BIOL 2401 Final Review PDF

Preview

Summary

Download BIOL 2401 Final Review PDF

Description

Roselynn Scribner Final Exam: Tuesday May 9, 2017 10:50 am BIOL 2401 Final Exam Review What is a tissue? group of cells with a common function (epithelial, connective, muscle, nervous) 11 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6.

Organ systems: Integumentary Skeletal Muscular Cardiovascular Respiratory Digestive

7. Urinary/Excretory 8. Endocrine 9. Lymphatic 10. Nervous 11. Reproductive ? 12. Immune

Describe a homeostatic mechanism that works using negative feedback. o Regulation of body temperature- hypothalamus senses change in body temperature (too high or too low) and negative-feedback system returns body to normal temperature o Control of blood sugar (glucose) levels- receptors in the body sense a rise in blood sugar levels and the pancreas releases insulin other examples: blood pressure The elbow joint is distal to the: a. wrist b. fingers c. shoulder d. thumb The navel is superior to the: a. chin b. nose c. knees d. neck What is the difference between a parasagittal plane and a midsagittal plane? Parasagittal plane- divides the body into unequal left and right portions Midsagittal plane- divides the body into equal left and right sides Define the following terms 1. midsagittal plane: divides body into equal left and right sides 2. homeostasis: maintaining relatively stable equilibrium despite environmental changes 3. histology: study of tissues 4. tissue: group of cells with a common function 5. metabolism: range of biochemical processes; breakdown of food to energy The two pleural cavities contain which organs? a. Heart b. intestines c. Kidneys d. lungs

Which of the following is not contained in the mediastinum? a. Stomach b. trachea c. Esophagus d. aorta Provide the body region for each anatomical term below. Hallux: big toe

Olecranal: back of elbow

Carpal: wrist

Cervical: neck

Calcaneal: heel Lumbar: lower back

Acromial: shoulder Mental: chin

Sacral: lowest part of spine

Buccal: cheek

Provide the anatomical term for each body region below. Bottom (sole) of foot: plantar Shoulder blade: scapular Thumb: pollux Hip: coxal Neck: cervical Arm (between shoulder and elbow): brachial Ear: otic (auricle) Back of head: occipital Ankle: tarsal Mouth: oral The most common form of carbon has 6 protons, 6 electrons, and 6 neutrons. If two more neutrons are added to a carbon atom: a. it is no longer carbon b. it has been changed into nitrogen c. it is an isotope of carbon d. it is an ion What is the atomic number of the carbon atom in the question above? 6 Which of the following would have a polar covalent bond? a. Water (H2O)

b. oxygen gas (O2) c. table salt (NaCl) d. methane (CH4) Which of the following is an example of an ionic bond? a. Water (H2O) b. oxygen gas (O2) c. table salt (NaCl) d. methane (CH4) A neutral solution (such as pure water) will have a pH level of: a. 0 b. 1 c. 7 d. 10 Which of the following pH levels is the most basic? a. 4 b. 8 c. 10 d. 12 An atom has 8 protons, 8 electrons, and 8 neutrons. a. 8 b. 16 c. 24 d. 64

Its atomic weight is:

The atomic number of the atom in the question above is: a. 8 b. 16 c. 24 d. 64 What do you get when you mix an acid and a base? water and salt A solution with more hydrogen ions than hydroxide ions would be: a. an acid b. a base c. a buffer d. neutral What chemicals make up the base structure of a plasma (cell) membrane? Phospholipids, glycolipids, glycoproteins, cholesterol What makes up the structure of a triglyceride? 3 fatty acids & glycerol We can digest starch but not cellulose. Why is this? We do not have an enzyme to digest cellulose (fiber) Which of the following is a monosaccharide?

a. Glucose b. Starch

c. cellulose d. glycogen

Two amino acids can be joined to form a dipeptide by the process of: a. hydrolysis b. dehydration synthesis c. oxidation d. digestion Which of the following is not a part of a nucleotide? a. phosphate b. 5-carbon sugar c. base d. enzyme In DNA, guanine (G) always binds to: a. adenine b. cytosine c. thymine d. uracil Do we need carrier proteins to move water across a membrane? no, water moves across the cell membrane by osmosis

Explain.

The natural movement of particles from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration is: a. diffusion b. active transport c. pinocytosis d. hemolysis What forms the basal bodies of cilia? centrioles How is the microtubule formation of a cilium different from that of a centriole? Centrioles contain 9 sets of triplets and no doublet in the center Define the following. Messenger RNA: genetic information transcribed from DNA as a sequence of bases is transferred to a ribosome Transfer RNA: helps decode a messenger RNA (mRNA) sequence into a protein Ribosomal RNA: RNA component of the ribosome that is essential for protein synthesis What is a codon? A start codon? A stop codon? codon- 3 base sequence in mRNA start codon- the first codon of a mRNA transcript stop codon- tells when to stop coding and begin new strand (UAG, UAA, UGA) How do changes in the DNA gene sequence affect the protein created?

It can result in changes in protein function called a mutation, which can result in a complete inactive protein What are the two layers of the basement membrane, and what makes each layer? Basal lamina (made by epithelium) Reticular lamina (made by the underlying CT) Where would you most likely find tight junctions (impermeable junctions that prevent molecules from passing through)? Intestines (microvilli), stomach Stratified squamous epithelium is primarily used for: a. mucus secretion b. serous membranes c. protection from abrasion d. smooth joint movement Epithelium consisting of four layers of flattened cells would best be described as: stratified squamous epithelium What tissue type lines the inside of kidney tubules? simple cuboidal epithelium Is a sebaceous gland apocrine, holocrine, or merocrine? holocrine apocrine- pinches off part of cell holocrine- pinches off entire cell merocrine- excretes by exocytosis If a histologist refers to a unicellular exocrine gland, the reference is to what cell type? goblet cell For each of the six epithelial tissue types discussed in class, name a location where each may be found. 1. simple squamous (serous membranes; air sacs (aveoli) of lungs; inside of heart & blood vessels) 2. stratified squamous (skin; inside of mouth & throat) 3. simple cuboidal (kidney tubules) 4. simple columnar (lining of intestines) 5. pseudostratified ciliated columnar (linings of trachea) 6. transitional (bladder) Describe the general differences between epithelial tissue and connective tissue. Epithelial tissue Connective tissue o avascular (does not contain blood vessels) highly vascular o surface usually exposed to environment not exposed to outside environment

o cells bound closely & not separated by has 3 components: specialized cells, protein fibers located extracellular materials in the extracellular matrix, & ground substance (fluid) also in extracellular matrix o most diverse tissue in the body What are the three main types of fibers found in the matrices of connective tissues? collagen, elastic, reticular How does CT differ from epithelium? CT often consists of relatively few cells embedded in an extracellular matrix; it is a loose weave of fibers that functions as a packing material; it is specialized for transport. Epithelial tissue is made up of densely packed cells that act as a covering or lining of various bodily surfaces and cavities. A connective tissue that binds muscles to bones is called a tendon What makes up the matrix of bone? Inorganic salts (primarily hydroxyapatite & calcium carbonate) & collagen fibers What makes up the matrix of blood? formed elements: red blood cells (erythrocytes), white blood cells (leukocytes), platelets; & plasma Describe the similarities and differences between hyaline cartilage and elastic cartilage. Hyaline cartilage Elastic cartilage o most abundant type of cartilage o found on lining of joints & inside bones found in parts of the ear o predominately collagen has a large amount of protein called elastin o looks very smooth; glossy appearance threadlike appearance o reduces friction, shock absorbing, provides provides strength & elasticity structure Both o cells in the matrix are “far apart” (not closely packed) o matrix is composed of protein fibers and ground substance o consists of chondrocytes contained in lacunae Disks between vertebrae that help to absorb shock are primarily composed of: a. bone b. elastic connective tissue c. fibrocartilage d. adipose tissue

Chondrocytes live within small cavities called: a. Volkmann's canals b. marrow cavities c. perichondrial lamellae d. lacunae

Matching _F__ chondrocytes

A.

for triglyceride storage

_G__ mast cells

B.

general term for white blood cells

_H__ macrophages

C.

create bone matrix

_B__ leukocytes

D.

general term for red blood cells

_D__ erythrocytes

E.

areolar CT cells that make collagen & elastin

_A__ adipocytes

F.

cartilage cells

_E__ fibroblasts

G.

areolar CT cells that signal immune response

_C__ osteoblasts

H.

areolar CT cells that perform phagocytosis

Which two tissue types arise from ectodermal cells? epithelial and nervous tissue How do mast cells initiate inflammation? they release histamine, which triggers inflammation Which of the following aids immune system response in the epidermis? a. Merkel’s cell b. Melanocyte c. Langerhans cell d. Keratinocyte What is the function of Merkel’s cells? Merkel cells are mechanoreceptors that are essential for light touch sensation ? If melanocytes are responsible for melanin production, they why do keratinocytes have melanin granules? the melanin granules travel to the surface of the epidermis What cell layer in the epidermis is actively dividing by mitosis? stratum basale What are the functions of the integumentary system?

acts as a barrier to protect the body from the outside world; retains body fluids; regulates body temperature In what places would you find stratum lucidum? the stratum lucidum is found only in areas of thick skin (palms of hands and soles of feet) The uppermost (outermost) layer of epidermal cells is the stratum corneum (or stratum lucidum in thick skin) As cells are created in the epidermis, they gradually become filled with a. glucose b. DNA c. keratin d. elastin What causes keratinocytes to die as they move through the epidermal layers? The cells begin producing keratin and as they move towards the upper layers, the keratinocytes become flattened and their nucleus begins to disintegrate Fingerprints are formed by the unique pattern of dermal papillae Meissner’s corpuscles are usually found in conjunction with what structures? They are found within the dermal papillae of the dermis; there is a Meissner corpuscle for each dermal papilla Sensory structures in the dermis that detect heavy pressure are called Pacinian corpuscles What is hair made of? It is composed mainly of the protein keratin. Cuticle- consists of colorless, flat overlapping cells Cortex- contains melanin and keratin Medulla- innermost layer of the hair Where is ear wax made, and what structures make it? It is made in the outer ear canal and it consists of shed skin cells, hair, & secretions of the ceruminous and sebaceous glands If you really do have pheromones (a chemical produced and released into the environment to trigger a social or sexual response), what structure probably makes and secretes them? Apocrine sweat glands Synovial membranes are found: a. in skin b. surrounding nerves c. lining the digestive tract d. within joint cavities

What is the ABCD method of checking pigmented growths for cancerous tendencies? A- Asymmetry (if the mole is not symmetrical, it may be cancerous) B- Border (cancerous moles have uneven, notched edges) C- Color (variety of colors is a warning sign) D- Diameter (malignant moles are larger in diameter) Large amounts of RNA (for keratin production) are constructed in which epidermal layer? a. stratum corneum b. stratum lucidum c. stratum spinosum d. stratum basale A blue (cyanotic) appearance indicates: a. high body temperature b. embarrassment c. inadequate oxygenation d. fear The vestigial response of hairs standing on end during cold or fright is accomplished by: a. apocrine glands b. sebaceous glands c. hair loss d. arrector pili Identify an example of each of the following bone types: Long: femur, humerus, tibia Irregular: vertebrae, sacrum, mandible Flat: scapula, sternum, os coxae Short: carpals, tarsals The shaft of a long bone is called the: a. symphysis b. diaphysis c. periosteum d. epiphyseal line Periosteum is: a. the hormone that controls bone formation b. the fibrous outer covering of bone c. pronation of the hallux d. a bony plate within spongy bone Hematopoiesis is: a. osteoclast formation b. red bone marrow formation c. hyaline cartilage repair d. blood cell formation

Which of the following is an example of a sesamoid bone? a. mandible c. rib b. vertebrae d. patella What are Wormian bones? Extra bone pieces that occur within a suture in the cranium Red bone marrow in adults is found in what bone type? flat bones What are trabeculae? small interconnecting rods of bone that make up a mass of spongy bone What cell type builds bone? What type breaks it down? Osteoblasts build bone; osteoclasts break down bone Where do secondary ossification centers form? epiphysis of bones Both intramembranous and endochondral bone formation begins with a mass of what tissue type? mesenchyme connective tissue (both intramembranous & endochondral ossification begins with mesenchymal cells) Where does growth in length occur in the long bones of the adolescent? Epiphyseal plate Which hormone is used to increase blood calcium? a. calmodulin b. calcitonin (lowers blood calcium) c. parathyroid hormone d. testosterone The first step in repair of a broken bone is: a. formation of a fracture hematoma b. deactivation of osteoclasts c. formation of a bone callus d. remodeling If I am not getting enough vitamin D, what diseases am I likely to get? Osteoporosis; Osteopenia; certain cancers including breast, prostate & colon; heart disease; Rheumatoid arthritis; Osteoarthritis; Bursitis; Gout; Parkinson’s Disease; Alzheimer’s; Fibromyalgia Where would you most likely find a gomphosis (joint that binds teeth to bony teeth sockets in the maxillary bone & mandible)? a. in your elbow c. in your talus b. in your maxilla d. in your sphenoid The a. b. c. d.

pubic symphysis is classified as: fibrous and synarthrotic synovial and synarthrotic cartilaginous and amphiarthrotic fibrous and diarthrotic

The elbow joint is an example of a: a. saddle joint c. ball-and-socket joint b. hinge joint d. gliding joint An example of a ball-and-socket joint would be: a. hip c. knee b. elbow d. wrist The knee joint cavity is filled with: a. air c. synovial fluid b. cartilage cells d. mucus What is the role of a bursa sac? It is a small fluid-filled sac lined by synovial membrane with an inner capillary layer of viscous synovial fluid. It provides cushion between bones & tendons or muscles around a joint. What are the cruciate ligaments in the knee, and why are they called that? anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) & posterior cruciate ligament (PCL) they are called cruciate because they are cross-shaped Describe an example of the following movements: Plantar flexion: decrease angle between sole of foot & back of leg (ex: depressing a car pedal or standing on tiptoes) Abduction: move structure away from the midline (ex: raising arms up) Supination: palm or forearm rotate outwards Depression: movement in an inferior direction(down) (ex: depression of mandible when chewing) Flexion: decrease angle between a segment & its proximal segment (ex: bending of elbow flexes bicep; when sitting down- knees are flexed) Pulling your toes toward your nose in anatomical position is: a. plantar flexion b. dorsiflexion c. adduction d. pronation What are fontanels, and why do they exist? a space between the bones of the skull in an infant or fetus where ossification is not complete & the sutures not fully formed; “soft spot” of a baby’s skull; they exist so the infant’s head can pass through the birth canal during childbirth What is the difference between kyphosis and lordosis? Kyphosis (hunchback)- condition of over curvature of the upper back (thoracic vertebrae) Lordosis (sway back)- condition in which the cervical & lumbar vertebrae curve inwards excessively

Provide an example of a hinge joint. elbow; knee The acetabulum (the socket of the hipbone) is part of which joint type? Balland-socket Which muscle types are voluntary? Striated? Voluntary: smooth & skeletal Striated: cardiac & skeletal What is the function of each of the muscle type? Skeletal- provides movement to bones and other structures Cardiac- contracts the heart to pump blood Smooth- forms organs & changes shape to facilitate bodily functions The connective tissue surrounding an entire muscle is: a. sarcolemma b. endomysium c. perimysium d. epimysium e. exomysium What is the difference between the origin and the insertion of a muscle? origin- the fixed attachment; immovable part of the bone insertion- the point of attachment of a skeletal muscle to the bone that it moves Bundles of muscle fibers in a muscle are called: a. fontanels c. fascicles b. motor units d. cells What are the boundaries of a sarcomere? z-disks; they separate one sarcomere from the next A muscle a. b. c. d. e.

fiber could also be called: a myofibril a sarcomere a muscle cell a thick filament all of the above

The smallest contractile unit of a muscle is the sarcomere Thick filaments are composed of the protein myosin Thin filaments are composed of the protein actin Describe the following landmarks of the myofibril. a. Z-disk: thin, dark disk that transversely bisects the I-band of a striated muscle fiber; formed between adjacent sarcomeres b. M-line: attachment site for the thick filaments; center of the A-band  center of sarcomere

c. A-band: dark band that corresponds to the thick myosin filaments; situated on either side of the H-zone; the length of a myosin myofilament within a sarcomere d. I-band: light band on each side of the Z-disks comprising a region of the sarcomere where thin actin filaments are not overlapped by thick myosin filaments e. H-zone: region that contains only thick myosin filaments; appears as a lighter band in the middle of the dark A-band at the center of a sarcomere What are cisternae? What do they contain? flattened membrane disk that makes up the endoplasmic reticulum & Golgi apparatus; they contain proteins What is a triad? Structure formed by a T tubule with a sarcoplasmic reticulum (SR) on either side Describe the sliding filament model of muscle contraction. 1) Shortening of myofibrils is caused by the shortening of sarcomeres- the distance between Z-discs is reduced 2) Shortening of sarcomeres is accomplished by sliding of the myofilamentsthe length of each filament remains the same during the contraction 3) Sliding of filaments is accomplished by asynchronous power strokes of myosin cross-bridges, which pull the thin actin filaments over the thick myosin filaments 4) The A-bands remain the same length during contractions but are pulled toward the origin of the muscle. 5) Adjacent A-bands are pulled together as Ibands between them shorten 6) The H-zone shortens & disappears during contraction as thin filaments on the sides of the sarcomeres are pulled toward the middle Do transverse tubules (extensions of the sarcolemma) have a function? Explain. The transverse tubules excite the sarcoplasmic reticulum, which release calcium ions (Ca²+) Sarcolemma is: a. striated b. able to become electrically excited c. used to store calcium d. the connective tissue ...