2020 Biology HSC Trial Examination PDF

Title 2020 Biology HSC Trial Examination
Course Cell Biology
Institution Monash University
Pages 27
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MEREWETHER HIGH SCHOOL

2020 TRIAL HIGHER SCHOOL CERTIFICATE EXAMINATION

Biology General Instructions

• • • • • • •

Total marks: 100

Reading time – 5 minutes Working time – 3 hours Write using black pen Draw diagrams using pencil NESA-approved calculators may be used For questions in Section II, show all relevant working in questions involving calculations Place your student number sticker in the space provided at the top of this page and EACH page of Section II

Section I – 20 marks (pages 2 to 10) • Attempt Questions 1 – 20 • Allow about 35 minutes for this section Section II – 80 marks (pages 11 to 27) • Attempt Questions 21 – 33 • Allow about 2 hours 25 and minutes for this section

Section I 20 marks Attempt Questions 1 – 20 Allow about 35 minutes for this section Use the multiple-choice answer sheet for Questions 1-20. Place your student number and teacher’s name on the sheet. Select the alternative A, B, C or D that best answers the question. Fill in the response oval completely using a PENCIL. 2+4=?

Sample Question (A) 2

(B) 6

(C) 8

(D) 9

A

B

C

D

If you think you have made a mistake, fully erase your incorrect selection, ensuring no marks are left, and then fill in the new answer: A

1

B

C

D

Homologous chromosomes: A. are present in pairs in all cells. B. have identical alleles. C. contain only coding regions of DNA. D. can exchange sections during meiosis.

2

Which of the following statements is correct regarding DNA in prokaryotes and eukaryotes? A. The DNA of eukaryotes may be in the form of chromosomes and/or plasmids. B. There is less DNA in eukaryotic cells than in prokaryotic cells. C. The DNA in eukaryotes is free to move around within the cytoplasm, while the DNA in prokaryotes is enclosed within a membrane. D. The DNA in both eukaryotes and prokaryotes is comprised of the same set of four nucleotides.

2

3

Yeast reproduces by asexual reproduction as illustrated in the diagram below:

The offspring produced from this type of reproduction usually have: A. half the number of chromosomes of their parents. B. genetic information identical to their parents. C. greater variation in characteristics than their parents. D. fewer organelles than their parents due to division.

4

There are many hormones involved in the control of pregnancy and birth in mammals, including luteinising hormone, oestrogen, oxytocin, and progesterone. Which row in the table correctly identifies a major role of each of these hormones? Luteinising hormone

Oestrogen

Oxytocin

Progesterone

A.

Stimulate uterine contractions during birth

Maintain the thickened uterine lining

Trigger ovulation

Repair the uterine lining following menstruation

B.

Maintain the thickened uterine lining

Trigger ovulation

Repair the uterine lining following menstruation

Stimulate uterine contractions during birth

C.

Trigger ovulation

Repair the uterine lining following menstruation

Stimulate uterine contractions during birth

Maintain the thickened uterine lining

D.

Repair the uterine lining following menstruation

Stimulate uterine contractions during birth

Maintain the thickened uterine lining

Trigger ovulation

3

5

An electrical impulse can be transmitted along three neurons as shown in the following diagram.

Which structure represents a sensory neuron? A. W B. X C. Y D. Z

6

DNA profiling can be used to test for paternity. Three men (George, Emmanuel and Simon) were tested to determine the paternity of a child and the following banding patterns were produced.

Which individual could you conclude is the most likely to be the father from these data? A. George B. Emmanuel C. Simon D. None of the three men, as none of their profiles exactly matches that of the child. 4

7

Below is a count a student made of the population of rabbits in his backyard. The brown fur colour (B) is dominant over the white fur colour (b). Genotype

Phenotype

Number of Rabbits

BB

Brown

20

bb

White

5

Bb

Brown

25

What is the allele frequency for the (b) allele in this population of rabbits? A. 0.05 B. 0.10 C. 0.25 D. 0.35

8

Which of the following best describes a mutagen? A mutagen is a strand of DNA that has a mutation. A mutagen is a peptide chain with an incorrect amino acid. A mutagen is a strand of mRNA that does not correctly complement the DNA template strand that was used to create it. A mutagen is anything that causes a change in the genetic code.

9

A new species of plant has been discovered. The flower inheritance pattern appears to be incomplete dominance because when a green flower variety is crossed with a red one, all of the offspring are brown. The expected phenotypic ratios of the offspring produced when a brown variety is crossed with red are: A. 1 red : 2 brown : 1 green B. 1 red : 1 brown C. 1 green : 1 brown D. 1 red : 1 green

5

10

Infection in mammals is often accompanied by fever, which is a rise in body temperature. Fever is caused by the resetting of the temperature control centre. This control centre is located in the: A. Hypothalamus B. Pituitary gland C. Brain D. Skin

11

A population of laboratory rats in a medical research institute was suffering from an unknown disease. Researchers isolated three suspected pathogens (which they labelled I, II and III) from affected rats and carried out a biochemical analysis to determine which classes of organic compounds were present in the three pathogens. Their results were as follows: I

II

III

DNA

x

x



RNA

x





protein







lipid

x





carbohydrate

x

x

 Key:

Which of the following could the researchers conclude from these results? A. Neither I nor II could be pathogens as they do not contain DNA. B. I could not be a pathogen as it contains no nucleic acid. C. III could be a fungus. D. II and III are both cellular pathogens.

6

= present x = absent

12

Which of the following statements can the researcher conclude based on the following pedigree?

A. The researcher could reliably conclude that this trait is autosomal dominant. B. Individual II-3 must be heterozygous. C. The trait could be recessive. D. The researcher could rule out the possibility that the trait is sex-linked because there are equal numbers of males and females who show the trait.

13

A fragment of DNA from chromosome 7 of each of two persons, Smith and Moore, are sequenced. The nucleotide sequences in corresponding regions are shown below.

Smith: G A T G G A T C G A G G T C Moore: G A T G A T C G A G G T C This DNA fragment controls the production of an enzyme that, when faulty, results in a rare genetic disorder. Smith is unaffected while Moore has the recessive disorder.

It is reasonable to conclude that: A. the complement of Smith’s DNA strand would have the sequence: G A T G G A T C G A G G T C. B. the amino acid sequence in the polypeptides translated from the DNA of Moore and of Smith would be identical. C. the mRNA transcribed from Smith’s DNA would have the sequence: G A T G G A T C G A G G T C. D. Moore’s genetic disorder could be due to a deletion of one of the nucleotides.

7

Refer to the following information to answer the next two questions: In 2018, health workers conducted a year-long study of 20 000 people in order to examine the incidence, prevalence and mortality rates from a particular infectious disease. At the beginning of the study, 1 200 people had the disease. Over the course of the year, an additional 165 cases were diagnosed and there were 35 deaths recorded as a result of the disease.

14

What was the prevalence of the disease at the conclusion of the study? A. 175 per 100 000 population B. 1 330 per 100 000 population C. 6 650 per 100 000 population D. 6 825 per 100 000 population

15

What is the mortality rate of the disease, according to the study? A. 175 per 100 000 population B. 825 per 100 000 population C. 878 per 100 000 population D. 6825 per 100 000 population

16

Frankliniella occidentalis (below) is an insect that feeds on Pelargonium (geranium) plants. It is known to infect geraniums with a virus called the pelargonium flower break virus. The virus enters the plant via wounds made as the insect feeds on the plant tissues. The virus causes symptoms including white streaks on flowers, discoloration of leaves and reduced plant growth.

0.5mm

Frankliniella occidentalis Based on this information, which of the following terms CANNOT be applied to F. occidentalis? A. Pathogen B. Host C. Vector D. Macroparasite

8

17

Cri-du-chat (cat's cry) syndrome, also known as 5p- (5p minus) syndrome, is a genetic condition that results when a piece of chromosome 5 is missing. Infants with this condition often have a highpitched cry that sounds like that of a cat. What type of mutation is the one that causes Cri-du-chat syndrome? A. Polyploidy B. Rearrangement C. Monosomy D. Point mutation

18

Six students conducted an experiment to test for the presence of microbes in food and water samples. Each student was responsible for the testing of one sample; to do so, they each prepared ten agar petri dishes using sterile technique. Each student exposed eight of their ten plates to their sample and left the remaining two plates unopened. All of the plates were then sealed and incubated at 30°C for four days. After incubation, the total number of microbe colonies present for each sample was recorded. The graph below shows the results of the experiment.

Which of the following would be true from the data presented above? A. All of the students’ data is valid because they each used a control. B. All of the students’ data is valid because they each used multiple petri dishes. C. Only Bronte and Georgia’s data is valid because only their results were identical. D. Only Ali’s data is valid because only his unopened plates had no microbes present.

9

Refer to the following information to answer the next two questions: The table below compares how seven diseases spread and the number of people likely to be infected by one other infected person. Disease

measles

pertussis

rubella

polio

smallpox

mumps

Ebola

How it spreads

airborne droplets

airborne droplets

airborne droplets

faecaloral route

airborne droplets

airborne droplets

bodily fluids

Number of people infected from one other person

12 to 18

12 to 17

6 to 7

5 to 7

5 to 7

4 to 7

1 to 4

Source: 2018 Thomson Reuters 19

What would be the most effective method of preventing the spread of measles during an outbreak? A. Wash hands thoroughly after going to the toilet. B. Establish a ‘clean needle’ exchange program. C. Isolate all infected people. D. Vaccinate all infected people.

20

Based on the information in the table, which one of the following statements is correct? A. Ebola is the most contagious disease. B. Polio and smallpox have a similar infection rate. C. More people would die from measles than any other disease shown. D. The faecal–oral route is the most effective means of spreading pathogens.

10

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Section II 80 marks Attempt Questions 21 – 33 Allow about 2 hours and 25 minutes for this section Answer the questions in the spaces provided. DO NOT write outside the space provided. Question 21 (5 marks)

Marks

The following are images of cells from a tissue which is undergoing mitosis.

(a) The cells are numbered but are not in the correct order. The order of the first three stages is 4 – 2 – 3. Complete the correct order below.

1

…………………………………………………………………………………………...… (b) During your study of Biology, you modelled the processes of mitosis and meiosis. Complete the table below to compare the two processes.

4

Feature

Mitosis

Meiosis

Genetic contents of daughter cells

Produces identical daughter cells

Produces genetically different daughter cells

Type of cells produced

Somatic cells

Number of rounds of cell division

1

Number of daughter cells produced

11

Question 22 (3 marks)

Marks

In the space below, draw a labelled diagram to show how a feedback mechanism plays an essential role in maintaining blood glucose levels.

3

Question 23 (3 marks) Messages carried by the nervous system are often described as ‘electrochemical’ impulses. Justify the use of this term. …………………………………………………………………………………………………. …………………………………………………………………………………………………. …………………………………………………………………………………………………. …………………………………………………………………………………………………. …………………………………………………………………………………………………. …………………………………………………………………………………………………. …………………………………………………………………………………………………. …………………………………………………………………………………………………. ………………………………………………………………………………………………….

12

3

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Question 24 (3 marks)

Marks

Gumbi Gumbi (Gumby Gumby) is an Aboriginal Australian bush medicine traditionally used to treat coughs and colds. Traditional bush medicines such as Gumbi Gumbi are sold and used by non-indigenous individuals. The illustration shows a typical label for this product.

(a) Outline what is meant by the term ‘bush medicine’

1

……………………………………………………………………………………………... ……………………………………………………………………………………………... ……………………………………………………………………………………………... (b) Explain why the recognition and protection of Aboriginal Australian intellectual property is important. ……………………………………………………………………………………………... ……………………………………………………………………………………………... ……………………………………………………………………………………………... ……………………………………………………………………………………………... …………………………………………………………………………………………...… ……………………………………………………………………………………………...

13

2

Question 25 (6 marks)

Marks

Artificial pollination is a reproductive technology. It is very important in horticulture as it is used to produce plants with favourable characteristics. The process is shown below.

(a) Explain why the anthers are removed in artificial pollination.

2

……………………………………………………………………………………………... ……………………………………………………………………………………………... ……………………………………………………………………………………………... ……………………………………………………………………………………………... (b) Compare artificial pollination and plant cloning. ……………………………………………………………………………………………... ……………………………………………………………………………………………... ……………………………………………………………………………………………... ……………………………………………………………………………………………... ……………………………………………………………………………………………... ……………………………………………………………………………………………... ……………………………………………………………………………………………... ……………………………………………………………………………………………... ……………………………………………………………………………………………...

14

4

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Question 26 (5 marks)

Marks

The sex of birds is determined by the ZW chromosome system: males have two Z chromosomes and females have a Z and a W chromosome. In a particular species of bird, the size and colour of the tail feathers is controlled by two genes. The gene for tail feather size is located on the Z chromosome. The two alleles (ZF and ZS) exhibit incomplete dominance, where: • Males that are homozygous ZF have large tail feathers. • Males that are homozygous ZS have small tail feathers. • Heterozygous males have medium-sized tail feathers. • Females with the ZF allele have medium-sized tail feathers. • Females with the ZS allele have no tail feathers. The gene for tail feather colour is on an autosomal chromosome and the two alleles are black and yellow. The two alleles show incomplete dominance, with the heterozygous condition resulting in brown tail feathers. Carry out a dihybrid cross to show the offspring of a mating between a male bird with medium-sized yellow tail feathers and a female bird with medium-sized black tail feathers. Show all working, including the genotypic and phenotypic ratios of the offspring. …………………………………………………………………………………………………. …………………………………………………………………………………………………. …………………………………………………………………………………………………. …………………………………………………………………………………………………. …………………………………………………………………………………………………. …………………………………………………………………………………………………. …………………………………………………………………………………………………. …………………………………………………………………………………………………. …………………………………………………………………………………………………. …………………………………………………………………………………………………. …………………………………………………………………………………………………. ………………………………………………………………………………………………….

15

5

Question 27 (6 marks)

Marks

Many flowering plants can reproduce asexually as well as sexually. The plant below produces three groups of offspring (A, B and C), each by different means.

(a) List the three groups in order of how genetically diverse you would expect them to be (from most diverse to least diverse) and justify your answer.

3

……………………………………………………………………………………………... ……………………………………………………………………………………………... ……………………………………………………………………………………………... ……………………………………………………………………………………………... ……………………………………………………………………………………………... ……………………………………………………………………………………………... (b) Which group would you expect to have the greatest frequency of homozygous pairs of alleles? Explain your answer. ……………………………………………………………………………………………... ……………………………………………………………………………………………... ……………………………………………………………………………………………... ……………………………………………………………………………………………... ……………………………………………………………………………………………... ……………………………………………………………………………………………...

16

3

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Question 28 (9 marks)

Marks

Sickle cell anaemia is a serious inherited blood condition caused by a mutation in the gene which codes for beta haemoglobin. There are two alleles for the beta haemoglobin gene; HbA which codes for normal beta haemoglobin, and HbS, which codes for the mutant haemoglobin. An individual with two copies of the HbS allele will develop symptoms of sickle cell anaemia, which can include tiredness, joint pain, and kidney failure. It is now possible to genetically test individuals to see if they carry the HbS allele. The test utilises both polymerase chain reaction (PCR) and gel electrophoresis, as well as a restriction enyme called MstII. MstII recognises and cuts according the following 7-base recognition sequence:

(a) What is the term used to describe the ends of the fragments produce...


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