CEU Revalida GA OA GPF OPF PDF

Preview

Summary

Centro Escolar University School of Dentistry Pre-Board Theoretical ExaminationGENERAL & ORAL ANATOMY; GENERAL & ORAL PHYSIOLOGY As the mouth is opened widely, the articular disk moves in what direction in relation to the articular eminence? A. laterally B. anteriorly C. posteriorly D. media...

Description

GENERAL ANATOMY-ORAL ANATOMY-GENARAL PHYSIOLOGY-ORAL PHYSIOLOGY Centro Escolar University School of Dentistry Pre-Board Theoretical Examination GENERAL & ORAL ANATOMY; GENERAL & ORAL PHYSIOLOGY 1. As the mouth is opened widely, the articular disk moves in what direction in relation to the articular eminence? A. laterally C. posteriorly D. medially E. superiorly 2. The dentist instructs the patients, who has a severed left lateral pterygoid muscle, to open wide. The patient’s mandible will move in which direction? C. in a straight protrusive direction B. to the right D. in a retrusive direction 3. During swallowing, muscular contraction resultsin movements that seal off the oropharynx from the nasopharynx. Which of the following muscles cause movements that result in a fold in the posterior wall of the pharynx? A. levator veli palatini B. tensor velu palatine D. Musculus uvulae E. Palatoglossus 4. The lingula of the mandible serves as an attachment for which of the following? A. Temporalis B. stylomandibular ligament E. Temporomandibular ligament C. tendon of the digastric muscle 5. During eruption of permanent teeth, alveolar bone is: A. resorbed only D. resorbed and deposited intermittently B. deposited only E. neither resorbed nor deposited. This is a static period. C. none of these. 6. When the mouth is open, there is more interocclusal distance anteriorly than posteriorly because of the: A. curve of Spee D. anterior inclination of the teeth B. shape of the articular eminence E. none of these C. rotary nature of the opening-closing movement 7. Odynophagia: A. mastication 8.

B. phonation

C. deglutition

Taste quality associated with alkaloids: A. Sweet B. sour C. bitter

D. respiration

E. none of these

D. salty E. none of these

9. Which of the following decrease with age in the dental pulp? I. Number of collagen fibers III. The size of the pulp II. Number of reticulin fibers IV. Calcifications within the pulp A. I & II only B. I & III only C. I & IV only D. II & III only

E. IV only

10. Which of the following ligaments has an outer oblique portion which limits the extent of jaw opening and initiates translation of the condyle down the articular eminence?

A. Capsular B. Collateral

C. Stylomandibular D. temporomandibular

11. Which of the following can adversely affect the self-cleansing quality of a dentition in normal alignment? A. Contact of adjacent teeth. B. Efficient use of a toothbrush C. Friction of food material during mastication. D. Too great a contour of the cervical enamel ridge. 12. Main suspensory ligament of the TMJ: A. Stylomandibular C. Capsular B. sphenomandibular D. Temporomandibular 13. Holds the gingival under definite tension: A. proximal contact area B. interproximal space

E. none of these

C. embrasures D. cervical ridges

E. cervical line

14. The condyle on the working side generally, rotates about a: A. sagittal axis only C. horizontal axis and translates laterally B. horizontal axis only D. vertical axis and translates laterally 15. In a molar, where do root canals usually join the pulp chamber? A. at the level of furcation C. within the cervical third of the crown B. at varying levels, dependent on age D. apical to the CEJ 16. The non-working condyle performs which of the following movements? A. straight forward B. downward, forward and lateral C. downward, forward and medial D. downward, backward and medial 17. During nonmasticatory swallowing, teeth are usually: A. protruded B. In a working arrangement C. in contact in intercuspal position D. none of the above. This is a nonexistent act. 18. In periodontal structures, normal interdental osseous architecture is influenced to the greatest extent by which of the following? A. Proximal CEJ of adjacent teeth at the same level B. Convex coronal facial contours located in the gingival thirds C. Convex coronal lingual contours located in the middle thirds D. Occlusal table of posterior teeth being 50-60% of the faciolingual overall widths of the teeth. 19. Which of the following groups of fibers of the periodontal ligament is most resistant to forces along the long axis of a tooth? A. Apical B. horizontal C. Oblique D. alveolar crest 20. When the mouth is open, there is more interocclusal distance anteriorly than posteriorly because of the: A. curve of Spee B. shape of the articular eminence C. anterior inclination of the teeth D. rotary nature of the opening-closing movements 21. In the dentulous mouth, placing the mandible in the retruded path of closure usually results in: A. an increases in occlusal vertical dimension D. an increase in horizontal overlap

B. a decrease in vertical overlap C. both A & B .

E. all of the above

22. In the intercuspal position, facial cusps of mandibular teeth occlude with A. fossae only C. grooves and embrasures B. fossae and marginal ridges only D. fossae, marginal ridges and embrasures 23. Which of the following occur normally during the act of swallowing? 1. masseter muscles contract 2. the suprahyoid group of muscles relaxes 3. teeth come into occlusal contact 4. the tip of the tongue touches the roof of the mouth A. 1,2 & 3 B. 1,2 & 4 C. 1,3 & 4 D. 2,3 & 4

E. 1,2,3 & 4

24. Contraction of the posterior fibers of the temporalis muscle results in the mandible: A. closing C. opening with translation B. retruding D. opening without translation E. protruding 25. The muscle of mastication that is primarily responsible for synchronizing the movement of the condyle and the articular disc is the: A. Masseter C. internal pterygoid (medial pterygoid) B. Temporalis D. external pterygoid (lateral pterygoid) 26. The center of the mesial contact area of maxillary canine is located where? A. Center of incisal third C. Junction of incisal and middle third B. Center of middle third D. Near the mesial incisal angle 27. Roots of maxillary first premolar is completed at what age? A. 10 to 11 years C. 12 to 13 years B. 11 – 12 years D. 12 to 14 years

E. 14 to 15 years.

28. Maxillary central incisor when viewed labially presents the following features, except A. Mesial outline of crown is only slightly convex, with crest of curvature near the angle. B. Distal outline of crown is more convex, crest of curvature being higher than mesial. C. Incisal outline is usually regular and straight, tends to curve downward at the center. D. Cervical outline follows a semicircular curvature incisally. E. Root is cone- shaped, outline mesial and distal being regular. 29. Deciduous teeth, in comparison with their permanent counterpart, present the following, except: A. Crowns of deciduous anterior teeth are wider mesiodistally in comparison with their crown length. B. Cervical ridges of enamel of anterior teeth are more prominent. C. Cervical ridges buccally on deciduous molars are much more pronounced D. Buccal and lingual surface of deciduous molars are flatter above the cervical curvatures. E. Occlusal surfaces of deciduous molars are wider than those of permanent molars. 30. The most strange and primitive among deciduous molars is? A. Maxillary first molar C. mandibular first molar B. Maxillary second molar D. mandibular second molar

E. none of these.

31. Characteristics/distinguishing features of maxillary first premolar mesially includes the following: A. There is a marked depression on the crown and root. B. Well-defined developmental groove in the enamel of mesial marginal ridge. C. Tips of the cusps are well within the confines of the root trunk. D. Deep developmental depression and groove on the surface of the root. E. All of the above are true

32. The usual outline form of mandibular first premolar occlusally is roughly diamond-shaped. The occlusal outline of this tooth is similar to the incisal aspect of mandibular canines. A. The first statement is true, the second is false. B. The first statement is false, the second is true. C. Both statements are true. D. Both statements are false. 33. Occlusal surface of mandibular second premolar three-cusps type exhibits the following, except: A. Crown appears square lingual to the buccal cusp ridges. B. Grooves converge in a central pit and form a Y occlusally. C. Well-developed lingual cusp directly opposite the buccal cusp. D. Three fossae, three triangular ridges, three grooves, three developmental pits. E. Central groove may be straight , sometimes crescent-shaped 34. The first evidence of calcification of mandibular second premolar: A. 2 to 2 ½ years C. 2 ½ to 3 years B. 2 ¼ to 2 ½ years D. 3 to 3 ½ years

E. 6 to 7 years

35. Which among the cusps of maxillary molars presents two triangular ridges? A. Mesiobuccal B. mesiolingual C. distobuccal D. distolingual 36. This groove partially joins the two major fossae of maxillary first molars. A. Buccal developmental groove D. central developmental groove B. Lingual developmental groove E. distal oblique groove C. Transverse groove of oblique ridge. . 37. This a cigar-shape fossae on the occlusal of maxillary molars? A. Central fossae C. mesial triangular fossae B. Distal fossae D. distal triangular fossae 38. The following ridges forms the perimeter of the occlusal table of maxillary first molars, except: A. Buccal cusps ridges C. mesial marginal ridge E. fifth cusp ridges B. Lingual cusps ridges D. distal marginal ridge 39. All mandibular molars crowns are roughly quadrilateral. They are somewhat longer buccolingually than mesiodistally. A. The first statement is true, while the second statement is false. B. The second statement is false, while the first statement is false. C. Both statements are true. D. Both statements is false. 40. Which among these molars developed from five primary center of formation? A. Maxillary first molar C. mandibular first molar B. Maxillary second molar D. mandibular second molar 41. Mandibular first molar roots are completed at what age? A. 7 to 8 years C. 9 to 10 years B. 8 to 9 years D. 8 to 10 years

E. third molars

E. 2 years after eruption.

42. Which structures make up the forebrain? I. Cerebrum III. Medulla oblongata II. Pons IV. Diencephalon A. I, II & III B. I & III C. I & IV D. II & III 43. Which space is entered when performing a spinal tap? A. Arachnoid space C. Subarachnoid space

E. II & IV

B. Central canal

D. Conus medullaris

44. A patient received a severe blow to the head that fractured his optic canal due to a bad car accident. Which of the following pairs of structures are most likely to be injured? I. Ophthalmic artery III. Optic nerve II. Ophthalmic vein IV. Optic nerve A. I & II B. I & III C. I & IV D. II & III E. II & IV 45. Which of the following are the two (2) terminal branches of the internal thoracic artery? I. Superior epigastric artery IV. Posterior intercoastal artery II. Musculophrenic artery V. Subclavian artery III. Anterior intercoastal artery VI. Inferior epigastric artery A. I & VI B. I & II C. III & IV D. II & V E. II & VI 46. What would you estimate to be the dental age of a child with the following teeth: all primary maxillary incisors, canines and molars; permanent mandibular incisors and first molars. A. 2 to 4 years C. 8 to 9 years B. 5 to 7 years D. 10 to 11 years E. over 12 years 47. Cross sectionally, deciduous teeth as compare to permanent teeth are as follows, except: A. Pulpal horns are higher, especially mesial horns, and chambers are proportionately larger. B. Dentin thickness between the pulp and the enamel is limited. C. Enamel rods at the cervix slope gingivally instead of occlusally as in the permanent teeth. D. Enamel cap of deciduous molars is thinner and has a more consistent depth. E. There is a comparatively greater thickness of dentin over the pulpal wall at the occlusal fossa of deciduous molars.

48. Deciduous mandibular first molar exhibits the following, except: A. Crown outline occlusally is rhomboidal. B. Flattened buccal surfaces above the cervical ridges. C. Root end is flat and almost square. D. Length of crown buccally and lingually is more uniform and CEJ is almost straight. E. Distal portion of crown is longer than mesial portion. 49. Roots of maxillary lateral incisor is completed at what age? A. 8 years B. 9 years C. 10 years D. 11 years

E.12 years

50. The following traits can be used to differentiate primary teeth from permanent teeth, except? A. Primary teeth have greater facial cervical bulges. B. Primary teeth have relatively thinner and longer roots. C. Primary teeth are whiter. D. Primary anterior teeth are larger than their successors. E. Primary teeth have relatively larger pulps. 51. How many teeth should be present in the mouth of a 13-year-old? A. 10 B. 20 C. 24 D. 28

E. 32

52. All mandibular posterior teeth have crown outlines from mesial or distal aspect that is roughly rhomboidal. Their entire crown has a lingual tilt in relation to the root axis. A. The first statement is true, while the second statement is false. B. The second statement is false, while the first statement is false. C. Both statements are true. D. Both statements is false. 53. Occlusal surface of mandibular second molar exhibits the following, except:

A. B. C. D. E.

No distobuccal groove development occlusally or buccally. No small distal cusp. Cusps are nearly equal in development. Buccal and lingual developmental grooves meet the central development grooves at right angles Cusps slopes are smooth, no supplemental grooves radiating from developmental grooves.

54. The first evidence of calcification of deciduous central incisors: A. 1 ½ months in utero C. 3 months in utero B. 2 months in utero D. 3 – 4 months in utero

E. 5 ½ months in utero

55. This is the triangle where tracheostomy is performed? A. Carotid triangle C. Submandibular triangle B. Muscular Triangle D. Submental triangle 56. Leaf-shaped laryngeal cartilage. A. thyroid cartilage B. cricoid cartilage

C. cuneiform D. arytenoid

E. epiglottis

57. The inferior mesenteric artery supplies the following. I. Sigmoid colon III. Transverse colon II. Descending colon IV. Rectum A. I, II, III & IV B. I, II, III & V C. II, III, IV & V

V. Ascending colon D. I, II, IV & V E. II & V only

58. An organ with a retroperitoneal location that can be approached surgically without violating the community of the peritoneum is the.. A. Ovary B. Kidney C. Spleen D. Gallbader E. none of these 59. Ligamentous remnants of the fetal circulatory system persisting in the adult include: I. ligamentum nuchae IV. Ligamentum teres of the liver II. ligamentum venosum V. ligamentum teres of the uterus III. ligamentum arteriosum A. I, II & III B. I, II & V C. I, IV & V D. II, III & IV E. III, IV & V 60. The small, deep, penetrating arteries of the basal ganglia known as the “lenticulostriate arteries: are braches of which of the following? A. Middle cerebral artery C. Anterior choroidal artery B. Internal carotid artery D. All of the choices 61. The following are TRUE sutures: I. sutura harmonia II. sutura serrate A. I, II & III B. II, III & IV

III. Sutura dentate IV. Sutura limbosa C. I, II & IV D. I, III & IV

E. all of them

62. Which ganglion is located within the facial canal and contains sensory neurons that innervate taste buds on the anterior two-thirds of the tongue? A. Otic ganglion C. Seminlunar ganglion B. Ciliary ganglion D. Geniculate ganglion 63. Which of the following veins are normally concerned with drainage of the stomach? I. PortalII. Azygos III. Splenic IV. Internal iliac A. I & II B. I & III C. I, III & IV D. II & III E. II, III & IV 64. Which of the following abdominal viscera are retroperitoneal? I. Aorta III. Kidney V. Pancreas II. Liver IV. Stomach VI. Suprarenal (adrenal) A. I, II, III & IV C. I, II, IV & VI

B. I, II, III & V

D. I, III, V & VI

E. II, IV, V & VI

65. Which of the following are contained in the posterior mediastinum? I. The thoracic duct IV. The hemiazygous vein II. The descending aorta V. The right recurrent laryngeal nerve III. The splanchnic nerve A. I,II,III & IV B. II,III,IV & V C. I,II,IV & V D. I,II.III & V E. I, III & IV 66. Considered to be the circular muscles of the pharynx. I. Superior constrictor IV. Middle constrictor II. Stylopharyngeus V. Inferior constrictor III. Palatopharyngeus VI. Salpingopharyngeus A. I,II, III & VI B. I, IV, V, & VI C. I, IV & V D. II, III & VI

E. II & III

67. At birth, which of the following structures is nearest the size it will eventually attain in adulthood? A. Cranium C. middle face B. Mandible D. nasal Capsule 68. When lowering the floor of the mouth of a patient, a practitioner detaches all or part of which muscles? A. Mylohyoid and geniohyoid D. Mylohyoid and buccinator B. Mylohyoid and genioglossus E. Geniohyoid and genioglossus C. Buccinator and genioglossus 69. Indentation in the medial border of the kidney’s for the passage of renal vessels and ureters: A. Renal hiatus C. renal hilus B. Renal sinus D. renal orifice E. Renal pelvis 70. Inner layer of the dura mater between cerebral hemispheres cerebellum: A. Londitudinal C. falx cerebri B. central sulcus D. Falx cerebella E. transverse cerebi 71. The liver is one of the two organ, along with the lungs, to receive a dual blood supply. Which two structures are responsible for that dual blood supply to the liver? 1. Common carotid artery 3. Splanchnic vein 2. Hepatic artery 4. Hepatic portal vein A. 1 & 2 B. 2 & 3 C. 3 & 4 D. 2 & 4 E. 1 & 4 72. Non-neuronal tissue of the CNS that performs supportive and other ancillary functions is called: A. Dermatome B. Bursa C. Neuroglia D. Synapse 73. The cardiac notch is a deep indentation on the: A. Superior lobe of the left lung D. Inferior lobe of the left lung B. Inferior lobe of the right lung E. Middle lobe of the right lung C. Superior lobe of the right lung 74. During an inferior alveolar block injection, the needle passes through the mucous membrane and the buccinator muscle and lies lateral to which muscle ? A. Masseter B. Medial pterygoid C. Temporalis D. Lateral pterygoid 75. The internal acoustic meatus transmits which two of the following structures? 1. Vestibulocochlear nerve (CN VIII) 3. Facial nerve (CN VII) 2. Trigeminal nerve (CN V) 4. Vagus nerve (CN X) A. 1 & 2 B. 2 & 3 C. 1 & 3 D. 1 & 4 E. 2 & 4

76. If a person feels cold, her body will initiate a number of mechanisms, such as shivering, designed to increase body temperature, shivering and other temperature-raising mechanisms. This will stop the body reactions until it reaches a normal temperature. This is an example of what process? A. positive feedback B. negative feedback C. neutral feedback D. positive regulating E. negative regulating. 77. A Donnan equilibrium between the plasma and interstitium is characterized by A. more negative electrical potential in the plasma than in the interstitium B. greater concentration of diffusible cations in the plasma than in the interstitium C.greater concentration of diffusible anions in the plasma than in the interstitium D. greater osmotic pressure in the plasma than in the interstitium 78. One of the functions of the Golgi complex is to: A. synthesize protein B. nucleate polymerization of microtubules C. synthesize lysosomal enzymes D. synthesize carbohydrates E. process and package secretory products 79. Glucose is first metabolized through A. aerobic glycolysis B. anaerobic glycolysis tricarboxylic acid cycle E. the respiratory chain

C. gluconeogenesis D. the

80. Synthesis of steroids and drug detoxification are functions of the A. rough endoplasmic reticulum complex C. smooth endoplasmic reticulum D. mitochondria E. perinuclear cisternae

B. Golgi

81. Calcium is released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum by A. diacylglycerol B. G protein C. phospholipase C adenylate cyclase E. inositol triphosphate