Revalida-pathology - NAProstho DENT MAT Revalida PDF

Preview

Summary

Download Revalida-pathology - NAProstho DENT MAT Revalida PDF

Description

Centro Escolar University School of Dentistry PRE-BOARD THEORETICAL EXAMINATION GENERAL AND ORAL MICROSCOPIC ANATOMY & EMBRYOLOGY. GENERAL AND ORAL PATHOLOGY; MICROBIOLOGY Shade AE if the answer is not found in the given choices. 1. The development of the 2nd palate is characterized by the formation of what? A. Two palatal shelves on the maxillary prominence C. Tuberculum impar B. Two lateral lingual swellings D. Hypobrachial eminence 2. Malformation resulting from fusion between the maxillary and lateral nasal process. A. Median cleft lip C. bilateral cleft lip B. Macrostamia D. oblique facial cleft E. unilateral cleft lip 3. This outgrowth appears in the oral cavity that grows downward from the frontonasal process along the midline: A. nasal septum C. secondary palate B. palatine shelves D. maxillary process E. mandible 4. The formation of the secondary palate completes around: A. 6th month C. 4th month th B. 5 month D. 3rd month E. between 2nd to 3rd month 5. This egg divides into two cells while resulting cells divide again and again. A. zygote B. ovum C. sperm D. egg cell E. gotus 6. This causes the changes in the coloration of the enamel. A. DEJ C. enamel lamella B. Stria of Retzius D. enamel tuft

E. water

7. A dark stria of retzius that occurs at the time of birth. A. Gnarled enamel C. neonatal line B. Emanel lamella D. DEJ E. enamel tuft 8. This is not hypo-mineralized, and the enamel rods are laid down in this pattern by ameloblasts to make the enamel strong. A. Neonatal line C. DEJ B. Gnarled enamel D. enamel tuft E. enamel lamella 9. Enamel contains: A. 96% inorganic material B. 70% inorganic materials

C. 30% inorganic material D. none of the choices.

10. Death of the odontoblasts usually results to: A. reparative dentin formation C,. sclerotic dentin B. dead tracts formation D. transparent dentin formation

E. tertiary dentin

11. Hertwig’s epithelial sheath plays an important role in thedevelopment of: A. Enamel B. dentin C. crown D. roots E. pulp 12. These are uncalcified cementum: A. Amyloid B. cementoid C. dentinoid D. cellular cementum

E both B & D

13. Defensive cells of the pulp that usually acts as macrophages: A. Histiocytes C. resting wandering cells B. Undifferentiated mesenchymal cells D. fibroblast

E. both B & D

14. Known as proliferation stage: A. Cap stage B. Bell stage

C. Bud stage

D. all these

15. At what week does the tongue begins to develop? A. 4th week B. 5th week C. 6th week D. 7th week

E. 3rd week

16. This structure developed between the tuberculum impar and cupula: A. Hypobrachial eminence C. palatine tonsil B. Lateral lingual swelling D. foramen ceacum E. both B & C 17. Cranial nerve that supply the mucosa of the posterior third of the tongue. A. Hypoglossal B. glossopharyngeal C. trigeminal D. vestibulocochlear 18. Clinical condition wherein the tongue is tied down to the floor of the mouth due to excessive frenula: A. Ankyloglossia B. microglossia C. bifid tongue D. median rhomboid glossitis 19. Tissue formed from the fusion of the maxillary and median nasal process: A. Secondary palate B. primary palate C. palatine shelves D. brachial arch 20. Tooth is derived from the: A. Ectoderm only B. Mesoderm only

C. endoderm only D. mesoderm and endoderm

E. ectoderm and mesoderm

21. Granulation tissue is characterized by: A. proliferation of new capillaries with fibroblasts and new collagen formation B. giant cells and fibroblasts C. giant cell and lymphocytes D. giant cells, plasma cells and lymphocytes E. neutrophils and necrotic tissue. 22. The ffg are characteristics of thymus, except: A. entire organ has cortex and medulla C. presence of Hassall’s bodies B. each lobule has cortex and medulla D. lymphocytes are abundant in the cortex 23. The ffg are characteristics of arteries, except: A. tunica intima is scalloped after rigor mortis B. wall appears rigid even after death C. diameter of the lumen is lesser than the width of its wall D. width of wall is lesser than diameter of lumen 24. These are unicellular mucous-secreting glands: A. duodenal glands B. goblet cells C. esophangeal glands 25. The interstitial tissue of the testi contains: A. sertoli cells B. spermatogenic cells

C. Leydig cells

D. sertoli cells

E. parietal cells.

D. all of the cells

26. Granulation tissue is characterized by: A. proliferation of new capillaries with fibroblasts and new collagen formation B. giant cells and fibroblasts C. giant cell and lymphocytes D. giant cells, plasma cells and lymphocytes E. neutrophils and necrotic tissue. 27. The ffg are characteristics of bronchioles, except: A. segmented cartilage plates C. complete ring of smooth muscle B. absence of glands D. irregularly shaped lumen E. ciliated columnar cells. 28. The renal corpuscle is made up of: A. Convoluted tubules C. glomerulus and Bowman’s capsule B. Loops of Henle D. collecting tubules

29. The primary purpose of cilia in mammalian cells is to: A. Move solids over their surface B. Move fluid, mucous or cells over their surface C. Absorb fluid, mucous or cells over their surface D. Absprb solids and liquids over their surface 30. The basophils in the circulating blood are similar to which cell ? A. platelet B. mast cell C. macrophage

D. Kupffer cell

31. Which cell is committed to differentiate into antibody-producing plasma cells? A. stern cell B. macrophage C. T cell D. B cell . 32. A distinctive array of microtubules in the core of cilia and flagella comprised of a central pair surrounded by a sheath of none doublet microtubules (characteristic “9+2” pattern)? A. tubulin B. centriole C. axoneme D. malleolus 33. Which of the following is the cartilaginous bar of the first branchial arch?

A. Meckel’s cartilage

B. Reichert’s cartilage

C. John’s cartilage

D. Smith’s cartilage

34. The Golgi apparatus functions to: A. give form to the cell and control passage of materials in and out of the cell B. serve as a matrix substance in which chemical reactions occur C. synthesize complex structure carbohydrates molecules, which combine with protein produced by rough endoplasmic reticulum to form secretory products D. release energy from food molecules and transform energy to usable ATP. 35. What is the collective name given to lifeless substances- such as yolk, fat and starch- that may be stored in various parts of the cytoplasm? A. ectoplasm B. metaplasm C. protoplasm D. nucleoplasm 36. Which of the following is known as the sex chromatin body? A. Golgi body B. Barr body C. Pineal body

D. Lateral body

37. Chromosomes are composed of: A. RNA and DNA C. Protein and RNA B. DNA and protein D. Lipids and phospholipids 38. The nucleolus of a cell functions to: A. synthesize t-RNA B. synthesize r-RNA

C. synthesize m-RNA

39. Which cell is considered to be most versatile in the body? A. macrophage B. hepatocyte C. kupffer cell

D. synthesize DNA

D. erythrocyte

40. Which cell present in mesenchyme and capable of differentiating into any of the special types of connective tissue or supporting tissues, smooth muscles, vascular endothelium, or blood cells? A. alpha cells B. B cells C. mesenchymal cells D. Leydig cells 41. All of the following conditions are associated with a prolonged bleeding time, except: A. idiopathic thrombocytopenia purpura D. hemophilia B. von Willebrand’s disease E. long-term treatment with aspirin. C. patients taking anticoagulants 42. Which of the following is also known as marble bone disease or Albers Schonberg disease? A. fibrous dysplasia C. osteopetrosis B. osteogenesis imperfecta D. achondroplasia 43. Osgood-Schlatter disease is: A. destruction of the growth plate in the neck of the tighbone. B. inflammation of the bone and cartilage at the top of the shinbone C. a relatively common condition in which backache and humpback are caused by changes in the vertebrae

D. a rare form of inflammation of bone and cartilage affecting one of the small bones in the foot. 44. Lymphomas principally involve which of the following? A. lymph nodes B. spleen C. liver D. bone marrow E. all of the choices. 45. Neoplastic epidermal cells, often with keratin “pearls”, characterize which type of skin cancer? A. squamous cell carcinoma C. malignant melanoma B. basal cell carcinoma D. all of the choices 46. An endocrine disorder affecting the skeleton and kidney, that promotes metastatic calcification is: A. Hyperadrenalism C. hyperpituitarism B. Hyperthyroidism D. hyperparathyroidism E. hyperfunction of the thymus 47. Bone pain, osteolytic lesions, plasma cell infiltration of marrow and synthesis of abnormal immunoglobulins describe: A. Systemic lupus erythematosus C. polyclonal gammopathy B. Selective IgA deficiency D. Paget’s disease of bone E. multiple myeloma 48. Blood in the sputum is characteristic of each of the following, except: A. Emphysema C. lobar pneumonia B. Tuberculosis D. pulmonary embolism E. bronchogenic carcinoma 49. The most important characteristic of malignant neoplasms, which distinguishes them from benign neoplasms, is their: A. Nonencapsulation C. ability to metastasize B. Rapid growth rate D. lack of differentiation E. excessive mitotic activity 50. Which of the following is the usual cause of chronic pyelonephritis? A. Systemic hypertension D. chronic glomerulonephritis B. Type IV hypersensitivity E. bacteremic seeding of the kidneys C. Infection resulting from urinary reflux 51. Which of the following is most likely to cause a sudden arrest of heart function? A. Mitral stenosis C. constrictive pericarditis B. Angina pectoris D. cardiac tamponade E. subacute bacterial endocarditis 52. Which of the following represents the most frequent cause of a clinically palpable breast mass in an adult women? A. Sarcoma C. adenocarcinoma B. Fibroadenoma D. fibrocystic disease E. intraductal papilloma 53. Which of the following represents the chief complication of mumps in the adult male? A. Orchitis B. Prostatitis C. glomerulonephritis D. chronic nonspecific sialadenitis 54. Which of the following is a demyelinating disease of the CNS? A. Multiple sclerosis C. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease B. Alzheimer’s disease D. Parkinson’s diseases 55. Which type of chromosome is usually missing from the cells of persons with Turner’s syndrome? A. An autosome C. a sex chromosome B. Chromosome 21 D. a “ring” chromosome E. a group A chromosome 56. A classic hemophilia is due to a deficiency of normal Factor VIII which in turn is due to a genetic deficiency that is: A. Partially dominant C. autosomal recessive B. Autosomal dominant D. sex-linked dominant E. sex-linked recessive 57. Cementoblastoma presents the following features except: A. an opaque lesion attached to the root of the teeth B. opaque spicules radiate from central area C. affect mandible more than maxilla D. usual age range of patient is 2nd to 3rddecades of life e. none of the above

58. Periapical cementooseous dysplasia features include the following except: A. usually involves more than one tooth C. involved tooth or teeth retain its vitality B. usually involves maxillary anterior teeth D. initial lesion presents as radiolucency 59. Calcifying epithelial odontogenic tumor except: A. favors the mandibular molar-ramus area B. radiolucent with or without opaque foci C. mean age of occurrence around 40 D. behavior and prognosis are similar to an ameloblastoma

e. none of the above

60. Ameloblastoma features include the following except: A. may arise in wall of dentigerous cyst C. asymptomatic c. asymptomatic B. may exhibit aggressive behavior D. multilocular radiopacities 61. Adenomatoid odontogenic tumor exhibits the following except: A. usually affects anterior jaw segment C. asymptomatic B. well defined radiolucency D. usually associated with crown of impacted tooth e. none of the above 62. Biologic subtypes of ameloblastoma are the following except: A. solid ameloblastoma B. cystic ameloblastoma C. follicular ameoblastoma 63. Pindborg tumor exhibit the following features except: A. microscopic features are similar to an ameloblastoma B. usually affects the mandibular molar-ramus area C, slow growing D, age of occurrence is same as that in ameloblastoma 64. Adenomatoid odontogenic tumor is characterized by the following except: A. teenagers most commonly affected B. rarely seen over the age of 30 years C. presents radiolucent or lucent-opaque pattern D. enucleation is the treatment of choice e. none of the above 65. Of the following, which statement about osteosarcoma is true? A. It is a very common malignancy in female. B. It most commonly arises in young adult. D. It is common in maxilla, C. It can be cured by conservative local excision. E. It has a good prognosis. 66. Which of the following contains enamel and dentin? A. ameloblastoma C. adenomatoid odontogenic tumor B. cementoblastoma D. complex odontoma E. ameloblastic fibroma 67. Of the following, which is most likely to recur after initial surgery? A. ameloblastoma C. complex odontoma E. ameloblastic fibroma B. cementoblastoma D. adenomatoid odontogenic tumor 68. Most ameloblastoma are located in the: A. posterior maxilla B. posterior mandible

C. midline of the mandible D. maxillary anterior region

69. An uncommon benign odontogenic neoplasm in which both epithelial and connective tissue components are neoplastic, which affects young people, occurs in the posterior mandible, and does not infiltrate the surrounding tissues is a/an: A.. mixed tumor C. odontogenic myxoma B. ameloblastoma D. ameloblastic fibroma E. odontogenic adenomatoid tumor 70. An odontogenic tumor consisting of miniature tooth-like structure is: A. odontoma C. ameloblastoma E. cementoblastoma B. odontogenic myxoma D. cementoma 71. A panorex radiograph shows a well-defined, mixed radiolucent/radiopaque lesion in the left ramus. Differential diagnosis considerations for this lesion include:

1. ameloblastic fibroma 3. odontogenic myxoma A. 1 and 3 B. 2 and 4

2. complex odontoma 4. central ossifying fibroma C. 1, 2 and 3

D. 4

E. 1,2, 3 and 4

72. Select the correct associations. 1. In cementoblastoma, the associated tooth remains vital. 2. In central ossifying fibroma, the radiographic appearance can range from radiolucent to radiopaque. 3. In ameloblastic fibroma, there is unilocular or multilocular radiolucency. 4. Adenomatoid odontogenic tumor is exclusively radiolucent in appearance A. 1 and 3 B. 2 and 4 C. 1, 2, and 3 D. 4 E. 1, 2, 3, and 4 For numbers 18-25 Shade A – if the first statement is correct and the second statement is incorrect B – if the first statement is incorrect and the second statement is correct C – if both statements are correct D – if both statements are incorrect 73. 90% of Ewing’s Sarcoma occurs between the ages of 5 and 30 years and more than 60% affects males. A 74. Chondrosarcoma more often involves the mandible and both gender affects with equal distribution. B 75. Odontogenic Myxoma usually occurs in females and more often involve the maxillary. D 76. Periapical Cementooseous Dysplasia causes cortical expansion of the jaw and it is best treated by surgical excision. D 77. Odontoma usually occurs at the mandible and there is no gender predilection. B 78. Clear Cell Odontogenic Tumor is a rare neoplasm of the mandible and maxilla and the etiology is unknown. C 79. Cementoblastoma is also known as True Cementoma and it occurs predominantly in females. A 80. Periapical Cementooseous Dysplasia requires biopsy and can be found at the apex of a non-vital tooth. D 81. Odontoma is a mixed odontogenic tumor since it is composed of both epithelial and mesenchymal dental hard tissues. C 82. Which of the following genera most frequently develops resistance to penicillin? A, Neisseria C. Actinomyces B, Treponema D. Streptococcus E. Staphylococcus 83. Which of the following viruses maybe transmitted from man to man by inhalation of respiratory droplets generated by talking or sneezing by infected patients? I. Rubeola II. Adenoviruses III. Influenza virus IV. Varicella-zoster virus A. I, II & III B. I, II & IV C. I, III & IV D. II, III & IV E. I, II, III & IV 84. Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) can directly infect all of the following cells, except: A, neurons C. CD4 (helper) lymphocytes B, macrophages D. CD8 (suppressor) lymphocytes 85. Anaerobic bacteria lacking catalase are generally” A, Motile C. able to ferment lactate B, sensitive to H2O2 D. resistant to penicillin

E. producers of O2 and H2O from H2O2

86. Which of the following organisms represents a significant secondary invader of carious lesions? A, Bacillus subtilis C. Streptococcus mutans B, Lactobacillus casei D. Staphylococcus aureus

. 87. Which of the following viral-associated enzymes is unique to RNA tumor viruses? A, Neuramidase C. Reverse transciptase B, Capping enzyme D. DNA-dependent RNA polymerase 88. Which of the following microorganisms is most likely to be cultured from chronic, bilateral ulcerations at the corners of the mouth? A, Candida B. Treponema C. Brucella D. Histoplasma E. Trichophyton 89. Shock during infection with gram-negative bacteria is most likely caused by: A, an exotoxin C. ribonuclease B, an endotoxin D. a capsular antigen E. a flagellar antigen 90. Which of the following is the most frequently employed diagnostic laboratory technique for the microscopic detection of antigens in tissue secretions or in cell suspensions? A. immunofluorescence C. agglutination E. radioimmunoassay (RIA) B. precipitation D. Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) 91. Infections caused by certain nematodes cause: A. marked neutrophilia B. marked eosinophilia

C. marked basophilia

92. A single-called parasite that causes amebiasis in humans is: A. giardia lamblia B. entamoeba histolytica C, trichomonas vaginalis

D. all of these

D. balantidium coli

93. All of the following are RNA enveloped viruses, except: A. picornaviruses C. human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) B. measles, mumps, rubella, and hepatitis D. respiratory viruses 94. Infection with Epstein-Barr virus can cause infectious mononucleosis, which may be characterized by the appearance of: A. Koplik’s spots C. Owl’s eye inclusions B. Heterophile antibodies D. Cowdry type A inclusions 95. Which herpes simplex virus causes acute herpetic gingivostomatitis, recurrent herpes labialis, keratoconjunctivitis and encephalitis? A. herpes simplex virus type 1 (HSV-1) B. herpes simplex virus type 2 (HSV-2). 96. Type of organism needing small amounts of oxygen for existence is known as? A,obligate aerobe B. obligate anaerobe C. facultative aerobe D. Microaerophile 97. A number of fungi that commonly cause superficial skin infections belong to the genus: A, Aspergillus C. Histoplasma E. Blastomyces B. Coccidiodes D. Trichophyton 98. A bacterium well known for its large polysaccharide capsule is: A, Clostridium tetani C. Hemophilus influenzae B. Staphylococcus aureus D. Streptococcus pneumonia

E. Mycobacterium tuberculosis

99. The progression of impetigo in children involves streptococci and A, diphtheroids C. Corynebacteria B, staphylococci D. streptococcal hypersensitivity E. all of the choices 100. What is the fastest, safestand most effective method to sterilize a metal impression tray with a solder that metls at a temperature above 175 degrees centrigrade? A, Filtration C. dry heat sterilization B, Autoclaving D. soaking in 2% gluteraldehyde E. ethylene oxide sterilization

Centro Escolar University School of Dentistry PRE-BOARD THEORETICAL EXAMINATION GENERAL AND ORAL MICROSCOPIC ANATOMY & EMBRYOLOGY; GENERAL AND ORAL PATHOLOGY; MICROBIOLOGY 1. Enamel well suited to withstand severe masticatory forces: A. Root enamel C. gnarled enamel B. Cervical enamel D. enamel lamellae E. both A & D 2. In the life cycle of an ameloblast, there are c...