Prostho DENT MAT Revalida PDF

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Centro Escolar University School of Dentistry PRE-BOARD THEORETICAL EXAMINATION PROSTHODONTICS 1,2,3 AND DENTAL MATERIALS Shade AE if the answer is not in the choices given. 1. An advantage of a wide, thin palatal bar compared with a narrow bar is that the wide bar: A. is more stable C. can be rigid with less bulk B. is easier to polish D. is less irritating to the soft tissue 2.

When a cusp is in deflective occlusal contact in centric relation, but does not contact in one or more of the eccentric movements, grinding should be performed on: A. both the cusp and the opposing area C. the opposing fossa or the marginal ridge B. the cusp that is in deflective occlusal contact D. the opposing areas in eccentric positions.

3.

Proper lip support for a patient with complete dentures is provided primarily by the; A. convex surface of the labial flange D.. rounded contours of interdental papillae B. proper pronouncement of sibilant sounds E. thickness of the border in the vestibule C .facial surfaces of teeth and stimulated attached gingiva.

4.

In determining the posterior limit of a maxillary denture base, which of the following is on the posterior border? A. Hamular notch C. fovea palatini B. Hamular process D. vibrating line E. pterygomandibular raphe

5.

Which of the following will increase retention of a complete denture? A. Xerostomia D. Air chamber in midpalate B. Foreshortened denture bases E. Increased salivary film thickness C. Accurate adaptation of the denture base to the mucosa

6. Which of the following design characteristics of a partial denture is most important to oral health? A. Bracing B. support C. stability D. retention 7.

The principal factor in minimizing the firing shrinkage of porcelain is the; A. fusion temperature C. uniformity of particle size B. ratio of flux to feldspar D. thoroughness of condensation

8. An abutment tooth exhibiting an unfavorable survey line should; A. be restored C. have unfavorable contours improved B. be by-passed in the framework design D. receive only a rest and not be clasped 9.

To be biologically and mechanically acceptable, a soldered joint of a fixed bridge should be so formed that it; A. extends to the buccal margin of the retainer B. fills the entire interproximal space occlusogingivally C. is thin occlusogingivally and wide buccolingually D. is circular in form and occupies the region of the contact area

10. Three weeks after insertion of fixed bridge, marked discomfort to heat and cold but not sweets occurs. The most likely cause is; A. gingival recession D. unseating of the bridge B. deflective occlusal contact E. torsional forces on one abutment tooth C. incomplete coverage of cut surfaces of prepared abutment teeth 11. The strength of a soldered connector of a fixed partial denture is best enhanced by: A. using a higher carat solder C. increasing its width B. increasing its height D. increasing the gap 12. A dentist primarily splints adjacent abutment teeth in a fixed partial denture in order to:

A. improve the distribution of the occlusal load B. stabilize the abutment teeth

C. improve embrasure contours D. improve mesiodistal spacing

13. A dentist determined that it would be necessary to adjust a patient’s denture teeth to correct the centric occlusion at the wax try-in appointment. Which of the following should this dentist do? A. Make a new centric relation record and remount B. Make a new face bow and centric record C. Make a slight occlusal adjustments in the mouth D. Make adjustments only for Class II jaw relation patients 14. Major connectors most frequently encounter interferences from which of the following? A. Lingually inclined maxillary molars B. Lingually inclined mandibular premolars C. Facially inclined maxillary molars and premolars D. Bony areas on the facial aspect of edentulous spaces 15. In constructing a fixed partial denture for a patient, the dentist will use a hygienic pontic. Which of the following will primarily determine the faciolingual dimension of the occlusal portion of this pontic? A. The length of the pontic. B. The masticatory force of the patient. C. The position of the opposing contact areas. D. The width and crestal position of the edentulous ridge. 16. The most frequent cause of porosity in a porcelain restoration is; A. moisture contamination C. excessive condensation of the porcelain B. excessive firing D. inadequate condensation of the porcelain 17. On the articulator, the incisal guidance is the; A. horizontal guidance C. mechanical equivalent of the curve of Spee B. same as the condylar guidance D. mechanical equivalent of horizontal and vertical overlap. 18. A post and core is preferred to a post crown for an abutment tooth because; A. it is stronger C. better esthetics can be achieved B. it can be treated as an independent abutment D. less chair time is required in its fabrication 19. The most important criterion for a gingival margin on a crown preparation is that; A. it is a dul knife edge. C. its position be supragingival B. Its position be subgingivall D. its position be easily discernible 20. Which of the following teeth is the least desirable to use as an abutment tooth for a FPD? A. Tooth with pulpal involvement B. Tooth with minimal coronal structure C. Tooth rotated and tipped out of line D. Tooth with short , tapered root with long clinical crown 21. In the construction of a removable partial denture, when is a lingual plate preferred over a lingual bar connector? A. When more rigidity is required. B. When the remaining teeth are widely spaced. C. When the remaining anterior teeth are mobile. D. When there is no space in the floor of the mouth. 22. Which of the following explains why mandibular molars should not be placed over the ascending area of the mandible? A. The denture base ends where the ramus ascends. B. The molars would interfere with the retromolar pad. C. The teeth in this area would encroach on the tongue space D. The teeth in this area would interfere with the action of the masseter muscle. E. The occlusal forces over the inclined ramus would dislodge the mandibular denture. 23. Excessive depth of the posterior palatal seal usually results in: A. unseating of the denture C. greater retention B. a tingling sensation D. increased gagging

24. For a complete denture balanced occlusion, the lingual cusps of maxillary posterior teeth on the nonworking side contacts which areas of the mandibular posterior teeth? A. The facial inclines of the lingual cusps C. The lingual inclines of the lingual cusps B. The lingual inclines of the facial cusps D. The central fossae 25. The lower one third of a patient’s face appears too short and there is an apparent loss of the vermillion border of the lips. Which of the following procedures is indicated to correct the situation? A. Moving the anterior teeth facially. C. Increasing the interocclusal distance B. Decreasing the occlusal vertical dimension D. Increasing the occlusal vertical dimension 26. In a complete maxillary denture, accurate adaptation of the border of the maxillary facial flange affects which of the following the most? A. Speech B. support C. stability D. esthetics 27. The distofacial periphery of the mandibular impression should receive special attention. Which of the following anatomical structures might cause soreness if the denture is overextended? A. Masseter C. pterygmandibular raphe B. Buccinator D. internal pterygoid E. lateral tendon of the temporal 28. A patient needs relining of both maxillary complete denture and mandibular distal-extension partial denture. The recommended procedure is to A. make impression of both simultaneously B. start first on the maxillary complete denture C. start first with the least stable prosthesis D. relate first the mandibular partial denture frame 29. Which of the following mechanical properties limits the amount of adjustment of a base metal removable clasp arm? A. Hardness B. stiffness C. elongation D. tensile strength 30. A patient needs relining of both maxillary complete denture and mandibular distal-extension partial denture. The recommended procedure is to A. make impression of both simultaneously B. start first on the maxillary complete denture C. start first with the least stable prosthesis D. relate first the mandibular partial denture frame 31. The dentist should place the terminus of a retentive clasp arm at (in) the: A. junction of the gingival and middle one third of the clinical crown B. junction of the middle and occlusal one third of the clinical crown C. level of the free gingival margin D. occlusal one third of the clinical crown 32. The speech sounds that bring the mandible closest to the maxilla are the: A. “s” sounds C. “t” and “th” sounds B. “f” and “v” sounds D. vowel sounds 33. For an extension-base RPD, which of the following is the most important to maintain the remaining supporting tissues? A. Using stress releasing clasps C. limiting eccentric occlusal contacts B. Preserving denture base support D. using plastic teeth 34. The primary advantage of an external splint over an internal splint is: A. increased rigidity C. increased durability B. increased retention D. conservation of tooth surface 35. In an edentulous patient, the coronoid process can: A. limit the distal extension of the mandibular denture. B. affect the position and arrangement of the posterior tooth C. limit the thickness of the denture flange in the maxillary buccal space

D. determine the location of the posterior palatal seal of the maxillary denture.

36. A dentist relined a patient’s maxillary complete denture. This patient returned repeatedly for adjustments of the erythematous areas on the ridge crest. Which of the following is the most likely cause? A. An allergy to the acrylic resin that was used for relining. B. Presence of a pressure spot in the relined impression C. The loss of even centric relation contacts. D. A decrease in the occlusal vertical dimension. 37. The one relation of the condyles to the fossae in which a pure hinging movements is possible is: A. centric occlusion C. postural position of the mandible (rest vertical dimension) B. retruded contact position D. transverse horizontal axis (terminal hinge position) 38. In a complete denture patient, when the teeth, occlusion rims and central bearing point are in contact and the mandible is in centric relation, the length of the face is known as the: A. interocclusal rest space C. physiologic rest position B. vertical dimension D. rest vertical dimension E. occlusal vertical dimension 39. Which of the following is the primary reason for using plastic teeth in a removable partial denture? Plastic teeth are: A. resistant to wear C. esthetically acceptable B. resistant to stains D. retained well in acrylic resin 40. A patient who has a moderate bony undercut on the facial from canine-to-canine needs an immediate maxillary denture. There is also a tuberosity that is severely undercut. This patient is best treated by: A. reducing surgically the tuberosity only. B. reducing surgically the facial bony undercut only C. reducing surgically both tuberosity and facial bony undercut D. leaving the bony undercuts and relieving the denture base. 41. Which of the following direct retainers for a removable partial denture is the most esthetic? A. A bar clasp C. an intracoronal attachment B. A circumferential clasp D. a round, wrought-wire clasp 42. Under which of the following conditions will it be critical to mount a patient’s casts on the true hinge axis? A. When the patient has a severe Class II occlusal relation. B. When the patient requires several fixed partial dentures. C. When the dentist plans to change the vertical dimension through restorations. D. When the dentist plans to fabricate dentures with high-cusped teeth on a fully adjusted articulator. 43. In complete denture fabrication, which of the following regulate/s the paths of the condyles in mandibular movements? A. the height of the cusps of posterior teeth. B. The amount of horizontal and vertical overlap. C. The size and shape of the bony fossae and the menisci and muscular influence. D. The vertical occlusion, centric relation, and degree of compensating curve. 44. Which of the following best explains why the dentist should provide a postpalatal seal in a complete maxillary denture? The seal will compensate for: A. errors in fabrication C. polymerization and cooling shrinkage B. tissue displacement D. deformation of the impression material 45. For complete dentures, which of the following three factors affect the correct positioning of lips? A. Face-bow transfer, position of teeth, and correct rest vertical dimension. B. Face-bow transfer, thickness of the anterior border, and correct occlusal vertical dimension. C. Correct rest vertical dimension, thickness of the anterior border and position of teeth. D. Correct occlusal vertical dimension, thickness of the anterior border and position of teeth.

46. In metal-ceramic crowns and FPD, the function of tin, indium and other readily oxidized minor components of the alloy is to; A. Improve bonding B. Decrease porosity C. React with the porcelain and make an opaque layer to mask the metal D. Improve thermal expansion matching between the metal and the porcelain 47. Porcelain bonded to metal is strongest when A. air fired C. tempered after firing B. under compression D. fired several times before completion 48. The phenomenon where porcelain aapears different under varying light conditions is; A. metamerism C. transmittance B. translucency D. opacification E. refractive optics 49. Retention and resistance forms in full coverage preparations on short molars can be enhanced by; A. using zinc phosphate cement C. placing several vertical groove B. using a full shoulder finish line D. minimizing the depth of occlusal carving 50. The posterior occlusal plane is determined on an occlusion rim by paralleling the rim with the; A. ala-tragus plane C. tragus-canthus plane B. ala-canthus plane D. ala-external auditory meatus plane 51. Which of the following jaw-relation records should be used for setting both the medial and superior condylar guides on an arcon articulator? A. Intercuspation C. lateral interocclusal records B. Centric relation D. protrusive interocclusal records 52. An incorrect occlusal vertical dimension causes a patient to overclose and to have a poor facial profile. To correct this problem, the dentist should do which of the following? A. increase the rest vertical dimension and increase the interocclusal distance B. decrease the rest vertical dimension and diminish the interocclusal distance C. decrease the occlusal vertical dimension and increase interocclusal distance D. increase the occlusal vertical dimension and diminish the interocclusal distance 53. Which of the following adverse conditions may arise if occlusal vertical dimension is increased? A. The closing muscles may become strained B. The opening muscles may become strained C. The closing muscles may become too relaxed D. Soreness may occur at the corners of the mouth. 54. A patient has a chronically tender, knife-edge mandibular residual ridge. In fabricating a complete denture for this patient, a dentist should consider which of the following? A. Maximal extension of the denture- to distribute forces of occlusion over a greater area. B. Minimal extension of the denture- to limit tenderness to a smaller area. C. Decreased occlusal vertical dimension- to decrease biting forces D. A broad occlusal table- to provide a firmer contact in eccentric jar relations. 55. Tripod marks are placed on the cast after surveying for which of the following reasons? A. To record the undercut areas on the abutment teeth. B. To help mount the cast on the articulator C. To record the orientation of the cast to the articulator D. To record the orientation of the cast to the surveyor. 56. In lateral movements, the non-working condyle moves in what direction? A. Out, back and up C. down, forward and medially B. Up, back and down D. down, forward and laterally E. none of the above.

57. The most likely tissue reaction to gross overextension of a complete denture that has been worn for a long time is: A. epulis fissuratum C. papillary hyperplasia B. pyogenic granuloma D. giant cell reparative granuloma 58. The relationship of denture base to bone that resists dislodgement of the denture in a horizontal direction is: A. support B. pressure C. esthetics D. stability 59. Failure of partial denture due tompoor clasp design can be best avoided by: A. Using stressbreakers D. using intracoronal attachments B. Using bar-type clasps E. altering tooth contours C. clasping only those teeth with fairly long crowns and normal bone support 60. Repeated fracture of a porcelain-fused to metal restoration is due primarily to: A. occlusal trauma C. failure to use a metal conditioner B. improper firing schedule D. an inadequately designed framework 61. A patient who wears complete denture is having trouble pronouncing the letter “t”. This is probably caused by: A. too thick a palatal seal area B. too thick a base in the mandibular denture C. incorrect positioning of maxillary incisors D. improper positioning of mandibular incisors 62. The distolingual extension of the mandibular impression for a complete denture is limited by the action of the: A. stylohyoid muscle C. lateral pterygoid muscle B. medial pterygoid muscle D. superior constrictor muscle 63. In RPD design. Guiding planes serve to: A. aid in balancing occlusion B. assure predictable clasp retention C. from right angles to the occlusal plane D. eliminate the necessity for precision attachments E. eliminate the necessity for a back-action clasp 64. When the path of dislodgement is not controlled and rotational dislodgement of extension bases occurs, remotely located vertical metal stops placed in prepared seats can be used to enhance the effectiveness of retentive clasps. The vertical metal stops are: A. indirect claps C. indirect retainers B. remote retainer D. forward retainers E. passive retainers 65. Excessive vertical dimension of occlusion may result in A. poor denture retention C. increased interocclusal distance B. drooping of the corners of the mouth E. creases and wrinkles around the lip C. trauma to underlying supporting tissues 66. Treatment of choice for a patient with a maxillary complete denture with severe bilateral tuberosity undercuts is to: A. remove both tuberosity undercuts C. reduce the tissue bilaterally B. reduce the tissue on one side , if possible D. none of the above. No treatment is necessary. 67. Translation in a mandibular opening movement occurs; A. on closing from centric relation C. on initial opening from centric relation B. in the upper compartment of the TMJ D. in the lower compartment of the TMJ 68. When the posterior maxillary buccal space is entirely filled with the denture flange, interference may occur with movement of the;

A. masseter muscle

B. coronoid process C. condyloid process

D. zygomatic process

69. A patient complains of “looseness” with a new bilateral distal extension RPD. This is probably caused by: A. deflective occlusal contacts C. thin flanges on acrylic bases B. passive clasp pressure on abutment teeth D. insufficient facial overlap on posterior teeth 70. When the mandible is in its physiologic rest position, the distance between occluding surfaces of maxillary and mandibular teeth or occlusion rim is; A. centric occlusion C. interocclusal distance B. vertical dimension D. vertical dimension of rest 71. The strength of dental investments for gold alloys is dependent upon the amount of; A. silica B. carbon C. gypsum D. alumina 72. The property that most closely describes the ability of a cast gold inlay to be burnished is; A. elastic limit C. percentage elongation B. ultimate strength D. modulus of resilience E. modulus of elasticity 73. Creep of a metal indicates that the metal; A. lacks edge strength B. has excessive flexibility C. has insufficient crushing strength

D. has insufficient retention E. will deform under static load

74. The me...