Title | Set-A Final PRE- Board EXAM. Auditing.docx - Google Docs |
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Author | 5th year Sumalbag, Sunshine Galicia |
Course | Accounting |
Institution | Mapua University |
Pages | 19 |
File Size | 370.7 KB |
File Type | |
Total Downloads | 180 |
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OPENFINAL PRE-BOARD EXAMINATIONSAUDITING set-AINSTRUCTIONS: Select the best answer for each of the following quesons. ALL quesons are compulsory and MUST be aempted. Mark only one answer for each item on the answer sheet provided. Strictly NO ERASURES ALLOWED. Erasures will render your examinaon ans...
OPEN FINAL PRE-BOARD EXAMINATIONS AUDITING set-A INSTRUCTIONS: Select the best answer for each of the following quesons. ALL quesons are compulsory and MUST be aempted. Mark only one answer for each item on the answer sheet provided. Strictly NO ERASURES ALLOWED. Erasures will render your examinaon answer sheet INVALID. Use PENCIL NO.2. GOODLUCK! ☺ PART I- AUDITING THEORY 1. Audit procedures are designed to obtain evidence about relevant asserons. Which of the following is a false statement about audit procedures? a. Audit procedures should be development in light of asserons about the financial statement components. b. Selecon of procedures should depend upon the understanding of internal control. c. The relaonship between audit procedures and relevant asserons should be one-on-one. d. The auditor should resolve any substanal doubt about any of management’s material financial statement asserons. 2. Which of the following condions most likely would pose the greatest risk in accepng a new audit engagement? a. Staff will need to be rescheduled to cover this new client. b. The firm will have to hire a specialist in one audit area. c. The client’s financial reporng system has been in place for 10 years. d. There will be a client-imposed scope limitaon. 3. Which of the following would an auditor most likely use in determining materiality for the statements as a whole when establishing the overall audit strategy? a. The enty’s period-to-date financial results and posion. b. The ancipated sample size of the planned substanve tests. c. The results of the internal control quesonnaire. d. The contents of the management representaon leer. 4. To obtain an understanding of a connuing client in planning an audit, an auditor most likely would? a. Perform tests of details of transacons and balances. b. Read specialized industry journals. c. Reevaluate the risks of material misstatement. d. Read internal audit reports.
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5. Which of the following components of internal control includes development and selecon of training policies that commute prospecve roles and responsibilies to employees? c. Control acvies. a. Monitoring. d. Control environment. b. Risk assessment. 6. As part of understanding internal control, an auditor is not required to a. Obtain knowledge about the operang effecveness of internal control. b. Consider factors that affect the risk of material misstatement. c. Ascertain whether internal controls have been implemented. d. Idenfy the types of potenal misstatements that can occur. 7. The development of construcve suggesons to a client for improvements in its internal control is a a. Task addressed by the auditor only during a special engagement. b. Desirable by-product of an audit engagement. c. Requirement as important as assessing control risk. d. Requirement of the auditor’s consideraon of internal control. Use the following informaon for the next three quesons. Following your preliminary visit to South’s head office you are now aware of the following informaon. The company installed a new ll system in all supermarkets four months before the year end. the new ll system is linked to the accounng system at head office and automacally posts transacons to the accounng system. Previously journals were made manually based on totals on ll rolls. 8. Having reviewed this informaon you have idenfied several audit risks which you feel your team will need to address. The first risk relates to the cost of the new ll system which South has capitalized as a non-current asset. You are concerned that South may have included within the capitalized costs some items which are revenue in nature, leading to the overstatement of non-current assets. Which of the following statements is a valid response to this audit risk? a. Inspect invoices capitalized within the cost of the new ll system to determine whether they are directly aributable to the cost of the new ll system. b. Obtain a copy of the training manual relang to the new ll system and discuss with directors the extent of training staff has received on the new system. c. Agree the capitalized costs from the trial balance back to invoices to confirm their value. d. Recalculate the depreciaon charged on the new ll system. 9. A second audit risk relates to how well the new ll system is operang. You are concerned that the system may not be reliable, and that consequently not all sales have been recorded, resulng in an understatement of revenue. You are also concerned that staff may not yet be familiar with the system, leading to an increased risk of errors relang to data entry. Which of the following statements represent valid responses to this audit risk? (1) Perform analycal procedures by comparing daily/weekly sales by store with both the prior year and with expectaons, in order to determine whether any unusual paerns have occurred following the installaon of the new system. (2) Vouch the sales revenue per the system to the ll receipts to confirm the accuracy of the sales. 2 | Page
(3) Obtain a copy of the training manual relang to the new ll system and discuss with directors the extent of training staff has received on the new system. (4) Test the internal controls relang to the ll system and the transfer of data into the accounng system. c. 2 and 4 a. 1, 2 and 4 d. 3 and 4 b. 1, 3 and 4 10. Aer a number of people living close to one of South’s stores became seriously ill, the source of the illness was traced back to meet the customers had purchased from South. Legal proceedings were commenced against South by a number of customers during the financial year, demanding P50m in compensaon. You plan to review the legal correspondence relang to the claims made by customers to whom South sold contaminated meat. Which of the following are valid objecves of this audit procedure? (1) To determine whether South’s reputaon will have been damaged within the local area. (2) To confirm whether there are deficiencies in South’s internal controls relang to food hygiene. (3) To assess whether a provision for customer compensaon is required in South’s financial statements. (4) To determine whether disclosure of the nature and financial effect of the legal claim is required in South’s financial statements. c. 3 and 4 only. a. 2 and 3 only. d. 1, 2, 3 and 4. b. 2, 3 and 4 only. 11. As part of your audit of the procurement system, you have recommended that the goods inwards department should ensure that the goods received are valid business purchases, by matching all deliveries to an authorized order form before issuing a GRN. Which of the following would be an appropriate test control to confirm that the control is operang effecvely? a. For a sample of goods received notes check that there is an authorized purchase order. b. For a sample of orders, check that there is matching goods received note. c. Check that the numerical sequence of purchase orders is complete. d. Check that the numerical sequence of goods received notes is complete. 12. Cherry’s internal audit department has proved you with details of the internal controls around the non-current assets cycle. The controls include the following: ● On receipt, each asset is assigned a unique serial number and this is recorded on the asset and in the non-current assets register. Which TWO of the following describe the MOST RELIABLE audit procedure which enables the auditor to assess whether this control is operang effecvely? (1) Select a sample of capital addions on site, agree that a, serial number is recorded on the asset and confirm it is included in the non-current assets register. (2) Select a sample of assets recorded on the non-current assets register, confirm that it includes a serial number for each asset and agree the number to the physical asset. (3) Inspect the non-current asset register and verify that there are no duplicated serial numbers. (4) Observe the receipt of assets to confirm that serial numbers are assigned and recorded a. (2) and (3) c. (1) and (3) b. (1) and (4) d. (2) and (4) 3 | Page
13. Regardless of the assess risk of material misstatement, an auditor should perform some a. Tests of controls to determine their effecveness. b. Substanve procedures to restrict detecon risk for significant transacon classes. c. Analycal procedures to verify the design of controls. d. Dual-purpose tests to evaluate both the risk of monetary misstatement and preliminary control risk. 14. The use of the raon esmaon sampling technique is most effecve when a. A relavely small number of differences exist in the populaon. b. Esmang populaons whose records consist of quanes but not carrying amounts. c. Large overstatement differences and large understatement differences exist in the populaon. d. The calculated audit amounts are approximately proporonal to the client’s carrying amounts. 15. Which of the following situaons represents a risk factor that relates to misstatements arising from misappropriaon of assets? a. A lack of independent checks. b. A high turnover of senior management. c. A strained relaonship between management and the predecessor auditor. d. An inability to generate cash flow from operaons. 16. Which of the following procedures would least likely result in the discovery of possible illegal acts? a. Reviewing an internal control quesonnaire. b. Reading the minutes of the board of director’s meengs. c. Making inquiries of the client’s management. d. Performing tests of details of transacons. 17. Which of the following is an example of closed-loop verificaon? a. Aer data for a transacon are entered, the computer sends certain data back to the terminal for comparison with data originally. b. The computer ensures that a numerical amount in a record does not exceed some predetermined amount. c. As the computer corrects errors and data are successfully resubmied to the system, the causes of the errors are printed out. d. The computer flags any transmission for which the control field value did not match that of an exisng file record. 18. Which of the following statements is not true of the test data approach to tesng an accounng system? a. The test data must consist of all possible valid and invalid condion. b. Test data are processed by the client’s computer programs under the auditor’s control. c. The test data need consist of only those valid and valid condions that interest the auditor. d. Only one transacon of each type need be tested.
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19. An internal auditor’s work would most likely affect the nature, ming, and extend of an independent auditor’s auding procedures when the internal auditor’s work relates to asserons about the. a. Existences of conngencies. b. Existence of fixed asset addions. c. Valuaon of intangible assets. d. Valuaon of related party transacons. 20. Which of the following statements is true about the auditor’s use of the work of a specialist? a. The auditor should obtain an understanding of the methods and assumpons used by the specialist. b. The specialist should not have an understanding of the auditor’s corroborave use of the specialist’s findings. c. The auditor is required to perform substanve procedures to verify the specialist’s assumpons and findings. d. The client should not have an understanding of the nature of the work to be performed by the specialist. 21. An auditor sis not observe a client’s taking of beginning physical inventory and was unable to become sasfied about the inventory by means of other auding procedures. Assuming no other scope limitaons or reporng problems, the auditor could express an unqualified opinion on the current year’s financial statements for a. The income statement only. b. The balance sheet only. c. The income and cash flows statement only. d. All of the financial statements. 22. When reporng on comparave financial statements, an auditor ordinarily should change the previously expressed opinion on the prior year’s financial statements if the a. Auditor is a predecessor auditor who has been requested by a former client to reissue the previously issued report. b. Prior year’s opinion was unqualified and the opinion on the current year’s financial statements is modified due to a lack of consistency. c. Prior year’s financial statements are restated to conform with generally accepted accounng principles. d. Reporng enty has changed as a result of the sale of a subsidiary. 23. Medimade Co is an established pharmaceucal company that has for many years generated 90% of its revenue through the sale of two specific cold and flu remedies. Medimade has lately seen a real growth in the level of compeon that it faces in its market and demand for its products has significantly declined. Madimade needed to invest P2M in plant and machinery. The company wanted to borrow this sum but was unable to agree suitable terms with the bank; therefore is used its overdra facility, which carried a higher interest rate. Consequently, some of Medimade’s suppliers have been paid much later than usual and hence some of them have withdrawn credit terms meaning the company must pay cash on delivery. Which TWO of the following statements describe the most direct impact the withdrawal of supplier credit has on Medimade’s going concern assumpon? 5 | Page
I. II. III. IV. a. b.
Medimade now has to pay cash delivery and this adds further cash flow strain imposed by the overdra. Medimade will have to seek alternave suppliers, who may not meet Medimade’s quality control standards. Some suppliers may end their relaonship with Medimade, prevenng the company from producing its product, thus further reducing sales. The bank may impose strict covenants on the overdra, restricng the way Medimade can conduct its future operaons. c. I and III I and II d. II and IV II and III
24. Auditors should obtain and evaluate sufficient appropriate evidence to support significant accounng esmates. Differences between the esmates best supported by the evidence and those in the financial statements. a. May be individually reasonable but collecvely indicate possible bias. b. Are peruse unreasonable and should be treated as material misstatements. c. May be individually unreasonable, but if they collecvely indicate no bias, aggregaon of the differences with other likely misstatements is not required. d. Should arouse concern only when esmates are based on hypothecal assumpons or subjecve factors. 25. Which of the following procedures should an auditor ordinarily perform regarding subsequent events? a. Send second requests to the client’s customers who failed to respond to inial accounts receivable confirmaon requests. b. Communicate material weaknesses in internal control to the client’s audit commiee. c. Review the cutoff bank statements for several months aer the year-end. d. Compare the latest available interim financial statements with the financial statements being audited. 26. Key Co. plans to present comparave financial statements for the years ended December 31, Year 1 and Year 2, respecvely. Smith, CPA, audited Key’s financial statements for both years ad plans to report on the comparave financial statements on April 1, Year 3. Key’s current management team was not present unl January 1, Year 2. What period of me should be covered by Key’s management representaon leer? a. January 1, Year 1, through December 31, Year 2. b. January 1, Year 2, through December 31, Year 2. c. January 1, Year 1, through May 1, Year 3. d. January 1, Year 2, through May 1, Year 3. 27. An auditor issued an audit report that was dual-dated for a subsequent event occurring aer the date of the auditor’s report but before issuance of the related financial statements. The auditor’s responsibility for events occurring subsequent to the original report date was a. Limited to include only events occurring before the date of the last subsequent event referenced. b. Extended to subsequent events occurring through the date of issuance of the related financial statements. c. Extended to include all events occurring since the original report date. 6 | Page
d. Limited to the specific event referenced. 28. An auditor finds several errors in the financial statements that the client prefers to not correct. The auditor determines that the errors are not material in the aggregate. Which of the following acons by the auditor is most appropriate? a. Document the conclusion that the errors do not the financial statements to be misstated, but do not summarize uncorrected errors in the audit documentaon. b. Document the errors in the summary of uncorrected errors, and document the conclusion that the errors do not cause the financial statements to be misstated. c. Summarize the uncorrected errors in the working papers, but do not document whether the errors cause the financial statements to be misstated. d. Do not summarize the uncorrected errors in the audit documentaon, and do not document a conclusion about whether the uncorrected errors cause the financial statements to be misstated. 29. Which of the following statements is a basic element of the auditor’s standard report? a. An audit includes assessing significant esmates made by management. b. The disclosures provide absolute assurance that the financial statements are free of material misstatement. c. The auditor evaluated the overall internal control. d. The financial statements are consistent with those of prior period. 30. Which of the following procedures is usually performed by the accountant in a review engagement of financial statements? a. Sending a leer of enquiry to the enty’s lawyer. b. Confirming a significant percentage of receivables by direct communicaon with debtors. c. Comparing the financial statements with statements for comparable prior periods. d. Communicang control deficiencies discovered during the consideraon of internal control. 31. Which of the following is an element of a CPA firm’s quality control system that should be considered in establishing its quality control policies and procedures? a. Complying with laws and regulaons. b. Using stascal sampling techniques. c. Considering audit risk and materiality. d. Managing human resources. 32. A CPA is permied to disclose confidenal client informaon without the consent of the client to I. Another CPA firm if the informaon concerns suspected tax return irregularies. II. Board of Accountancy (BOA) in line with its Quality Assurance Review (QAR) c. Both I and II a. I only d. Neither I and II b. II only 33. The Code of Ethics for Professional Accountants considers threats to compliance with fundamental principles and safeguards that eliminate or reduce them. Threats may involve a. Self-interest, such as advocacy for a client. b. Familiarity, such as an immediate relave’s service as a director of the client. c. Self-review, such as leadership that promotes compliance. d. Inmidaon, such as oversight by a governance body. 7 | Page
34. According to the code of Ethics for Professional Accountants on professional appointment, a. An accountant generally needs the client’s permission to communicate with the current accountant. b. The exisng accountant must discuss relevant maers with the proposed accountant. c. The fundamental principle of integrity requires the accountant to provide only the services for which (s) he has the needed experse. d. The client must not provide a second opinion to an exisng client. 35. Under the Code of Ethics for Professional Accountants, independence is least likely to be impaired when a. The firm’s overdue fees from an audit client are a small part of the firm’s total fees. b. The firm charges a client a conngent fee for an audit. c. The firm charges an audit client a conngent fee for a non- assurance service. d. The firm provides financial services that depend for their effecveness on a material, doubul accounng treatment. PART II-AUDITING PROBLEMS PROBLEM NO. 1 Presented below are relevant extracts from Tank Corporaon’s statement of financial posion as of December 31, 2019. P12,000,000 Cash and cash equivalents 38,000,000 Trade and other receivables 16,000,000 Inventories 3,000,000 Other current assets 34,000,000 Trade and other payables 15,000,000 Short term borrowings 2,000,000 Other current liabilies During the course of yo...