Prostho-DENT MAT PDF

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Centro Escolar University School of Dentistry PRE-BOARD THEORETICAL EXAMINATION PROSTHODONTICS 1, 2, 3 ; DENTAL MATERIALS Shade AE if the answer is not in the given choices. When the mandible is in its physiologic rest or portural position, contact of teeth is: A. maximum B. not present C. premature...

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Centro Escolar University School of Dentistry PRE-BOARD THEORETICAL EXAMINATION PROSTHODONTICS 1, 2, 3 ; DENTAL MATERIALS Shade AE if the answer is not in the given choices. 1. When the mandible is in its physiologic rest or portural position, contact of teeth is: A. maximum B. not present C. premature D. slight 2. Which of the following statements concerning selective grinding in complete denture fabrication for centric relation are true? A. Ideally selective grinding should result in harmonious cusp-fossa contacts of all upper and lower fossa (and marginal ridges of bicuspsids) B. Only grind cusp tips if they are premature in centric, lateral and protrusive movements. C. Neither of the above statements are true. D. Both of the above statements are true. 3. The shoulderless preparation: A. greatly facilitates the adaptation of copper bands in making compound impressions. B. provides a well—defined finish line and adequate space in cervical region C. is the least conservative of the three types of cervical finish lines D. requires building up the short mesial end of the crown 4. The chamfer cervical finish: A. greatly facilitates the adaptation of copper bands in making compound impressions. B. provides a well—defined finish line and adequate space in cervical region C. is the least conservative of the three types of cervical finish lines D. requires building up the short mesial end of the crown 5. The shoulder cervical finish: A. greatly facilitates the adaptation of copper bands in making compound impressions. B. provides a well—defined finish line and adequate space in cervical region C. is the least conservative of the three types of cervical finish lines D. requires building up the short mesial end of the crown 6. The gold—veneer crown is indicated for any tooth where: A. a three-quarter crown is indicated C. a buccal three quarter crown is indicated B. a complete crown is indicated D .a mesial half crown is indicated 7. Indications for three-quarter crown retainers includes: A. when caries have eroded proximal and lingual surfaces B. cannot be used on any tooth (anterior or posterior) C. cannot be used on periodontally involved tooth D. cannot be used on short anterior teeth 8. Contraindications to the use of the three-quarter crown are: A. anterior teeth with short clinical crown and incisor tapered crowns B. periodontally involved tooth C. teeth with eroded proximal surfaces D. teeth with eroded lingual surfaces E. none of the choices. 9. Which of the following presents as a painless, firm, pink or red nodular proliferation of the mucosa? A. inflammatory papillary hyperplasia C. denture stomatitis B. fibrous hyperplasia D. Moniliasis 10. If you are fabricating both mandibular and maxillary immediate dentures for a patient, the ideal treatment is which of the following?

A. Fabricate the maxillary immediate first. B. Fabricate the mandibular first. C. Fabricate both the maxillary and mandibular immediate at the same time. D. Makes no difference which one you fabricate first. 11. All new dentures should be evaluated within how many hours? A. 3 hours b. 12 hours C. 24 hours D. 48 hours 12. Functional stresses applied to any portion of a partial denture can be distributed throughout the mouth only when major and minor connectors are: A. rigid C. cast in a base-metal alloy B. flexible D. positioned in the same plane E. none of these. 13. Occlusal rest seats for RPDs are prepared primarily to: A. protect occlusal surfaces C. resist lateral chewing forces B. stabilize the partial dentures D. resist vertical forces of occlusion 14. A distal extension RPD is one that receives its support : A. from the tissues only B. mostly from the tissues and to a minor extent from the abutment teeth C. mostly from the abutment teeth and to a minor extent from the tissues D. equally from the abutment teeth and the tissues 15. Periodontal damage to abutment teeth of RPDs with distal extensions can best be avoided by: A. using stressbreakers B. employing bar clasps on all abutment teeth C. maintaining tissue support of the distal extensions D. clasping at least two teeth for each edentulous area E. maintaining the clasp arms on all abutment teeth at the ideal degree of tension 16. Functional stresses applied to any portion of a partial denture can be distributed throughout the mouth only when major and minor connectors are: A. rigid C. cast in a base-metal alloy B. flexible D. positioned in the same plane 17. Occlusal rest seats for RPDs are prepared primarily to: A. protect occlusal surfaces C. resist lateral chewing forces B. stabilize the partial dentures D. resist vertical forces of occlusion 18. A distal extension RPD is one that receives its support : A. from the tissues only B. mostly from the tissues and to a minor extent from the abutment teeth C. mostly from the abutment teeth and to a minor extent from the tissues D. equally from the abutment teeth and the tissues 19. Periodontal damage to abutment teeth of RPDs with distal extensions can best be avoided by: A. using stressbreakers B. employing bar clasps on all abutment teeth C. maintaining tissue support of the distal extensions D. clasping at least two teeth for each edentulous area E. maintaining the clasp arms on all abutment teeth at the ideal degree of tension 20. Balancing side (non-working side) interferences generally occur on the inner aspects of which teeth? A. facial cusps of mandibular molars B. facial cusps of maxillary premolars C. lingual cusps of mandibular molars D. facial cusps of maxillary molars

21. Which of the following concerning centric relation is/are TRUE? 1. The mandible cannot forced into centric relation from the rest position because the patient’s reflex neuromascular defense would resist the applied force 2. The mandible should be relaxed and gently guided into centric relation. 3. In fixed and removable prosthodontics, centric relation should be established prior to designing the frameworks. 4. When a centric relation record is taken in the natural dentition, imprints of the teeth should be confined to cusp tips and the registration material should not be perforated. A. 1 & 2 B. 1,2 & 3 C. 2 & 3 D. 1,2,3 & 4 E. 3 only. 22. A semi-rigid connector is used: A. because of difficulty in soldering B. if a rigid connector interferes with the physiologic movement of abutment teeth and does not transmit torsional stresses C. where parallelism exists in the abutment teeth D. where long spans are present 23. A semi-rigid connector: A. is always located in the distal surface of the anterior retainer B. in the mesial surface of the anterior retainer C. in the strongest abutment tooth D. in long spans 24. Porcelain should be the material of choice : A. when a facing is demanded for cosmetic reasons B. when the material is to be used without the support of metal C. for other than for veneer purposes D. since extensive inflammatory changes occur in adjacent soft tissue 25. The retentive clasp, as it flexes over the highest convexity of abutment exerts some horizontal force, which can be neutralized with this attribute of the RPD: A. passivity B. encirclement C. neutral zone D. reciprocation E. retention. 26. The retruded contact position is what type of position? A. “tooth-guided” B. “ligament-guided” C. “muscle-guided” 27. An edentulous patient has slight undercuts in both tuberosities and also in the facial of the anterior maxilla. To construct a satisfactory maxillary complete denture, you should reduce which of the following? A. All undercuts C. Both tuberosity undercuts B. The anterior undercut only D. None of them. 28. Before an accurate face-bow transfer record can be made on a patient, which of the following must be determined? A. Location of the hinge axis point. C. Vertical dimension of occlusion. B. The inclination of each condyle. D. Centric relation. 29. Delineates the height of contour: A. undercut gauge B. analyzing rod C. mandrel D. wax trimmer E. carbon marker and sheath. 30. In circumferential clasps, these should be on the same level to dissipate stress as flexible tip passes over tooth’s greatest convexity: A. rest B. minor connector C. retentive arm D. reciprocal arm 31. Prevents vertical dislodgement of RPD: A. rest B. minor connector C. retentive arm D. reciprocal arm 32. The terminal third of the retentive arm is: A. rigid B. semi-rigid C. flexible

33. Posterior border of denture clearance from the fovea palatina / vibrating line: A. 2mm B. 4mm C. 6mm D. 8mm E. 10mm. 34. Low survey line that allows placement of the retentive terminus of a clasp arm on the gingival one-third of the abutment tooth indicates that: A. the angle of cervical convergence is small. B. the angle of cervical convergence is large C. the abutment tooth must be recontoured D. a bar clasp is the clasp design of choice 35. A refitting procedure consisting of resurfacing the tissue side of the denture with new base material is referred to as: A. reline B. rebase C. reconstruction D. all of the choices 36. Which of the following is not a function of occlusal rests? A. maintenance of the correct occlusal relation of the artificial teeth B. guiding of prosthesis along planned path of insertion C. stabilization of clasp arms in their planned position D. resistance of cervical movement of prosthesis 37. Aesthetic is an important consideration when deciding between a fixed or a removable partial denture for which of the following Kennedy classification? A. Kennedy Class I C. Kennedy Class III B. Kennedy Class II D. Kennedy Class IV 38. In protrusive movement, the condyles of the mandible have moved in which direction? A. backward and upward B.downward and forward C. neither of the two. 39. Which of the following is the superior attachment for the pterygomandibular raphe? A. Hamular notch B. Fovea palatine C.Pterygoid hamulus 40. The ease and accuracy of border molding depends on which of the following? 1. An accurately fitting custom tray. 2. Control of bulk and temperature of the modeling compound. 3. The tray being thoroughly dried. A. 1 and 2B. 2 and 3 `C. 1,2 and 3 D. 1 only 41. Which teeth on a maxillary complete denture are the most important when considering esthetics? A. Maxillary laterals C. Maxillary canines B. Maxillary centrals D. Maxillary first premolars 42. A broken-stress or nonrigid FPD is indicated when: A. constructing a mandibular FPD only B. two or three missing teeth are to be replaced C. retainers cannot be prepared to draw together without excessive tooth reduction D. fixed splinting involves tow or three abutment teeth E. retainers can be designed to have equal retentive qualities. 43. The most frequent cause of failure of a cast crown restoration is: A. failure to extend the crown preparation adequately into the gingival sulcus B. lack of attention in carving occlusal anatomy of the tooth C. lack of attention to tooth shape, position and contacts D. lack of prominent cusps, deep sulci and sharp marginal ridges. . 44. When preparing a partial veneer crown on a maxillary incisor, proximal grooves should be parallel to the: A. long axis of the tooth C. incisal two-thirds of the facial surface

B. gingival two-thirds of the facial surface 45. Termination of a free end clasp is referred to as: A. finger B. stop C. tang D. arm 46. Main purpose of tilting the cast in surveying: A. To locate the undercut. B. To locate the height of contour. C. To provide the most desirable path of placement. D. To aid in designing. 47. The location of the clasps is determined by: A. Clinical examination C. Surveying the cast B. Radiograph D. Position of the remaining natural teeth 48. The scriber of a surveyor: A. Marks the clasp outline. C. Dictates the RPD design. B. Guarantee undercut retention. D, Mark the greatest convexity of the tooth. 49. Achieves >180 degrees encirclement of abutment: A. suprabulge B. infrabulge C. intracoronal D. extracoronal 50. Maintains three point contact on abutment : A. suprabulge B. infrabulge C. intracoronal D. extracoronal 51. Achieves retention by the use of key and keyway system : A. suprabulge B. infrabulge C. intracoronal D. extracoronal 52. Direct retention is achieved by clasps: A. suprabulge B. infrabulge C. intracoronal D. extracoronal 53. Counteracts the force exerted on the undercut area on one side of the abutment: A. major connector C. lingual plate B. minor connector D. retentive arm E. reciprocal arm. 54. A porcelain jacket crown will fracture when: A. used in an end-to-end occlusion B. fabricated for a mandibular incisor C. allowed to contact the opposing teeth in centric occlusion D. subjected to tensile forces by the opposing teeth E. subjected to compressive forces by the opposing teeth 55. The nonrigid connector maybe used in the construction of a FPD only when the span is: A. short and the supporting alveolus is extensively reduced. B. Short and the supporting alveolus is not extensively reduced. C. Long and the supporting alveolus is extensively reduced. D. Long and the supporting alveolus is not extensively reduced. E. None of the above. 56. A post and core is preferred to a post crown for an abutment tooth because: A. it is stronger C. it can be treated as an independent abutment B. better esthetics can be achieved D. less chair time is required in its fabrication 57. The limiting structure of the upper denture are as follows, except: A. vestibular spaces C. pterygomandibular raphe B. hamular notches D. posterior palatal seal area in the region of the vibrating line 58. Also known as the emergency retentive force: A. atmospheric pressure C. interfacial surface tension B. capillary attraction D. cohesion E. adhesion. 59. The primary stress bearing area of the lower arch: A. slope of the residual ridge C. buccal shelf

B. crest of the residual ridge D. retromolar pad 60. The construction of a bridge is normally scheduled after the following is/are completed: A. surgery B. surgery, periodontal therapy and operative dentistry C. periodontal therapy D. Operative dentistry 61. Premature contacts in centric relation and any lateral slide as patient closes into centric occlusion: A. can be eliminated while bridge is under construction. B. can be eliminated after bridge has been constructed. C. need not be eliminated. D. should be eliminated by grinding before the bridge is made. 62. The following amount of forward slide from centric relation to centric occlusion can be regarded as normal in the absence of any periodontal pathology or mobile teeth: A. 1mm. B. 4mm. C. Up to 2mm. D. 6mm. 63. The incisal edge of the three-quarter crown retainer on the cuspid tooth is: A. about 45 degrees to long axis of tooth. C. 60 degrees to long axis of tooth. B. 30 degrees to long axis of tooth. D. 15 degrees to long axis of tooth 64. Of what importance is tongue size and position to the prognosis of a complete denture? A. of little or no importance B. large tongue helps stabilize lower dentures C. patients with large tongues often experience poor lower denture stability. 65. Factors affecting the stability of dentures, are as follows, except: A. location and arrangement of artificial teeth C. quality of final impression B. size and form of basal seat D. all of the choices E. none of these. 66. This is a resistance of a denture to the vertical component of mastication. A. retention B. stability C. support D. lip esthetic E. health of basal seat. 67. The nonrigid connector is: A. used for long spans C. used when alveolus is extremely reduced B. a broken-stress joint D. used when alveolus is actively receding 68. A good solder joint must have: A. a triangular peripheral attachment B. a complete and concave peripheral attachment C. a partial and convex peripheral attachment D. a partial and concave peripheral attachment 69. Before preparing the abutment teeth the gingival crevice should be explored. In the adult patient the depth is: A. less than 1.0mm C. more than 10mm B. less than 0.75mm D. more than 1.0mm 70. Before preparing the abutment teeth the gingival crevice should be explored. In the young patient the depth is: A. more than 1.0mm C. more than 5.0mm B. shallow D. more than 2.0mm 71. Excessive vertical dimension may result in___? A. poor denture retention C. wrinkles around the lip B. drooping of commisures D. trauma to the underlying supporting tissues E. all of these 72. Following extraction, alveolar process of the maxilla will resorb: A. upward and forward direction C. downward and forward

B. upward and backward D. downward and backward 73. The working side is the : A. balancing side C. side toward which the mandible is moved B. side opposite to which the mandible move D. eccentric occlusion 74. Qualities of shade that refers to the amount of color per unit area: A. brilliance B. saturation C. translucency D. hue 75. A direct restorative materials used frequently to restore a portion of a posterior tooth that is subject to large biting forces has the following properties: A. esthetics B. high strength C. ease of casting D. thermal insulation 76. Rank the following dental materials in order of increasing values of their coefficient of thermal expansion: 1. dental amalgam 2. human teeth 3. porcelain 4. unfilled acrylic plastics: A. 2,3,1,4 B. 3,2,4,1 C. 3,2,1,4 D. 2,3,4,1 77. The following statements describe percolation, except: A. Percolation usually decreases with time after insertion of dental amalgam B. Percolation is caused by differences in the coefficient of thermal expansion between tooth and the restorative material when heated or cooled. C. Percolation is thought to be undesirable because of possible irritation to the dental pulp and recurrent decay. D. Percolation is not likely to occur with unfilled acrylic restorations. 78. A curve of spee that is too flat produces: A. molar cusps that are too short C. anterior teeth that are too short B. molar cusps that are too long D. anterior teeth that are too long 79. When the plane of occlusion is too low, the posterior cusps: A. will appear too long C. will appear of normal length B. will appear too short D. will appear out of occlusion 80. FPD require the use of: A. soft golds B. medium hard golds C. hard golds D. Type A golds 81. Well-fired porcelain depends on good preliminary condensation. This is accomplished by the following method/s: 1. Vibration 2. Pressure 3. Brushing 4. Capillary packing A. 1 and 3 B. 2 and 4 C. 1,2,3 and 4 D. 1 only E. 4 only. 82. The vapor pressure of mercury increase with: A. increasing temperature C. contamination by dust B. decreasing size of mercury droplets D. both A & B E. Both B & C. 83. Which of the following cement bases has the highest elastic modulus to best support an extensive amalgam restoration? A. zinc phosphate C. zinc polyacrylate B. polymer-reinforced zinc oxide-eugenol D. glass ionomer 84. The following are classified as rigid impression materials, except: A.Zinc oxide-eugenol B. impression plaster C. silicone rubber D. dental impression compound 85. The impression material that shows the least dimensional change as a result of disinfection by immersion is: A. alginate B. agar C. polysulfide D. addition silicones E. polyether. 86. The gold content of an 18-K alloy is: A. 50% B. 75% C. 100% D. 30% 87. The following statements about heat curing resin are true , except: A. the method of activation is by heat or boiling

B. the peak temperature is as high as that of self-curing resin C. the initial strength properties is higher than self-curing resin D. color is more stable 88. Aids in inhibition of polymerization during storage: A. benzoyl peroxide C. hydroquinone B. dibutyl phthalate D. methyl methacrylate E. gelatin talc. 89. The widely used method for fabrication of metallic appliance outside the mouth: A. firing B. casting C. pickling D. quenching E. fluxing. 90. The monomer is principally: A./ benzoyl peroxide C. dibutyl phthalate B. polymethyl methacrylate D. methyl methacrylate E. hydroquinone. 91. Dental porcelain used as a veneer over cast metal crowns: A. Type I B. Type II C. Type III D. any of these. 92. Also known as “inlay golds” : A. Type 1 and Type 2 B. Type II & Type III C. Type III & IV D. Type I & IV 93. Increases the toughness of wax and resistance to cracking and flaking: A. paraffin B. gum dammar C. carnauba wax D. candelilla wax E. any of these. 94. dental porcelain used as a venee...