CEU Pre Board Exam 5 OS OD Radio PDF

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PRE-BOARD THEORETICAL EXAMINATIONORAL SURGERY, ORAL DIAGNOSIS AND ROENTGENOLOGY An asthmatic patient is characterized by having all of the following, except: A. a history of allergy B. inspiratory wheezes C. hyperactive bronchi D. bronchi that rapidly and spontaneously change caliber in response to ...

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PRE-BOARD THEORETICAL EXAMINATION ORAL SURGERY, ORAL DIAGNOSIS AND ROENTGENOLOGY 1. An asthmatic patient is characterized by having all of the following, except: A. a history of allergy B. inspiratory wheezes C. hyperactive bronchi D. bronchi that rapidly and spontaneously change caliber in response to various irritants. 2. A patient is wide-eyed, very nervous with an increased systolic pressure (with widening of the pulse pressure), increased pulse rate, fine skin and hair, and loss of body weight. He is probably suffering from: A. Diabetes C. hyperpituitarism B. Hypothyroidism D. hyperparathyroidism E. Hyperthyroidism 3. The ideal bone graft should do each of the following, except: A. Induce osteogenesis C. Withstand mechanical forces B. Produce an immunologic response D. Become replaced by host bone 4. Which of the following describes the use of hydroxylapatite for alveolar ridge augmentation? A. Hydroxylapatite is considered to be osteoinductive (bone forming) B. Granule migration and excessive augmentation are common problems with hydroxylapatite materials C. Compaction or compression of hydroxylapatite after augmentation generally does not occur D. Patients with hydoxylapatite augmentation to the anterior maxilla should be without their maxillary prosthesis for a minimum of one month. 5. When removing an impacted third molar, a dentist divides (sections) the tooth for each of the following reasons, except: A. To shorten the surgical procedure B. To minimize the amount of bone to be removed C. To allow the tooth to be delivered to the occlusal aspect D. To minimize exertion of force necessary to remove the tooth 6. Which of the following is a principle of alveoloplasty? A. Undercuts that interferes with the seating of the dentures should be removed. B. The remaining ridge should be as broad as possible, even if some undercuts exist. C. Sharp bony projections need not be smooth as they will round off in a few days during the healing process. D. Both A & B E. Both B & C 7. Rumpel-Leede, or the tourniquet test, is a measure of: A. blood pressure B. factor IX deficiency

C. capillary fragility

D. clotting time

8. When the uvula curtain does not rise symmetrically when the patient says “ah”, it suggests which one of the ffg cranial nerves may be damaged? A. glossopharyngeal nerve C superior alveolar branch of the trigeminal nerve B. hypoglossal nerve D. vagus nerve E. none 9. Excisional biopsy is most appropriate for which of the following conditions? A. A 1 –cm exophytic mass on the buccal mucosa B. A 2 –cm painless ulcer of ten weeks’ duration C. A 3 –cm submucosal indurated lump D. A leukoplakic area covering most of the buccal mucosa 10. A freeze-dried decalcified bone graft taken from a human donor and placed in a periodontal defect in another patient is termed an: A. Allograft B. Isograft C. Autograft D. Alloplastic graft 11. A paroxysmal and intermittent intense pain usually confined to specific nerve branches and is most commonly present in the maxillofacial region: A. neuritis B. neuralgia C. hyperesthesia D. paralysis E. none of these. 12. It is also known as decompression, partsch operation: A. enucleation C. enucleation after marsupialization B. marsupialization D. enucleation with curettage

E. none of these.

13. In the treatment of localized alveolar osteitis, the primary purpose of the dressing is to: A. provide a vehicle for obtudent medication B. promote the growth of the adjacent epithelium C. prevent saliva from contaminating the alveolus

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D. stimulate the formation of a blood clot. 14. Which of the following is necessary to allow for apically positioning a flap margin on the palatal surface of molar teeth? A. Use only a sulcular incision for the initial incision. B. Trim the flap margin to the proper length during the procedure C. Avoid making the initial incision deep enough to reach bone D. Extend vertical releasing incision beyond the mucogingival junction 15. Because of its root structure, which of the following teeth is the least responsive to rotation forces during extraction? A. mandibular canine D. mandibular first premolar B. maxillary central incisor E. mandibular second premolar C. maxillary first premolar 16. During surgical correction of mandibular prognathism, the position of the mandibular condyle should be A. Unaltered B. advanced C. Retruded D. intruded 17. Occlusal radiograph are useful in locating A. the hyoid bone C. sialoliths in Stensen’s duct B. the mental foramen D. sialoliths in Wharton’s duct

E. maxillary sinus mucoceles

18. Salient radiographic findings showing perpendicular bone trabeculation radiating outwardly describe as “hair-on-end” effect and generalized osteoporosis: A. aplastic anemia C. polycythemia B. sickle-cell anemia D. pernicious anemia 19. In obtaining an incisional biopsy of soft tissue, the dentist should do each of the following, except: A. infiltrate local anesthetic solution around the intended site B. place a suture through the intended specimen before removing it C. obtain some adjacent normal tissue if possible D. place the specimen in saline, if 10% formalin is unavailable. 20. Replacement resorption is characterized by: A. Pain C. rapid progression B. Ankylosis D. acute inflammation

E. apical pathosis

21. Which of the following is the most commonly used surgical procedure to correct maxillary retrognathia? A. C-osteotomy C. Inverted L osteotomy B. LeFort 1 osteotomy D. Anterior maxillary osteotomy 22. The component of developer that gives detail to the radiographic image is A. hydroquinone C. potassium bromide B. sodium carbonate D. none of these E. sodium sulfite 23. If a dried radiograph were processed a second time, its appearance would show A. Increased contrast and density D. Decreased contrast and density B. Increased contrast only E. Increased density only C. No change in contrast or density 24. Which of the following radiographic feature is commonly associated with a traumatic bone cyst? A. Divergence of the roots of teeth B. Unilocular radiolucency with focal radiopacity C. Dome-shaped radiopacity of the maxillar sinus D. Scalloped radiolucency extending between the roots of teeth 25. Bone marrow for grafting defects in the jaws is generally obtained from A. a rib D. maxillary tuberosity B. the tissue bank E. the mandibular parasymphysis C. the iliac crest 26. Surgical blade which is used mainly for incision and drainage: A. #11 B. #12 C. #15 D. #10 E. none of these. 27. The Z-plasty procedure may be used to correct: 1. ankyloglossia 2. interfering labial frena 3. oroantral fistula 4. sharp mylohyoid ridges: A. 1,2 B. 2,3,4 C. 1,2,3 D. all of the choices. 28. A type of implant that are surgically inserted into the jaw bone penetrating the entire jaw emerging opposite the entry site usually at the bottom of the chin. A. transosseous C. endosseous

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B. subperiosteal

D. osteointegration

E. none of these.

29. Neuralgia that affects the 7th cranial nerve resulting to pain of the external auditory canal, auricles and soft palate. A. tic doloureux C. Ramsay Hunt’s syndrome B. atypical facial neuralgia D. Post Herpetic Neuralgia E. Vasoglossopharyngeal neuralgia. 30. The application of microsurgical technique procedure in the treatment of maxillofacial nerve injuries are: A. brain and peripheral nerve C. nerve decompression B. nerve grafting and anastomoses D. Both A & C E. both B & C. 31. In a fracture involving the angle of an edentulous mandible, the proximal segment is usually displaced in which direction? A. anterior and superior C. inferior only B. anterior and inferior D. posterior 32. Of the following bone grafts, the greatest osteogenic potential occurs with: A. a xenograft C. an autogenous cortical graft B. a freeze-dried bone D. an autogenous cancellous graft 33. A compound fracture is characterized by A. many small fragments B. an incomplete break in the bone C. communication with the oral cavity 34. Which of the following cells is least radiosensitive? A. Red blood cell C. endothelial cell B. Epithelial cell D. white blood cell

D. a “star” shaped appearance E. bleeding into the masticator space

E. connective tissue cell

35. Which of the following is a major radiographic finding in ectodermal dysplasia? A. Osteoporosis D. a ground-glass appearance of bone B. Hutchinson’s teeth E. calcification of the falx cerebri C. Congenitally missing teeth 36. Which of the following tissue is most sensitive to radiation-induced cancer? A. Skin C. thyroid B. Nerve D. adult bone E. female breast 37. The surgical procedure most frequently performed to correct a skeletal mandibular retrognathia is bilateral A. body ostectomy D. oblique subcondylar osteotomy B. “C” type osteotomy of the ramus E. horizontal osteotomy of the ramus C. sagittal split osteotomy of the ramus 38. The routine examination of a healthy 20-year old man discloses a round, brown lesion, 3 mm in diameter, on his lower lip. The lesion is solitary, asymptomatic, and flat. Its duration is unknown. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? A. Blue nevus C.. Malignant melanoma B. Focal melanosis D. Peutz-Jeghers syndrome E. Compound nevus 39. A patient presents with continuous, spontaneous pain associated with the maxillary right central incisor. The tooth has a large Class V composite restoration. Cold testing produces lingering pain. There is no sensitivity to percussion or palpation. The most likely diagnosis is: A. necrotic pulp, chronic apical periodontitis B. reversible pulpitis, normal periapex C. irreversible pulpitis, normal periapex D. irreversible pulpitis, acute apical periodontitis 40. A 33-year old female patient states that her mandibular first molar has been hurting since the recent placement of an amalgam restoration. She describes the pain as mild-to-moderate, which is not spontaneous, but is provoked by cold, heat and sweets. These symptoms most likely correspond with: A. pulp necrosis B. internal resorption C. reversible pulpitis D. irreversible pulpitis 41. High-flow 100% O2 is indicated for treating each of the following types of syncope, except: A. Vasovagal C. Orthostatic B. Neurogenic D. Hyperventilation syndrome 42. An adult healthy patient has marked indurated swelling. He has a temperature of 100ºF and has been in considerable pain for 24 hours. Percussion of the maxillary right central incisor causes discomfort as does palpation at its apex. Pulp vitality tests are negative for this tooth, while adjacent control teeth test within normal limits. A radiograph reveals that the maxillary right central incisor has a deep unbased restoration and a widened apical periodontal ligament space. Which of the following is the best emergency treatment for this patient?

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A. extracting the maxillary right central incisor B. administering an antibiotic and analgesic and initiating root canal therapy when symptoms subside C. debriding the root canal of the maxillary right central incisor and prescribing antibiotics and analgesics D. incising and draining the swelling and prescribing antibiotics and analgesics. 43. A change in continuity of the occlusal plane is often observed after ankylosis of a tooth. This change is caused by: A. differential eruption sequences. B. The ankylosed teeth sinking into the alveolar bone. C. Localized growth inhibition of the alveolar process. D. Continued eruption of non-ankylozed teeth and growth of the alveolar process 44. If multiple myeloma is suspected because of a patient’s medical history and intraoral radiographs, which radiographic projection is best confirm the suspected diagnosis? A. lateral skull C. posterior-anterior B. lateral oblique D. tempormandibular survery E. anterior-posterior 45. Radiographic signs of trauma from occlusion include each of the following, except: A. Hypercementosis D. Root resorption B. Alteration of the lamina dura E. Alteration of the periodontal space C. Vascular infiltration of the periodontal ligament 46. In performing normal dental diagnostic procedures, the operator receives the greatest hazard from which type of radiation? A. direct primary beam C. secondary B. scatter D. gamma E. secondary and scatter 47. For five days, a 25-year old man has had painful oral ulcerations. Several reddish macular lesions are present on his face and hands, most of which have a ring-like or bull’s eye appearance. He had “cold sores” two weeks earlier. Tentative diagnosis is: A. lichen planus C. verruca vulgaris B. aphthous ulcers D. erythema multiforme E. pityriasis rosea 48. Physical examination of a 28-year-old man reveals an extensive, smooth enlargement of the body of the mandible in the molar region. The patient states that the enlargement has been present for two years and has slowly and steadily increased in size. The most probable clinical diagnosis is: A. Osteosarcoma B. osteomyelitis C. Ameloblastoma D. osteitis deformans 49. A patient gives a history of bruising easily nocturia, excessive thirst and a low resistance to infections. This patient is likely to be suffering from: A. diabetes insipidus C. lupus erythematosus B. diabetes mellitus D. thrombocytopenic purpura E. glomerulonephritis 50. A patient who has spider telangiectatic spots on the skin should have an examination to determine the condition of his: A. lungs B. kidneys C. liver D. pancreas E. gallbladder 51. A patient who has a white blood cell count of more than 100,000/cc most likely is suffering from A. Leukemia D. polycythemiaC. Leucopenia D. pernicious anemia 52. A swelling on the anterior floor of the mouth is soft and painless. It has been present for several months. The overlying mucosa has a bluish tinge. The most likely diagnosis is: A. A retention cyst D. A mixed salivary gland tumor B. An infected periodontal abscess E. A carcinoma of the floor of the mouth C. An obstructed sublingual gland duct 53. Differential white blood cell counts in the laboratory are useful in the diagnosis of: A. anemia C. vitamin deficiency B. eosinophilia D. thrombocytopenic purpura E. spherocytosis 54. Bell’s palsy is a condition associated with: A. An impacted teeth B. A submaxillary gland C. The seventh cranial nerve

D. the glossopharyngeal nerve E. a temporomandibular joint

55. A tender swelling in the soft tissues of yhe submandibular triangle is most likely caused by A. lipoma D. an infected thyroglossal duct cyst B. lymphadenopathy E. any of the choices.

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