarium 54. The mucous membrane of the stomach is thrown into folds termed - B a. villi d. chyme b. ruggae e. none of the above c. gyrus 55. The most superficial of the muscles of the posterior compartment of the leg - A a. gastrocnemius muscle d. soleus muscle b. gracilis muscle e. tibialis muscle c. vastus lateralis 56. This is referred to as the master endocrine gland - B a. hypothalamus d. A and B b. hypophysis e. A, B and C c. adrenal gland 57. The microscopic blind end sac of the lungs -B a. bronchioles b. alveolus c. trachea

d. bronchi e. alveolar duct

58. How many cranial nerves have sensory innervations? - B a. 6 d. 3 b. 7 e. 4 c. 10 59. How many cranial nerves have only motor innervations - C a. 3 d. 6 b. 4 e. 7 c. 5 60. The following cranial nerves moderate the contraction of the extraocular muscle - D a. CN 4 d. A and B b. CN 3 e. A, B and C c. CN 7 61. The nerve that increases gastrointestinal motility - A a. 10th CN d. 11th CN b. 9th CN e. 5th CN c. 8th CN 62. The following are direct branches of the abdominal aorta - E a. celiac artery d. A and B b. splenic artery e. A and C c. superior mesenteric artery 63. The main duct of the pancreas opens into the ___ part of the duodenum - B a. 1st d. 4th b. 2nd e. 5th c. 3rd

64. The parasympathetic autonomic nervous system is known as - B a. Thoracolumbar ANS d. A and C b. Craniosacral ANS e. B and C c. Adrenergic nervous system 65. The kidneys are - B a. intraperitoneal b. retroperitoneal c. supraperitoneal

d. A and B e. B and C

66. Which among the following is a characteristic of the female pelvis? -D a. heavy and thick d. pubic arch >90˚ angle b. deep false pelvis e. small heart shaped pelvic inlet c. round obturator foramen 67. Example of condyloid joint - C a. sternoclavicular joint b. atlantoaxial joint c. knuckle joint

d. carpometacarpal joint of the thumb e. hip joint

68. The following are muscles of the back EXCEPT -D a. latissimus dorsi d. scalenus muscle b. rhomboid minor e. trapezius muscle c. levator scapulae 69. This surrounds bundles of muscle fascicles - A a. perimysium b. endomysium c. epimysium

d. sarcoplasm e. none of the above

70. This is formed by the union of the ductus deferens with the ducts of the seminal vesicles – B a. prostate gland d. penile urethra b. ejaculatory ducts e. common bile duct c. vas deferens 71. This protein molecule in the actin filament is the binding site for calcium. - B a. Tropomyosin c. Calcitonin b. Troponin d. None of the above 72. The storage site for calcium in the muscle fiber is - A a. Sarcoplasmic reticulum b. Mitochondria

c. Sarcoplasm d. None of the above

73. The opening of sodium channels on the cell membrane causes cell - A a. Depolarization c. hyperpolarization b. Repolarization d. none of the above 74. This is the type of contraction wherein the amount of tension increases during the contraction but the length of the muscle does not change. - C a. Concentric contraction c. Isometric contraction b. Eccentric contraction d. Isotonic contraction 75. Ions such as sodium (Na+), Calcium (Ca++) and Chloride (Cl-) are found in greater concentration ___.B a. Intracellularly c. Both b. Extracellularly d. Neither

76. This is the movement of molecules against a concentration gradient by carrier molecules.-C a. Simple diffusion c. Active transport b. Facilitated diffusion d. Osmosis 77. The movement of molecules from an area of greater concentration to an area of lesser concentration is termed -B a. Osmosis c. Active transport b. Passive diffusion d. Filtration 78. The ingestion of cells of solid particles is termed -A a. Phagocytosis b. Pinocytosis

c. Imbibition d. None of the above

79. This is the major site of ATP synthesis -D a. Cell membrane b. Nucleus

c. Lysosome d. Mitochondria

80. Loosely coiled fibers consisting of DNA and proteins are called - C a. Ribosome c. Chromatin b. Chromosome d. Nucleolus 81. The following are the three major components of the extracellular matrix EXCEPT: -D a. fluid c. ground substance b. protein fibers d. adipocytes 82. This type of connective tissue has extracelluar matrix consisting mostly of collagen and a few elastic fibers. - A a. dense connective tissue c. areolar tissue b. adipose tissue d. bone 83. These are membrane bound vesicles containing enzymes that breakdown fatty acids, amino acids and hydrogen peroxide. These are active in the detoxification process of the cells. - B a. Lysosomes c. Microfilaments b. Peroxisomes d. Microtubules 84. This is the phase of mitosis when the chromosomes align in the center of the cell in association with the spindle fibers. - C a. Prophase c. Metaphase b. Interphase d. None of the above 85. This is the synthesis of proteins based on the information in mRNA. - A a. Translation c. Aerobic respiration b. Transcription d. Anaerobic respiration 86. These are known as the support cells of the nervous system - C a. Neurons c. Neuroglia b. Dendrites d. Axon 87. The cardiac muscle is branched and is connected to one another by ____. - A a. Intercalated discs c. Loose (Areolar) connective tissue b. Sarcomere d. None of the above 88. These membranes, consisting of simple squamous epithelium, line the trunk cavities and cover the organs located in these cavities. -C a. Cutaneous membrane c. Serous membrane b. Synovial membrane d. None of the above

89. The following are all examples of connective tissue EXCEPT - D a. Cartilage c. Blood b. Bone d. None of the above 90. Endoplasmic reticulum that functions for lipid production is termed ____. - B a. Rough E.R. c. both b. Smooth E.R. d. neither 91. The tricuspid valve is closed when - A a. When the ventricle is in systole b. When the ventricle is in diastole

c. while the atrium is contracting d. blood moves from the i. atrium to ventricle

92. The aortic semilunar valve opens - D a. when ventricle is in diastole b. when atrium is in systole c. when atrium is in diastole d. when the arterial is lower than the ventricular pressure 93. The layer of the heart wall that is composed of cardiac muscles is - A a. Myocardium c. Pericardium b. Epicardium d. Endocardium 94. In an electrocardiogram, the T wave represents the - D a. atrial depolarization b. atrial repolarization

c. ventricular depolarization d. ventricular repolarization

95. The hormone that is primarily made up of Lipids is - A a. Cortisol b. Thyrotropin

c. Growth hormone d. Melatonin

96. Catecholamines are produced in the - D a. Zona Glumerulosa of the adrenal cortex b. Zona Fasciculata of the adrenal cortex c. Zona reticularis of the adrenal cortex d. Adrenal Medulla 97. Marked decrease in this hormone may cause a stunt in bone growth as well as the overall cell growth B a. Thyroid hormone c. Cortisol b. Growth Hormone d. Epinephrine 98. Responsible for cell mediated immunity - B a. B-cells b. T-cells

c. Eosinophils d. Red blood cells

99. Responsible for humoral or antibody mediated immunity - A a. B-cells c. Eosinophils b. T-cells d. Red blood cells 100. All are function of the lymphatic system EXCEPT: - D a. Fat absorption b. Fluid Balance circulation

c. Defense against microorganisms d. Regulation of blood

101. This type of neuroglia lines the fluid filled spaces of the central nervous system. - C a. Astrocytes c. Ependymal cells b.Oligodendrocytes d. Neurolemmocytes

102. This type of neuroglia are found to surround the axons of the cells in the central nervous system. - B a. Astrocytes c. Ependymal cells b. Oligodendrocytes d. Neurolemmocytes 103. The cluster of gray matter found deeper within the brain is called ___. - B a. Ganglia c. Cortex b. Nuclei d. None of the above 104. The following are true EXCEPT - C a. Veins are more superficial than arteries. b. Veins are called capacitance vessels. c. Pulses are felt on areas where veins are very superficial. d. Arteries are called resistance vessels 105. Goosebumps or gooseflesh is produced upon sympathetic stimulation of the ___ muscle - B a. Extensor folliculus c. Folliculus erectus b. Arrector pili d. None of the above 106. This is stratum corneum extending onto the nail body.- B a. free edge b. eponychium

c. lunula d. none of the above

107. Apocrine sweat glands may be found on the following EXCEPT - D a. armpit c. labia majora b. scrotal area d. ear canal 108. This hormone promotes release of bile from the gall bladder - D a. lipase c. bilirubin b. amylase d. cholecystokinin 109. Protein digestion occurs primarily in the - C a. transverse colon b. ileum

c. stomach d. jejunum

110. Somatostatin is produced by the ___ of the pancreas - C a. alpha cells b. beta cells

c. delta cells d. none of the above

111. In the intestines vagal stimulation produces - A a. increased peristalsis b. decreased peristalsis

c. increased water reabsorption d. decreased water reabsorption

112. Which of the following is not related to the right heart? - A a. Bicuspid valve c. Coronary sinus b.Tricuspid valve d. Sino-atrial node 113. The arteries that directly feed the capillary beds are termed - D a. Precapillary sphincter c. Muscular arteries b. Venules d. Arterioles 114. Which of the following values is outside the normal pH range for blood - B a. 7.36 c. 7. 35 b. 7.65 d. 7.43 115.The flowing are normal responses of the body after a sumptuous meal EXCEPT -D a. Increase Insulin secretion by the beta cells of the islets of langerhans b. Increase uptake of glucose by the cells and tissues c. Increase levels of blood glucose level in the blood d. Increase in Glucagon secretion by the alpha cells of the islets of Langerhans

116. The following are effects of aldosterone in the body upon secretion EXCEPT - B a. Increase water retention c. Increase vasoconstriction b. Decrease blood pressure d. none of the above 117. Parathyroid hormone takes effect on what organ? – A a. Kidneys b. Thyroid gland

c. Lungs d. Liver

118. The following are acidopilic hormones secreted in the anterior pituitary EXCEPT - B a. ACTH c. TSH b. vasopressin d. LH 119. Specialized lymphatic vessels found lining the small intestines and functions for absorption - A a. Lacteals c. Lymph node b. Chyle d. Lymphatic tissue 120. The following are lymphatic organs EXCEPT: - D a. Lymph node b. Tonsils

c. Spleen d. Capillaries

121. The following are functions of the upper respiratory tract EXCEPT - C a. humidification of air c. respiration b. trapping of particulate matter d. air conduction 122. The following is a muscle for quiet inspiration -B a. pectoralis major b. diaphragm

c. rectus abdominis d. serratus anterior

123. Tidal volume is approximately - C a. 3600 ml b. 1200 ml

c. 500 ml d. 10 ml

124. This is the amount of air that can be taken in forcibly over the tidal volume - A a. inspiratory reserve volume c. total lung capacity b. expiratory reserve volume d. vital capacity 125. The combination of tidal volume, inspiratory reserve volume, expiratory reserve volume is known as -D a. inspiratory capacity c. total lung capacity b. functional residual capacity d. vital capacity ...


Similar Free PDFs