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MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS Which of the following is not project management goal? a) Keeping overall costs within budget b) Delivering the software to the customer at the agreed time c) Maintaining a happy and well-functioning development team d) Avoiding customer complaints Project managers have to ...

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MG6088 Software Project Management

Department of IT/CSE

2019- 2020

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. Which of the following is not project management goal? a) Keeping overall costs within budget b) Delivering the software to the customer at the agreed time c) Maintaining a happy and well-functioning development team d) Avoiding customer complaints 2. Project managers have to assess the risks that may affect a project. a) True b) False 3. Which of the following is not considered as a risk in project management? a) Specification delays b) Product competition c) Testing d) Staff turnover 4. The process each manager follows during the life of a project is known as a) Project Management b) Manager life cycle c) Project Management Life Cycle d) All of the mentioned 5. A 66.6% risk is considered as a) very low b) low c) moderate d) high 6. Which of the following is/are main parameters that you should use when computing the costs of a software development project? a) travel and training costs b) hardware and software costs c) effort costs (the costs of paying software engineers and managers) d) all of the above 7. Quality planning is the process of developing a quality plan for a) team b) project

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MG6088 Software Project Management

Department of IT/CSE

2019- 2020

c) customers d) project manager 8. Which of the following is incorrect activity for the configuration management of a software system? a) Internship management b) Change management c) Version management d) System management 9. Identify the sub-process of process improvement a) Process introduction b) Process analysis c) De-processification d) Process distribution 10. An independent relationship must exist between the attribute that can be measured and the external quality attribute. a) True b) False 11. In designing a system it is found that the cost of the system was Rs 1,50,000 and the benefit is Rs 10,000 per month. The interest is 1% per month; the payback period using the present value method is a) 14 months b) 17 months c) 15 months d) 20 months 12. Pick the indirect cost from the following a) cost of new forms b) cost of training analysts and users c) cost of software to be brought d) cost of fact gathering 13. A cost benefit analysis consists of (i)finding the direct and indirect cost of developing, implementing and running the system (ii)finding out the tangible and intangible benefit of the system (iii)finding the investment to be made in the system (iv)finding the profit which will accrue from the system a) iii and iv

St. Joseph’s College of Engineering/ St. Joseph’s Institute of Technology

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MG6088 Software Project Management

Department of IT/CSE

2019- 2020

b) i and iv c) ii and iii d) i and ii 14. Goals should be agreeable to a) top management b) project leader c) all concerned, both management and operational staff d) programmers 15. A unique, planned, scheduled activity with one or more objectives referred as a) Project b) Job c) Process d) Task 16. The first stage of the software project is a ________which results in a recommended course of action. a) system driven project b) software driven project c) hardware driven project d) objectives driven project 17. Which one is the result of an activity. a) Software. b) System. c) Control. d) Product 18. Project planning is an _________ process. a) continuous. b) iterative. c) time consuming. d) Conventional 19. Which of the following risks are derived from the organizational environment where the software is being developed? a) People risks b) Technology risks c) Estimation risks d) Organizational risks

St. Joseph’s College of Engineering/ St. Joseph’s Institute of Technology

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MG6088 Software Project Management

Department of IT/CSE

2019- 2020

20. Which of the following strategies means that the impact of the risk will be reduced? a) Avoidance strategies b) Minimization strategies c) Contingency plans d) All of the mentioned 21. Which of the following term is best defined by the statement: ―There will be a change of organizational management with different priorities.‖? a) Staff turnover b) Technology change c) Management change d) Product competition 22. What assess the risk and your plans for risk mitigation and revise these when you learn more about the risk? a) Risk monitoring b) Risk planning c) Risk analysis d) Risk identification 23. In what order do managers typically perform the managerial functions? a) organising, planning, controlling, leading b) organising, leading, planning, controlling c) planning, organising, leading, controlling d) planning, organising, controlling, leading 24. Management exists at the ___ level of the organization. a) Lower b) Middle c) Top d) All of the above 25. Positive motivation makes people willing to do their work in the best way they can and improve their. a) Productivity b) Personality c) Performance d) All of the above 26. Return on investment(ROI) is calculated by a) (Average Annual Profit*total investment)/100 b) (Average annual profit*100)/total investment

St. Joseph’s College of Engineering/ St. Joseph’s Institute of Technology

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MG6088 Software Project Management

Department of IT/CSE

2019- 2020

c) (100*Total investment)/Average annual profit d) (1000*Total investment)/Average annual profit 27. In the abbrevation of SMART what does the letter M stands for a) Marketing b) Measurable c) Milestone d) Management

28. Quality planning is the process of developing a quality plan for a) team b) project c) customers d) project manager 29. The process each manager follows during the life of a project is known as a) Project Management b) Manager life cycle c) Project Management Life Cycle d) All of the mentioned

30. Which of the following is incorrect activity for the configuration management of a software system? a) Internship management b) Change management c) Version management d) System management 31. The rapid application development model is a) Another name for component-based development. b) A useful approach when a customer cannot define requirements clearly. c) A high speed adaption of the linear sequential model. d) All of the above. 32. The waterfall model of software development is a) A good approach when a working program is required quickly. b) The best approach to use for projects with large development teams. c) An old fashioned model that is rarely used any more.

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MG6088 Software Project Management

Department of IT/CSE

2019- 2020

d) A reasonable approach when requirements are well defined. 33. The incremental model of software development is a) A reasonable approach when requirements are well defined. b) A good approach when a working core product is required quickly. c) The best approach to use for projects with large development teams. d) A revolutionary model that is not used for commercial products. 34. Evolutionary software process models a) Are iterative in nature. b) Can easily accommodate product requirements change c) Do not generally produce throwaway systems. d) All of the above. 35. Which of the following traits need to exist among the members of an agile software team? a) Competence b) Decision-making ability c) Mutual trust and respect d) All of the above 36. The prototyping model of software development is a) A reasonable approach when requirements are well defined. b) A useful approach when a customer cannot define requirements clearly. c) The best approach to use for projects with large development teams. d) A risky model that rarely produces a meaningful product. 37. The spiral model of software development a) Ends with the delivery of the software product. b) Is more chaotic than the incremental model. c) Includes project risks evaluation during each iteration. d) All of the above 38. The formal methods model of software development makes use of mathematical methods to a) Define the specification for computer-based systems. b) Develop defect free computer-based systems. c) Verify the correctness of computer-based systems. d) All of the above. 39. The component-based development model is a) Only appropriate for computer hardware design b) Not able to support the development of reusable components. c) Dependent on object technologies for support.

St. Joseph’s College of Engineering/ St. Joseph’s Institute of Technology

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MG6088 Software Project Management

Department of IT/CSE

2019- 2020

d) Not cost effective by known quantifiable software metrics 40. Agile modeling (AM) provides guidance to practitioner during which of these software tasks? a) Analysis and Design b) Design and Coding c) Coding and Testing d) Testing and Maintenance 41. Which of the following is not necessary to apply agility to a software process? a) Eliminate the use of project planning and testing b) Only essential work products are produced c) Process allows team to streamline tasks d) Uses incremental product delivery strategy 42. What are the four framework activities found in the Extremen Programming (XP) process model? a) Analysis, design, coding, testing b) Planning, analysis, design, coding c) Planning, analysis, coding, testing d) Planning, design, coding, testing 43. Which is not one of the key questions that is answered by each member at each daily Scrum meeting? a) What did you do since the last meeting? b) What obstacles are you creating? c) What is the cause of the problem you are encountering? d) What do you plan to accomplish be the next team meeting? 44. Which of the following is delivered at the end of the Sprint? a) A document containing test cases for the current sprint b) An architectural design of the solution c) An increment of Done software d) Wireframes designed for User interface 45. When is a Sprint Retrospective ceremony performed? a) At the end of each sprint b) Whenever needed c) Whenever the Scrum master suggests d) Whenever the team suggests 46. When can a Sprint be cancelled? a) Sprint can never be cancelled

St. Joseph’s College of Engineering/ St. Joseph’s Institute of Technology

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MG6088 Software Project Management

Department of IT/CSE

2019- 2020

b) Whenever the product owner says c) When development is unable to complete the work d) The sprint items are no longer needed 47. What is a sprint review? a) Activity to Introspect and Adapt b) Activity to improve Scrum process c) Activity to seek approval for the work done d) Activity to plan for the release 48. The objective of software project planning is to a) Convince the customer that a project is feasible b) Make use of historical project data c) Enable a manager to make reasonable estimates of cost and schedule. d) Determine the profitable profit margin prior to bidding on a project. 49. Software feasibility is based on which of the following a) Business and marketing concerns b) Scope, constraints, market c) Technology, finance, time, resources d) Technical prowess of the developers 50. Problem based estimation is based on problem decomposition which focuses on a) Process activities b) Information domain values and software functions c) Project schedule d) Software functions 51. LOC-based estimation techniques require problem decomposition based on a) Information domain values b) Project schedule c) Software functions d) Process activities 52. FP-based estimation techniques require problem decomposition based on a) Information domain values b) Project schedule c) Software functions d) Process activities 53. Process-based estimation techniques require problem decomposition based on a) Information domain values b) Project schedule

St. Joseph’s College of Engineering/ St. Joseph’s Institute of Technology

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MG6088 Software Project Management

Department of IT/CSE

2019- 2020

c) Software functions d) Software functions and process activities 54. In which estimation software size should be known? a) Time estimation b) Effort estimation c) Cost estimation d) Software size estimation 55. Empirical estimation models are typically based on a) Expert judgement based on past project experiences b) Refinement of expected value estimation c) Regression models derived from historical project data. d) Trial and error determination of the parameters and coefficients 56. Which of the following is/ are main parameters that you should use when computing the costs of a software development project? a) Travel and training costs b) Hardware and software costs c) Effort costs d) All of the above 57. COCOMO stands for a) Constructive cost model b) Comprehensive cost model c) Constructive cost estimation model d) Complete cost estimation model 58. COCOMO was developed initially by a) B.Beizer b) Rajiv Gupta c) B.W.Bohem d) Gregg Rothermal 59. COCOMO II is an example of a suite of modern empirical estimation models that require sizing information expressed as a) Function points b) Lines of code c) Object points d) Any of the above 60. Which one is not a stage of COCOMO II? a) Early design estimation model

St. Joseph’s College of Engineering/ St. Joseph’s Institute of Technology

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MG6088 Software Project Management

Department of IT/CSE

2019- 2020

b) Application composition estimation model c) Comprehensive cost estimation model d) Post architecture estimation model

61. a) b) c) d)

Resources refers to Manpower Machinery Materials All of the above

62. Which of the following is not an approach to identify the activities that make up a project a) The activity-based approach, b) The product-based approach c) The non- hybrid approach. d) The process-based approach 63. PERT analysis is based on a) optimistic time b) pessimistic time c) most likely time d) all the above. 64. Which of the option is not a notable challenge while scheduling a project? a) Deadlines exist. b) Independent activities. c) Too many workers may be required. d) Costly delay 65. The particular task performance in CPM is known a) Dummy b) Event c) Activity d) Contract. 66. The earliest start time rule a) Compares the activities starting time for an activity successor. b) Compares the activities end time for an activity predecessor. c) Directs when a project can start. d) Regulates when a project must begin. 67. The critical path a) Is a path that operates from the starting node to the end node b) Is a mixture of all paths. c) Is the longest path

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MG6088 Software Project Management

Department of IT/CSE

2019- 2020

d) Is the shortest path 68. Activities A, B, and C are the immediate predecessors for Y activity. If the earliest finish times for the three activities are 12, 15, and 10, then the earliest start time for Y will be a) 10 b) 15 c) 12 d) Cannot be determined 69. Activities P, Q and R instantly follow activity M, and their current start times are 12, 19, and 10. Therefore, the latest finish time for activity M is a) 11 b) 10 c) 18 d) Cannot be determined 70. Completion of a CPM network diagram activity is commonly known a) Connector b) Event c) Node d) All the above. 71. While scheduling a project by C.P.M. a) A project is divided into various activities b) Required time for each activity is established c) A sequence of various activities is made according to their importance d) All the above. 72. A process of specifying the time for when each activity should take place a) Scheduling b) Sequencing c) Activity Plan d) Project Plan 73. .The event of the project becoming completed refers a) Sink node b) Source node c) Intermediate node d) Main mode 74. The activities and inter relationship as a graph represents a) Network Model b) Bar Chart

St. Joseph’s College of Engineering/ St. Joseph’s Institute of Technology

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MG6088 Software Project Management

Department of IT/CSE

2019- 2020

c) Activity Model d) Pie Chart 75. The difference between total float and free float is a) Independent Float b) Interfering Float c) Network Float d) Activity Float 76. The difference between the earliest date and latest date for an event is a) Free Float b) Total Float c) Slack d) Float 77. Activity-on-Arrow Networks are also called a) Arrow Diagramming Method b) Critical Path Method c) Precedence Diagramming Method d) Activity-on-node 78. Two types of networks diagrams are a) AOA and AON b) Arrow Diagramming Method and AoA c) Precedence Diagramming Method and AoN d) CPM and PERT 79. An event that might occur and will create a problem for the successful completion of the project, if it does occur. a) Risks b) Project Failure c) Hazards d) Threat 80. WBS Stands for a) Wide Breakdown System b) Work Breakdown Structure c) World Breakdown Structure d) Work Breakdown System 81. Free float is a term in a) Stock Loading b) Stock Trading

St. Joseph’s College of Engineering/ St. Joseph’s Institute of Technology

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MG6088 Software Project Management

Department of IT/CSE

2019- 2020

c) Stock Holding d) Stock Maintenance 82. PERT stands for a) Process Elimination reforce Technique b) Program Elimination Review Technique c) Program Evaluation Review Technique d) Program Estimation and Reporting Technique 83. The three different approaches to identifying the activities are a) Activity,Product,Hybrid b) Affair,Process,Hybrid c) Task,Product,Hybrid d) Project,Process,Hybrid 84. Five levels of WBS a) Project,Deliverables,Components,Work,Tasks b) Process,Plan,Compound,Project,Tasks c) Process,Delay,Components,Stock,Work d) Project,Deliverables,Stock,Work,Planning 85. To calculate the earliest dates a) Forward Pass b) Backward Pass c) Start Method d) Read Method 86. Risk Assessment formula a) Potential Damage*Probablility of Occurrence b) Probability*loss c) Probability*gain d) Damage*gain Probability 87. .Free Float a) Total float-Free Float b) Total Float-Head Event Slack c) Total Float-Stack d) Slack-Float 88. .Dangle Activity is a) Tight Activity b) Loose Activity c) Open Activity

St. Joseph’s College of Engineering/ St. Joseph’s Institute of Technology

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MG6088 Software Project Management

Department of IT/CSE

2019- 2020

d) Close Activity 89. Using feasibility analysis it is necessary to examine several alternative solutions because (i)a comparison of alternatives will lead to a cost-effective solution (ii)a pre-conceived single solution may turn out to be unimplementable (iii)it is always good to examine alternatives (iv)management normally looks at alternatives a) i and iii b) i and iv c) i and ii d) ii and iv 90. To crash a schedule you should: a) Increase the time allowed on those tasks that have float. b) Try to increase expenditures of time only those tasks that are behind schedule. c) Replace those worker that are not performing up to par with the busy. d) Increase work efforts on those tasks that are on the critical path. 91. Resource requirement in project becomes constant while the project is in its _____ progress stage. a) 40 to 55% b) 55 to 70% c) 70 to 80% d) 80 to 95% 92. Project managers have to assess the risks that may affect a project. a) True b) False 93. Which of the following is/are main parameters that you should use when computing the costs of a software development project? a) travel and training costs b) hardware and software costs c) effort costs (the costs of paying software engineers and managers) d) All of the mentioned 94. Which of the following is incorrect activity for the configu...