445529699 S1 Gen Oral Ana Phy docx PDF

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GENERAL AND ORAL ANATOMY; GENERAL AND ORAL PHYSIOLOGYShade AE if the answer is not in the choices given. The movement of the TMJ in transverse direction occurs at? A. Superior joint compartment C, Inferior joint compartment B. Lateral joint compartment D. Medial joint compartment The TMJ meniscal di...

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GENERAL AND ORAL ANATOMY; GENERAL AND ORAL PHYSIOLOGY Shade AE if the answer is not in the choices given. 1. The movement of the TMJ in transverse direction occurs at? A. Superior joint compartment C, Inferior joint compartment B. Lateral joint compartment D. Medial joint compartment 2. The TMJ meniscal disc has the following description, except? A. Biconcave disc C. Has a thick posterior compartment B. The thinnest part is at the anterior compartment D, Divides the cavity into 2 compartments 3. The following describes the mandible, except? A. Develops from 1st brachial arch B. Condyle develops by means of membranous ossification C. Ramus grows in a posterior direction D. Serves as the attachment of several muscles of mastication 4. Metopic suture is associated with what bone? A. Frontal bone B. Sphenoid bone 5. The sphenoid bone develops from A. Membranous development

C. Temporal bone

B. Endochondral development

D. Maxillary bone

C. Both

6. The cervical vertebra and the hand and wrist bone is A. Adjunct to determine the growth status of an individual B. Its development is affected by the increase in size of individual; C. Important landmark in determining the growth status of an individual D. All of the above E. None of the above 7. Pterion comprises of the following A. Temporal, occipital, sphenoid, parietal B. Parietal, occipital, frontal, sphenoid

C. Sphenoid, temporal, frontal, parietal D. Temporal, parietal, frontal, occipital

8. The hinge movement of TMJ is accomplished by, which among the following choices is incorrect A. Inferior joint cavity C. Lateral pterygoid opposes the movement B. Anterior opening of the jaw and posterior movementD. None of the above 9. The number of muscle present in man A. 640 B. 450 C. 850

D. 550

10. Which of the following muscles is the smallest? A. Corrugator supercilli B. Stapedius 11. The 5th muscle of mastication is A. Stylomandibularis B. Sphenomandibularis

C. Stylohyoid

D. Phenomandibular

C. Hyomandibularis D. None of the above

12. A segment of the lung that is pyramidal in shape, apex towards the lung root A. Bronchopulmonary segment B. Upper segment C. Lower segment D. None of the above 13. It is much easier to smile because when you smile there are 20 muscles that act on it, but when you frown there are how many muscle acts on it?

A. 30 Muscles

B. 40 muscles

C. 50 muscle

D. 600 muscles

14. The following are paired cartilages of the larynx, except A. arytenoid B. cuneiform C. corniculate 15. This muscle is also called caninus A. depressor labii inferioris B. levator anguli oris

D. cricoid

C. levator labii superioris D. depressor anguli oris

16. The following are the origin of the trapezius, except A. superior nuchal line B. lumbosacral fascia

C. ligamentum nuchae

17. The following are the rotator cuff muscle, except A. Teres major B. teres minor

C. supraspinatus

18. It extends the arm and medially rotates the glenohumeral joint A. subscapularis B. supraspinatus C. teres major

D. C7-T12

D. infraspinatus

D. teres minor

19. Muscular dystrophy a genetic disease that causes atrophy of the muscle fibers and it is also called the pompe disease A. 1st and the 2nd statement are correct B. 1st and 2nd statement are incorrect C. one is correct the other is not 20. Superficial muscle that covers the lower jaw and anterior part the neck, what is the nerve supply of this muscle A. temporal N B. Buccal N C. mandibular N D. cervical N 21. The following are inserted into the intertubercular groove of the humerus, except A. Teres Major B. Teres minor C. pectoralis Minor D. latissimus dorsi 22. The main blood supply of the 2nd and 5th digits when blocked or injured will cause A. trousseau sign B. hand paralysis C. tunnel syndrome D. carpal syndrome 23. The sciatic nerve after passing through the gluteus maximus will run towards the following muscle, except A. piriformis B. pyramidalis C. obturator internus D. adductor magnus 24. The muscles of the thigh that is located at the lateral compartment moves the thigh in A. away from the midline B. towards the midline C. rotates the leg D. medially position 25. Decompression fasciotomy is, except? A. incision is made through the skin B. incision is made up to the muscle

C. incision to relieve pressure D. none of these

26. The cementoenamel junction of teeth curves in which two directions? I. Towards the apex on the facial and lingual surfaces. II. Away from the apex on the facial and lingual surfaces III. Towards the apex on the mesial and distal surfaces IV. Away from the apex on the mesial and distal surfaces A. I & II B. I & III C. I & IV D. II & III E. II & IV 27. Primary teeth differ from the permanent teeth in that primary teeth have: I. Whiter crown II. More pronounced cervical ridges III. Comparatively ridges larger pulp cavities IV. Comparatively larger and slender roots V. Longer crowns compared with their mesiodistal diameters A. I, II & III B. I, II III & IV C. I, II III & V D. I, IV & V

E. III, IV & V

28. A linear depression that crosses the mesial marginal ridge of maxillary premolar occlusally: A. Mesial marginal ridge C. mesial marginal developmental ridge B. Mesial marginal developmental groove D. both A & B E. both B & C

29. The sixth cusp of mandibular 1st molar located between the two lingual cusps is: A. Tuberculum intermedium C. cusp of carabelli B. Tuberculum sextum D. distal cusp E. mesiodistal cusp 30. Occlusally, mandibular second premolar three-cusps type exhibits the following, except: A. Crown appears square lingual to the buccal cusp ridges. B. Grooves converge in a central pit and form a Y occlusally. C. Well-developed lingual cusp directly opposite the buccal cusp. D. Three fossae, three triangular ridges, three grooves, three developmental pits. E. Central groove may be straight , sometimes crescent-shaped 31. The following ridges forms the perimeter of the occlusal table of maxillary first molars, except: A. Buccal cusps ridges C. mesial marginal ridge E. fifth cusp ridges B. Lingual cusps ridges D. distal marginal ridge 32. The first evidence of calcification of maxillary third molar: A. 6 years C. 7 to 9 years B. 7 to 8 years D. 8 to 9 years

E. 12 to 13 years

33. Which of the following is not true regarding surfaces of the teeth? A. Mesial surfaces are those towards the median line of the face B. Distal surfaces are those most distant from the median line of the face. C. The surface that is towards the lips is the lingual surface. D. Collectively, the surface that is towards the cheeks on posterior teeth and the lips on anterior teeth is the facial surface. E. The surface that is towards the cheek on posterior teeth is the buccal surface. 34. The largest incisal/occlusal embrasure is located between: A. Maxillary central and lateral incisors D. Mandibular lateral incisor and canine B. Mandibular central and lateral incisors E. Maxillary canine and first premolar C. Maxillary lateral incisor and canine 35. The following forms the perimeter of maxillary first premolar occlusally, except: A. mesial and distal cusp ridges of the buccal cusp B. mesial and distal cusp ridges of the lingual cusp C. buccal and lingual triangular ridges D. mesial and distal marginal ridges E. none, all forms the perimeter of max first premolar occlusally. 36. The following features are TRUE of maxillary first premolar mesially , except : A. Presence of a developmental depression on the crown and root. B. Well-defined developmental groove in the enamel of mesial marginal ridge. C. the groove and depression are in line with each other D. the groove and depression are connected with each other. E. All of the above are true. 37. A peg shaped lateral incisor would developed from how many lobes? A. one lobe B. three lobes C. two lobes D. four lobes

E. five lobes

38. Maxillary lateral incisors vary considerably in its development. Variations includes the following, except: A. Non-descript pointed form C. Missing entirely B. deep developmental grooves D. twisted roots; distorted crowns E. notch on the incisal ridge 39. The height of contour of a mandibular incisor when viewed facially is located at what third of the crown? A. Cervical C. junction of cervical and middle B. Middle D. incisal E. junction of middle and incisal 40. The mandibular central incisors exhibits which one of the following characteristics when viewed from the incisal aspect?

A. The labial surface is more narrow than the lingual surface.

B. The incisal ridge is facial to the line bisecting the crown LL. C. The incisal ridge is almost at right angle to the line bisecting the crown LL. D. The LL diameter of the crown is always less than the MD diameter. E. None of the above. 41. The sixth cusp of mand. 1st molars located on the distal marginal ridge: A. tuberculum intermedium C. cusp of carabeli B. tuberculum sextum D. none of the choices 42. Which of the following forms the oblique ridge of maxillary first molars? I. distolingual triangular ridge IV. mesial triangular ridge of ML cusp II. mesiobuccal triangular ridge V. distal triangular ridge of ML cusp III. distobuccal triangular ridge A. I & IV B. I & V C. II & V D. III & IV E. III & V 43. The following are considered primary cusps of maxillary molars, except: A. mesiolingual B. distobuccal C. mesiobuccal D. distolingual E. none of these 44. These molars has two antagonists, except: A. maxillary first molars C. maxillary third molars B. mandibular first molars D. mandibular third molar 45. Which among the permanent teeth has its mesial marginal ridge located more cervically than its distal marginal ridge? A. Maxillary first molar C. Mandibular second molar B. Mandibular first molar D. Mandibular first premolar E. Maxillary first premolar 46. The following cusps of the maxillary molars that forms the maxillary molar primary cusp triangle. I. Mesiofacial II. Mesiolingual III. Distofacial IV. Distolingual A. I, II & III B. I, II & IV C. II, III & IV D. I, III & IV 47. Cross sectionally, deciduous teeth as compare to permanent teeth are as follows, except: A. Pulpal horns are higher, especially mesial horns, and chambers are proportionately larger. B. Dentin thickness between the pulp and the enamel is limited. C. Enamel rods at the cervix slope gingivally instead of occlusally as in the permanent teeth. D. Enamel cap of deciduous molars is thinner and has a more consistent depth. E. There is a comparatively greater thickness of dentin over the pulpal wall at the occlusal fossa of deciduous molars. 48. Deciduous teeth, in comparison with their permanent counterpart, present the following, except: A. Crowns of deciduous anterior teeth are wider mesiodistally in comparison with their crown length. B. Cervical ridges of enamel of anterior teeth are more prominent. C. Cervical ridges buccally on deciduous molars are much more pronounced D. Buccal and lingual surface of deciduous molars are flatter above the cervical curvatures. E. Occlusal surfaces of deciduous molars are wider than those of permanent molars. 49. What would you estimate to be the dental age of a child with the following teeth: all primary maxillary incisors, canines and molars; permanent mandibular incisors and first molars. A. 2 to 4 years C. 8 to 9 years B. 5 to 7 years D. 10 to 11 years E. over 12 years 50. All mandibular posterior teeth have crown outlines from mesial or distal aspect that is roughly rhomboidal. Their entire crown has a lingual tilt in relation to the root axis. A. The first statement is true, while the second statement is false. B. The second statement is false, while the first statement is false. C. Both statements are true. D. Both statements is false. 51. The repeating units of nucleic acids or nucleotides are made up of the following molecules A. nitrogenous base and sugar C.pyrimidine/purine , sugar and phosphate

C. nitrogenous base and phosphate

D. pyrimidine/purine and phosphate

E. sugar and phosphate.

52. In the cytoplasm, rRNA and protein combine to form a A. nucleoprotein B. ribosome C. rER

D. A and B

E .B and C.

53. In 1972, the Fluid Mosaic Model of membrane structure was proposed by A.Robert Hooke C. Charles Overton E. Gorter and Grendel B. Singer and Nicholson D. Danielli and Davson. 54. The synthesis of specific proteins from the mRNA base sequence code is A. replication B. translation C. transcription D. transduction E. both B and C. 55. This type of RNA is characterized by bending on itself to form a cloverleaf structure that twists further into an upside down “L” shape is A. iRNA B. miRNA C. mRNA D. rRNA E. tRNA. 56. All are specific types of facilitated diffusion, except A. counter transport B. cotransport C. gated channels D. antiport E. uniport. 57. Facilitated diffusion is significant to cells and humans because of the following, except A. communication of neurons C. contraction of muscles E. transport of food in the small intestines B. cell respiration D. glandular secretion. 58. All are applications of osmosis in cells and humans, except in A. cells that remove water produced during cell respiration B. kidney cells forming urine C. large intestines cells that transport water to the blood stream D. movement of glucose and amino acids across the cell membrane. 59. Transmembrane proteins of opposite cells attach in a tight zipper-like fashion are seen in A. tight junctions B. desmosomes C. gap junctions D. plasmodesmata E. all of them. 60. This type of RNA carries the genetic code to the cytoplasm for controlling the type of protein formed A)mRNA B)tRNA C)rRNA D)hnRNA E)sn RNA. 61. During this stage of mitosis, the 2 chromatids of each chromosome are pulled apart at the centromere and all 46 pairs of chromatids are separated forming two separate sets of 46 daughter chromosomes A. prophase B. metaphase C. anaphase D. telophase E. interphase. 62. When cells are no longer needed or become a threat to the organism, they undergo a suicide programmed cell death called A. necrobiosis B. necrosis C. pyknosis D. cytokinesis E. apoptosis. 63. Arrange the following terms in the sequence that best reflects how the body maintains homeostasis, for example during a fever: 1- effector activated 2-integrating center process 3-negative feedback loops activated 4-sensor activated 5-return to set point A. 24315 B. 53241 C. 43152 D. 42135 E. 12453. 64. The transport of glucose molecules from outside the cell, across the membranes, and into most tissue cells (excluding the intestine or kidney tubule) occurs by the process of A. active transport C. simple or passive diffusion B. facilitated diffusion D. coupled transport E. antiport. 65. This type of contraction/s is/are propagated for only short distances and function to mix intestinal contents A. peristalsis B. assimilation C. segmentation D, propulsive movements E. both A and C. 66. The only means by which macromolecules, such as protein molecules can enter cells is by A. phagocytosis B. emeiocytosis C. exocytosis D. pinocytosis E. karyokinesis. 67. All are functions of the smooth endoplasmic reticulum, except A. glycogen breakdown C. synthesis of cholesterol

B. synthesis of phospholipids

D. detoxification of drugs and poisons E. synthesis of proteins.

68. This structure serves as the site and carries the enzymes for protein synthesis A. nucleic acids B. nucleoproteins C. ribosomes D. phagosomes E. peroxisomes. 69. These are glycoproteins and/or glycolipids on extracellular surface which serve as ID tags to determine which species, which type of cell, or individual are the A. transport proteins C. enzymatic proteins B. cell recognition proteins D. receptor proteins E.attachment proteins. 70. The extent to which the lungs expand for each unit increase in transpulmonary pressure is called A, compliance B. resonance C. vibration D. ventilation E. articulation. 71. These are subtypes of transport proteins which bind to a substance and carry it across the membrane, can change in shape in the process are the A .channel proteins B. carrier proteins C. integrins D. glycophorins E. chemical messengers. 72. Water molecules can move directly through the phospholipids of the plasma membrane by A. facilitated diffusion B. osmosis C. pinocytosis D. heterophagy E. filtration. 73. The large molecules that move out of the cell through exocytosis are the following, except A. proteins B. polysaccharides C. polynucleotides D, water E. neurotransmitters. 74. All are examples of endocytosis, except A.phagocytosis C. receptor-mediated endocytosis B. pinocytosis D. surface tension

E, none of them.

75. These molecules move through the plasma membrane by facilitated diffusion, except A. Na+, K+ and Cl- C. glucose B. amino acids D. small water soluble molecules E. Ca++ and Mg++ 76. This phase of tooth eruption is completed when the tooth reaches the occlusal plane. A. Pre-eruptive B. Eruptive C. Functional D. all of the above 77. Third stage of tooth eruption. A. Gingival Emergence B. Postemergent eruptive spurt

C. Emergence of crown tip into the oral cavity D. all of the above

78. The tooth is pushed out of the bone by forces generated A. beneath the tooth B .above the tooth C .around the tooth

D. beneath and around the tooth

79. Remnants of dental lamina and connective tissue contained in the gubernacular canal which are found in successional teeth. A. pulp tissue B. periodontal ligament C. gubernacular cord D. alveolar bone 80. Cells within the periodontal ligament which may generate an eruptive force either by their contractility or locomotor activity. A. fibroblasts B. odontoblasts C. cementoblasts D. cementoclasts 81.Correct sequence of tooth eruption in the maxillary arch A. 61234587 B. 61243578 C. 61245378

D. 62143578

82. Correct sequence of tooth eruption in the mandibular arch A. 61234578 B. 61243578 C. 61254378 D. 62143578 83. Mandibular arch conforms generally to one or more curved planes which appear concave and the opposing maxillary arch, the curvature appears A. concave B. flat C. convex D. any of the above

84. Development of occlusion begins with the occlusion of the A. permanent teeth B .mixed dentition C. deciduous teeth

D. all of the above

85. Basic pattern of tooth position A. Arch

B. Gingiva

C. Curve of Spee

D. Articulation

86. Used to describe contacts between the teeth in opposing dental arches during mandibular movements A. Arch B. Gingiva C. Curve of Spee D. Articulation 87. Curved alignment of cusps and incisal ridges observed from a point opposite the first molars. A. Arch B. Gingiva C. Curve of Spee D. Articulation 88. Each tooth has 2 antagonists, except

A. 31

B. 38

C. 26

D. 43

89. Position assumed by the permanent tooth germs relative to their precursor. A. lingual B. mesial C. distal D. labial E. buccal 90. Example of disturbance A. posterior open bite B. bruxism 91. Exampe of disorder

A. overcrowding

B. bruxism

C. attrition

C. sharp teeth

D. cracked tooth

D. increase overbite

92. Temporomandibular joint is composed of muscles, bone, ligament, cartilage and A. synovial membrane B. nerve C. sulcus D. sinus 93. Bony elevation located anterior and posterior to the glenoid fossa A. articular eminence B. temporal bone C. condylar process D. mandible 94. It completely surrounds the condyle A. temporomandibular ligament B. capsular ligament

C. sphenomandibular ligament D. stylomandibular ligament

95. With wider opening of the jaw, the sphenomandibular ligament is A. slightly stretched B. relaxed C. separated 96. Lines the internal surface of the...