Test 2018, questions and answers PDF

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ORTHODONTICS 1. The following are factors that will compensate incisor liability, except: A. intercanine width growth B. labial positioning of permanent incisors C. upright position of primary incisors D. favorable tooth size ratio E. none. 2. Crowding of permanent posterior teeth may be due to: A. ...

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ORTHODONTICS

1. The following are factors that will compensate incisor liability, except: A. intercanine width growth B. labial positioning of permanent incisors C. upright position of primary incisors D. favorable tooth size ratio E. none. 2. Crowding of permanent posterior teeth may be due to: A. mesial drifting of permanent first molar B. crowding of anterior teeth C. labioversion of anterior teeth D. spacing of anterior teeth E. none. 3. This will decrease lower arch perimeter during transitional period: A. late mesial shift of first permanent molar B. distal tipping of lower cuspid C. labial position of permanent incisors D. none of the above 4. As arch perimeter increase, arch length? A. increases B. decreases C. no change. 5. This is measured from the distal of second primary molar to distal of second primary molar on the other side following the contour of the arch. A. arch width B. intercanine width C. arch perimeter D. arch length E. none. 6. Which of the developmental space will cause a decrease in arch perimeter when preempted? A. primate space B. interdental space C. leeway space D. inter-occlusal space E. none. 7. Upper arch width increases significantly more than that of lower arch due to? A. diverging alveolar growth

B. C. D. E.

vertical alveolar growth labial positioning of permanent incisors distal tipping of cuspid none.

8. Space differential between combine width of CDE and 345 will give? A. positive B. negative C. zero 9. Characteristics of infantile swallow are the following, except: A. swallow is guided by sensory interchange between lips and tongue B. jaws are apart with the tongue in between gum pads C. minimal contraction of the lips D. mandible is stabilized by facial muscles E. none. 10. If the child patient is a developing Class 2 patient, dentist need the cephalogram to determine? A. rate of root resorption of teeth B. growth potential of maxilla and mandible C. sequence of eruption D. all of the above E. both A & C F. 11. The following are sources of extraoral anchorage, except: A. cervical B. occipital C. cranial D. reciprocal E. none. 12. Two or more tooth moving in opposite directions and pitted against each other is equal and opposite. The anchorage is: A. simple B. stationary C. reciprocal D. none. 13. Tongue blade at 45 degree to the occlusal plane is used for: A. tongue thrusting B. developing anterior cross bite C. bruxism D. none.

14. Mesial surface of E can be disked in the case 3 cannot erupt because of insufficient space, this is : A. contingency of extraction B. occlusal equilibrium C. space regaining D. all E. both A & C. 15. Nature of degree of resistance and displacement offered anatomic unit for the purpose of effective tooth movement. A. active element B. anchorage C. tissue reaction D. retention E. none. 16. Child is 10 years old, tooth #55 has been exfoliated but tooth #65 is still very intact, What must be done? A. none, wait for 65 to exfoliate B. do percussion test before extracting 65 C. extract 65 at once D. take x-ray to evaluate E. none. 17. When is the proper time to remove a space maintainer? A. crown of successor visible clinically and it is in stage 8 radiographically B. bone barrier has resorbed C. crown of successor is fully erupted D. age 12 E. none. 18. Thumbsucking from age 3-7 is: A. normal B. subclinically significant C. clinically significant 19. The following are caused by thumbsucking habit, except: A. anterior open bite B. protrusion of upper incisor C. expansion of upper arch D. none. 20. The following are negative tissue responses to heavy orthodontic force, except: A. root resoprtion B. excessive tooth mobility C. great pain

D. shorter orthodontic treatment E. none.

21. What is the response of alveolar bone to orthodontic force? A. bone is deposited at the tension side, resoprtion at pressure side B. bone is deposited at pressure side and resorption at tension side C. stretching of fibers D. it does not respond to forces unless the individual is still growing E. none. 22. Type of force that creates osteoid bone on the pressure side. A. functional force B. light continuous force C. heavy force D. light interrupted force. 23. With light orthodontic force, hyalinized area will usually last for? A. 1-2 hrs. B. 2-3 weeks C. 5-6 hours D. 2 months E. none. 24. If tooth is being moved bodily toward the midline, where is the tension side? A. mesial B. distal C. labial D. lingual E. all 25. If tooth is being tipped towards the lingual, the resoprtion are found in lingual alveolar crest and ___? A. labial alveolar crest B. labial apical third C. entire labial surface D. lingual apical third E. none. 26. Physiologic tooth movements include the following, except: A. eruption

B. C. D. E.

functional movement gaining of space with an appliance mesial drifting in the absence of adjacent teeth none.

27. Force level decline abruptly to zero. A. coil spring B. fix braces C. removable appliance D. arch wire. 28. Optimal orthodontic force: A. force that move teeth most rapidly B. with least tissue damage C. with least discomfort and pain to patient D. A & B E. A,B & C. 29. Osteoclasts are formed directly along bone surface. A. direct bonbe resoprtion B. undermining resorption C. hyalinization D. all. 30. Stage of Nolla’s clacification wherein tooth begins eruptive movement: A. 2 B. 5 C. 6 D. 7 E. 10 F. 31. Which of the facial radiographs is best used in assessing whether the patient is gummy or not? A. frontal view with lips repose B. lateral view C. smiling photograph D. none. 32. Lip profile is influenced more by: A. lip size B. lip tonicity C. lip shape D. deposition of upper incisors

E. none. 33. The profile of the patient with protruded mandible and retruded maxilla is: A. straight B. convex C. concave.

34. Which of the following cannot be assessed from cephalometric radiographs? A. mandibular retrusion B. incisor inclination C. direction of mandibular growth D. adequacy of dental arch perimeter. 35. Which cephalometric landmark is not located on the mandible? A. gonion B. menton C. porion D. pogonion.

36. The average SNB angle for Filipino children with Class 1 occlusion is: A. 82.0º B. 82.5º C. 84.0º D. 84.5º E. 103º 37. The ANB angle of a patient with severe Class 2 skeletal malocclusion would most likely be: A. –4 B. 0 C. 2 D. 8. 38. If the mandibular and Frankfurt horizontal plane converge and meet at a point close behind the face, the direction of growth potential is : A. balanced vertically and horizontally B. more vertical C. more horizontal D. none.

39. Protrusiveness or retrusiveness of the chin point can be known by analyzing the: A. SNB B. FMLA C. IMPA D. FMA

E. FH/NP. 40. The correct angulation of the inclined plane in relation to the tooth in crossbite is: A. 15º B. 25º C. 35º D. 45º E. 55º 41. The following are sequelae of untreated crossbite, except: A. faceting on the labial surface of the tooth in crossbite B. faceting of the labial surface of the tooth opposing the inlocked tooth C. abrasion D. periodontal involvement. 42. The appliance to be used in correcting the anterior crossbite is determined by the: A. amount of overbite B. age of the patient C. cooperation of the patient D. all E. none. 43. Inclined planes should not be left in the mouth for more than 2 months to prevent creation of: A. anterior open bite B. posterior open bite C. anterior cross bite D. posterior cross bite. 44. The best appliance for 7 years old child with Class 1 Type 3 (inlocked maxillary central incisor) is : A. cross bite elastics B. band and crib C. myofunctional appliance D. mandibular acrylic inclined plane. 45. Appliance for correcting Class 1 deep bite in a growing child. A. tongue depressor B. band and crib C. inclined plane D. maxillary bite planes. 46. The overbite reduction achieved by the bite plane is due largely to: A. intrusion of posterior teeth B. mesial drifting of posterior teeth

C. overeruption of posterior teeth D. buccal and lingual movement of posterior teeth. 47. In adult patient with excessive overbite the lower facial height in relation to the upper and lower middle thirds is: A. normal B. markedly short C. markedly long. 48. In deep bite the postural vertical dimension is/has: A. in harmony with occlusal vertical dimension B. not in harmony with occlusal vertical dimension C. no relations with occlusal vertical dimension D. none. 49. It is the difference in size between the primary canine and molar and their permanent successor in the posterior segment: A. Nance leeway space, C. mesial shift B. posterior liability D. none of these 50. What is usually the reflection of antero-posterior skeletal relationship in the dentition: A. overbite B. overjet C. axial inclination D. all of these 51. Displacement of the maxilla is complimented by the same displacement of the mandible, which is: A. down and backward, C. forward only B. down and forward, D. forward and upward 52. Class 1 molar relationship: A. mesiobuccal cusp of the maxillary first molar occludes on the mesiolingual fossa of the mandibular first molar B. mesiobuccal cusp of the maxillary first molar occludes on the mesiobuccal groove of the mandibular first molar, C. mesiobuccal cusp of the maxillary first molar occludes on the mesiobuccal groove of the mandibular second molar, (d) none of the above. 53. Predominant type of malocclusion seen in mixed dentition is: A. crowding B. anterior open bite C. Class II Div. 1 D. Class II Div. 2 54. The more mesial a tooth of each morphologic class, the more likely to be missing. A. True B. False C. maybe

D. none of these. 55. The females show high incidence of missing teeth than males: A. True B. False C. maybe D. none of these. 56. Neutroclussion with labioversion of max centrals & buccoversion of mand 1 st premolar: A. Class 1 Type 2 & 3 B. Class 1 type 2 & 3 C. Class 1 type 2 & 5 D. none of these. 57. Unilateral distoclusion with linguoversion of max centrals & labioversion of lateral incisors: A. Class II Div. 1 subd. B. Class II 2 subd. C. Class II Div. 1 D. Class ii Div. 2 58. A narrow max arch with respect to midsagittal plane is said to be in: A. protraction B. retraction C. contraction D. distraction. 59. Incidence of malocclusion is very high in: A. homogenous population B. heterogenous population C. Eskimos D. none. 60. The ffg are potential negative tissue response to heavy forces, except: A. root resorption B. pulpal hemorrhage C. excessive tooth mobility D. bone deposition. 61. Relapse occurs most frequently with: A. intrusion B. rotation C. extrusion D. tipping.

62. An elongating force will move the tooth: A. towards the socket B. away from the occlusal plane C. on its axis D. towards the occlusal plane E. none. 63. Generalized osteoclastic activity along the walls of the alveolar socket is the bone response to: A. depressing force B. elongating force C. extrusion D. rotating force. 64. Tooth #11 is tipped towards the lingual. Alveolar bone on the labial apical region will undergo: A. bone deposition B. bone resorption C. osteoblastic activity D. osteoblastic activity.

65. The ffg are the conditions found on the area of pressure in the presence of heavy forces, except: A. area of hyalinization B. occlusion of blood vessels C. stretched periodontal fibers D. undermining resorption. 66. Rate of decay of force means: A. the degree of increase in the amount of force applied B. rate of decline in the amount of force C. type of tooth movement D. none.

67. Bodily force that moves the central incisor mesially produces: A. stretching of the periodontal fiber on the distal side B. comprerssion of the periodontal fiber in the distal side C. osteoblastic activity on the mesial side D. osteoclastic activity on then distal side. 68. The ffg produces a delay in tooth movement, except: A. hyalinization

B. undermining C. frontal osteoblastic activity D. none. 69. It refers to perfect arrangement of teeth when jaws are closed & condyles are at rest in the glenoid fossa. A. normal occlusion B. ideal occlusion C. malocclusion. 70. Characteristics of normal occlusion, except: A. normal overbite & overjet B. correct axial position of teeth C. straight terminal plane D. position & relation of teeth to each other. 71. Which of the ffg radiograph is best used in establishing the dental age of the patient? A. panoramic film B. lateral cephalogram C. hand & wrist x-ray D. bite wing film. 72. Dental casts for orthodontic purposes are constructed the same way as for the other dental purposes. These study models are inscribed with the patient’s name, age, gender & date the impressions were taken. A. both statements are correct B. both are false C. first statement is true, 2nd is false D. first statement is false 2nd is false. 73. The clinical examination data include the ffg., except: A. thumb sucking B. facial type C. body type D. color of the gingiva E. number of teeth present. 74. Diagnosis in orthodontics requires an adequate collection of relevant information from the patient’s history, clinical examination & diagnostic records while treatment planning is simply appliance. A. both statements are correct B. both statements are false C. 1st statement is true, 2nd is false D. 1st statement is false, 2nd is true. 75. Brachycephalic individuals exhibit the ffg characteristics:

A. B. C. D. E.

short face broad face broad arches round dental arches all of these.

76. This provides a reasonable facsimile of the occlusion of the patient: A. study cast B. cephalometric x-ray C. photographs D. panoramic x-ray. 77. The best alternative diagnostic aid in the absence of cephalometric head plate: A. study cast B. B. radiograph C. C. facial photograph D. D. all E. none. 78. Arch shape & symmetry are best evaluated from the : A. study cast B. panoramic x-ray C. frontal photograph D. lateral cephalogram E. intraoral photograph. 79. Anomalies in tooth shape, except: A. amelogenesis imperfecta B. peg lateral C. Leong’s premolar D. mesiodens E. Hutchinson’s incisors.

80. Congenitally missing teeth are seen frequently in: A. deciduous dentition B. permanent dentition C. both A & B D. none. 81. The most important means of preventing malocclusion is: A. to classify the occlusion B. early examination & recognition of predisposing factors C. complete the permanent record D. none.

82. Endocrinopathies, except: A. Frank pituitary B. paralytic diseases C. scurvy D. thyroid problems E. none. 83. A paralysis or lack of muscular coordination due to intracranial lesion usually as a result of birth injury: A. Torticollis B. congenital syphilis C. cerebral palsy D. none. 84. The ffg are under the general factors of malocclusion, except: A. cleidocranial dysostosis B. B. Vogelgesicht C. ankylosis D. paralytic diseases E. none. 85. Radiographs of a 5-year old patient show permanent maxillary first molars inclined mesially with resulting resoprtion of the distal portions of the roots of primary second molars. The condition described is: A. ankylosis B. ectopic eruption C. premature eruption D. internal resorption E. intrafollicular resoprtion 86. Fractured maxillary anterior teeth generally occur most often in children with which of the following dental conditions? A. Class I malocclusion B. Class II, Division 1 malocclusion C. Class II, Division 2 malocclusion D. Class III malocclusion E. Marked incisor crowding 87. When a simple tipping force is applied to the crown of a single-rooted tooth, the center of rotation is usually located:

A. B. C. D. E.

at the apex at the cervical line 5mm beyond the apex one-third the root length from the apex two-third the root length from the apex.

88. Which of the following is the most common orofacial malformation that produces malocclusion? A. Cleft palate B. Ectodermal dysplasia C. Pierre Robin syndrome D. Osteogenesis imperfecta E. Cleidocranial dysostosis 89. The cranial vault increases rapidly in size the first few years postnatally and completes approximately 90% of its growth by 6 years of age. This growth is typical of which of the following types of tissues? A. neural B. dental C. genital D. lymphoid E. general (somatic) 90. The undesirable side-effect most commonly associated with use of a finger spring to tip the crown of a tooth is: A. pain B. gingival irritation C. tendency for the tooth to intrude D. severe mobility of the tooth E. tendency for the root apex to move in the direction opposite from the crown. 91. After the age 6, the greatest increase in size of the mandible occurs: A. at the symphysis C. along the lower border B. between the canines D. distal to the first molars 92. A distal shoe space maintainer is indicated when a primary: A. canine is in crossbite B. first molar is prematurely lost C. second molar is lost after eruption of a permanent first molar D. second molar is lost prior to eruption of a permanent first molar 93. Gonion, menton and pogonion are cephalometric landmarks located on the A. midline C. bony chin B. mandible D. skeletal profile

94. A major disadvantage of treatment using cervical headgear is: A. impaction of maxillary canines B. extrusion of maxillary incisors C. extrusion of maxillary molars D. potential deformity of the neck E. psychologic trauma due to appearance 95. Asymmetrical anterior open bite with normal posterior occlusion is characteristic of: A. thumb-sucking B. mouth breathing C. abnormal swallowing habits D. both A & B E. both B & C 96. If the norm for the cephalometric angle SNA is 82°, a patient’s reading of 90° for SNA most likely indicates: A. maxillary protrusion B. the patient’s ethnic background C. protrusive maxillary incisors D. dysplasia of the anterior cranial base. 99.Cephalometrics is useful in assessing which of the following relationships? 1. tooth-to-tooth 2. bone-to-bone 3. tooth-to-bone A. 1 & 2 B. 1 & 3 C. 2 & 3 D. 1,2 & 3 E. 3 only 100. Which of the following is the most essential factor related to correction of an anterior crossbite? A. age of the patient B. depth of the corssbite C. shape of the tooth involved D. space available mesiodistally 101. Frankfort-horizontal is a reference plane constructed by joining which of the following landmarks? A. Porion and sella B. Porion and nasion C. Porion and orbitale D. Nasion and Sella 102. The tooth in the mandibular arch most likely to be malposed in cases of arch space discrepancy is the: A. first molar C. first premalor B. second molar D. second premolar

103.

Slow progress in molar uprighting in an adult patient is usally due to: A. overextended bands B. an overcontoured spring C. lack of anchorage control D. the occlusion not being relieved E. the stabilizing wire not being passive

104.

The “V” principle of growth is best illustrated by the: A. nasal spetum C. mandibular symphysis B. mandibular ramus D. spheno-occipital synchondrosis

105.

Anterior crossbite in the primary dentition usually indicates a developing: A. Class I malocclusion B. Class II malocclusion C. Class III malocclusion D. Class IV maloccusion E. none of the above

106.

A mixed dentition analysis determines: A. intercanine width B. skeletal growth pattern C. discrepancies in jaw size D. size of permanent incisors E. space available versus space required

107.

With a flush terminal plane, permanent first molars will: A. initially be Class II B. initially be Class III C. immediately assume a normal relationship D. erupt immediately into an end-to-end relationship

108.

Arch shape & symmetry are best evaluated from the: A. study cast C. frontal photograph B. panoramic x-ray D. lateral cephalogram E. intraoral photograph

109.

Bodily force that moves the central incisor mesially produces: A. stretching of the periodontal fiber on the distal side B. compression of the periodontal fiber in the distal side C. osteoblastic activity on the mesial side D. osteoclastic activity on the distal side

110. A 9-year-old patient has a slightly convex profile and a...