Ch 13 14 15 GEOG test review questions PDF

Title Ch 13 14 15 GEOG test review questions
Course Introduction To Landforms
Institution Georgia State University
Pages 14
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Answer the following 75 questions for Chapters 13, 14, and 15 on a fresh (new) blue scantron form (same as we have been using). Bubble your last name first, leave a space, bubble your first name, and bubble your answers. Submit your answer form at the beginning of class on Wednesday, October 25, 2017. Chapter 13 Questions: 1. The angle of repose represents a balance between the driving force and resisting force. Which of the following is the driving force? A) friction B) shear C) gravity D) inertia E) cohesion 2. Carbonation, in terms of chemical weathering, occurs when A) carbon dioxide combines with hydrogen to form hydrocarbons that can weather rock and other materials. B) carbon dioxide gas in water is dissolved under high pressure. C) water vapor dissolves carbon dioxide, yielding precipitation that contains carbonic acid. D) carbon dioxide interacts with calcium hydroxide and hydrates calcium silicates. E) any chemical reaction involving carbon dioxide occurs in the soil. 3. In which climates would rocks experience the highest amounts of chemical decomposition and decay? A) cold and wet B) cold and dry C) hot and wet D) hot and dry E) cool and moist 4. A mass of falling and tumbling rock, debris, and soil traveling at a high velocity owing to the presence of ice or water is a A) rockfall. B) mudflow. C) debris avalanche. D) landslide. E) lahar. 5. A ________ is a mixture of water and loosely consolidated sediment, such as gravels, boulders, and coarse rock fragments, moving downslope. A) debris flow B) creep C) rockfall D) landslide E) slump 6. All processes that cause reduction and rearrangement of landforms are included in the term A) mass movement. B) erosion. C) weathering. D) denudation. E) evisceration.

7. The principle that landscape formation is balance between endogenic and exogenic processes is called A) the dynamic equilibrium model. B) uniformitarianism. C) catastrophism. D) steady state theory. E) tipping point model. 8. Rocks of the same composition and structure found in the same area may have weathered at uneven rates due to a variety of factors. This is known as A) angle of repose. B) jointing. C) inertial resistance. D) denudation. E) differential weathering. 9.

Landscape formation is a balancing act between tectonic uplift and denudation. This figure depicts which of the following? A) steady-state equilibrium B) dynamic equilibrium C) dynamic equilibrium with threshold D) denudation, only E) tectonic uplift, only 10. When pressure is removed from overlying rock, the pressure of deep burial is relieved, initiating pressurerelease jointing. The joints then separate into curved slabs. This is known as A) exfoliation. B) frost wedging. C) salt crystal growth. D) spheroidal weathering. E) crystallization. 11. The fact that water expands as much as 9% of its volume as it freezes is the basis of A) oxidization. B) exfoliation. C) salt crystal growth. D) frost wedging. E) hydrolysis 12. Frost wedging is an example of ________ weathering processes. A) only chemical B) only physical C) only biological D) both biological and chemical E) both biological and physical

13. Hydration involves A) the chemical reaction of water. B) the addition of water with little chemical change. C) frost action. D) salt crystal growth from evaporation. E) pressure-release jointing. 14. Hydrolysis involves A) the chemical reaction of water. B) the addition of water with little chemical change. C) frost action. D) salt crystal growth from evaporation. E) pressure-release jointing. 15. Plants are important to the development of karst primarily because A) openings adjacent to their roots serve as microchannels that allow water to enter the rock. B) the decay of large roots below the surface produces cavities which eventually enlarge to form caves. C) they supply organic acids that enhance the dissolution process. D) they provide the calcium carbonate necessary for karst topography to form. E) they lessen the impact of raindrops on the surface so the water can more rapidly flow into stream channels. 16.

On May 5, 2014, 700 homes in northeastern Afghanistan were buried causing hundreds of fatalities after prolonged rainfall on fine-grained soils led to a A) solifluction. B) creep. C) scarification. D) rockfall.

E) landslide. 17. The downslope movement of a body of material made up of soil, sediment, or rock propelled by the force of gravity is known as A) lahar. B) downslope flow. C) mass movement. D) slide. E) weathering. 18. The presence of talus slopes indicates the occurrence of A) planar slides. B) mudflow. C) creep. D) rockfall. E) slump. 19.

The yellow-red stains that occur on some rock surfaces are the result of ________ which is a form of ________ weathering. A) hydration; physical B) hydration; chemical C) solution; chemical D) oxidation; physical E) oxidation; chemical 20. The consolidated or unconsolidated materials from which soils develop is known as A) joints. B) regolith. C) parent material. D) outcrop.

E) free face. 21. Which of the following is not a type of physical weathering process? A) exfoliation B) hydrolysis C) salt crystal growth D) frost wedging E) thermal expansion 22. When the upper surface of consolidated rock undergoes constant weathering, it creates broken-up rock called A) bedrock. B) regolith. C) parent material. D) outcrop. E) angle of repose. 23. Continuing dissolution and collapse may lead the coalescing of sinkholes to form a A) disappearing stream. B) rise. C) doline. D) drip curtain. E) karst valley. 24. A slow persistent mass movement of surface soil is called A) a debris avalanche. B) soil creep. C) a soil slide. D) a rockfall. E) slump. 25. The dynamic equilibrium model refers to A) a balancing act between tectonic uplift and rates of denudation by weathering and erosion in a given landscape. B) a hypothesis involving the cyclic or evolutionary development of a landscape. C) a sequential development of landforms. D) the idea that landscapes show great variations over time, but the forces of denudation and orogeny always balance. E) a hypothesis suggestion that landscapes form from catastrophic events followed by long periods of stability. Chapter 14 Questions: 26. Erosion in which boulders and gravel moving along the channel break apart and as rocks and sediment grind and carve streambeds is known as A) sheetflow. B) saltation. C) weathering. D) abrasion. E) hydraulic action.

27. If the load exceeds a stream's capacity, sediment accumulates in the bed in a process called A) downcutting. B) degradation. C) aggradation. D) saltation. E) traction 28. The entrenchment of a river into its own floodplain can produce A) backswamps. B) alluvial terraces. C) natural levees. D) river deltas. E) yazoo streams 29. ________ is the general term for unconsolidated clay, silt, sand, gravel, and mineral fragments deposited by running water. A) Alluvium B) Deposition C) Aggradation D) Degradation E) Fluvium 30. Base level refers to A) the amount of discharge in a particular reach of a stream. B) a level below which a stream cannot erode its valley. C) an evolutionary cycle of landscape development from fluvial action. D) the average height of a stream channel. E) the stream gradient. 31. The sediment load consisting of coarse material too large to remain in suspension, moving along the channel bottom via traction and saltation is the A) bed load. B) suspended load. C) dissolved load. D) flow load. E) free load. 32. Excess sediment may result in which of the following channel patterns? A) V-shaped valleys B) braided stream C) meandering stream D) straight, steep-walled channels E) deeply entrenched U-shaped valleys 33. A drainage divide that separates drainage basins that empty into different bodies of water surrounding a continent is known as A) a catchment. B) a delta. C) a continental divide. D) an interfluve.

E) a rill 34. A(n) ________ is a stream which maintains an equilibrium between the processes of erosion and deposition and, therefore degradation and aggradation. A) graded stream B) oxbow C) anabranching river D) meandering stream E) rill 35. When a river reaches a base level, its forward velocity rapidly decelerates as it enters a larger body of standing water and a (n) ________ is formed. A) estuary B) alluvial terrace C) delta D) stream terrace E) floodplain 36. Which of the following lists of processes are in the correct sequence as to their occurrence in nature? A) deposition, erosion, transport, weathering B) weathering, erosion, deposition, transport C) weathering, deposition, erosion, transport D) weathering, erosion, transport, deposition E) transport, deposition, erosion, weathering 37. A stream's volume of flow per unit of time is its A) speed. B) velocity. C) discharge. D) flow rate. E) base load. 38. The sediment load that travels in solution is A) bed load. B) suspended load. C) dissolved load. D) flow load. E) saltation. 39. Drainage basins are A) open systems. B) closed systems. C) equilibrium systems. D) open systems in terms of energy, closed systems in terms of matter. E) closed systems in terms of energy, open systems in terms of matter 40. Stream drainage patterns are determined by which of the following?

A) regional steepness and relief only B) variations in rock resistance only C) climate only D) landscape characteristics only E) climate, regional steepness and relief, landscape characteristics, and variations in rock resistance. 41. Erosion performed by flowing water alone is known as A) sheetflow. B) saltation. C) weathering. D) abrasion. E) hydraulic action. 42. The statistical rating of flood discharge is based on A) historical records of discharge during precipitation events. B) floodplain width. C) average channel depth. D) the rate of aggradation or degradation of a stream. E) proximity to streams. 43. Which of the following is incorrect regarding floodplains? A) They are formed by recurrent flooding in the area adjacent to the stream. B) Natural levees on either side of a stream are formed during times when the stream is at flood stage and overflows the bank. C) They are generally low-lying areas. D) Residual deposits from abandoned channels often result in meander scars in floodplains. E) They are characterized by rapids and low waterfalls. 44. Processes that are related expressly to streams and rivers are termed A) fluvial. B) geomorphic. C) lentic. D) lotic. E) riverine. 45. A graphic depiction of a streams gradient from its headwaters to mouth is called a(n) A) altimeter. B) Keeling curve. C) hydrograph. D) climograph. E) longitudinal profile. 46. Hydraulic action is highest A) near the surface in the middle of streams. B) in areas with low discharge. C) where flow is turbulent. D) within deep and wide channels. E) along slow moving currents.

47. A basin in which water leaves via evapotranspiration or subsurface gravitational flow instead of reaching the ocean is said to have A) disappearing streams. B) hydraulic action. C) base flow. D) deranged patterns. E) internal drainage. 48. Channels with gradual slopes often develop a sinuous form called a(n) ________ pattern. A) braided stream B) anabranching C) meandering stream D) straight E) exotic 49. A yazoo tributary stream cannot join with the main river in an area because A) the yazoo flows in a different valley. B) a small structural ridge separates the rivers. C) a natural levee on the main river prevents joining. D) a man-made flow control structure keeps the rivers separate. E) a large topographic barrier, such as a mesa, separates them. 50. An interruption in a stream's graded profile of equilibrium is called a A) gradation. B) longitudinal interruption. C) base level. D) cutbank. E) nickpoint. 51. A(n) ________ is a meander that becomes isolated from the rest of the river. A) oxbow lake B) undercut bank C) point bar D) cutoff E) cutbank 52. Which of the following is incorrectly matched? A) cutbank - at outer portion of a stream meander B) point bar - area of substantial erosion C) aggradation - sediment accumulation in the stream channel D) braided stream - maze of interconnected channels E) undercut bank - area of erosion 53. Bed load is moved by A) saltation only. B) traction only. C) suspension only. D) saltation, traction, and suspension. E) both saltation and traction, but not suspension.

54. The area of high ground that separates one valley from another and directs sheetflow is known as ________. A) the maximum contour elevation B) a drainage divide C) an interfluve D) the continental divide E) rill 55. Stream transport involves all of the following except A) saltation. B) bed load. C) traction. D) sheetflow. E) suspended load. 56. The sediment load consisting of fine-grained clastic particles held aloft in the stream is the A) bed load. B) suspended load. C) dissolved load. D) flow load. E) saltation.

Chapter 15 Questions: 57. The coarsest materials, such as gravel, of an alluvial fan are found A) near the mouth of the canyon. B) at the edge of the fan. C) throughout the whole fan. D) within a playa. E) at the base of the fan. 58. Dryland rugged terrain of slopes dissected by rills and gullies are known as A) qanats. B) arroyos. C) badlands. D) bajadas. E) playas. 59. A ________ forms when individual alluvial fans coalesce. A) star dune B) playa C) yardang D) desert pavement E) bajada

60.

________ dunes form with their tips pointing downwind, usually in areas with limited sand supply and little to no vegetation. A) Linear B) Barchan C) Longitudinal D) Transverse E) Parabolic 61. The Basin and Range Province in the western United States is an example of a ________ landscape. A) tensional B) reverse C) horst and graben D) compressional E) Great Plains 62. ________ are steep-sided landforms resulting from the weathering and mass wasting of mesas. A) Volcanic necks B) Badlands C) Dikes D) Plugs E) Buttes 63. The deflation hypothesis of desert pavement formation states A) wind removes fine particles leaving large pebbles, gravels, and rocks, which become consolidated. B) wind delivers fine particles that settle and wash downward as cycles of swelling and shrinking cause gravels to migrate upward. C) water removes fine particles leaving large pebbles, gravels, and rocks, which become consolidated. D) water delivers fine particles that settle and wash downward as cycles of swelling and shrinking cause gravels to migrate upward. E) both wind and water deliver fine particles that settle and wash downward as cycles of swelling and shrinking cause gravels to migrate upward.

64. ) Desert pavement refers to A) specially constructed roadbeds in dry and hot regions. B) surfaces of concentrated pebbles and gravels. C) deposits of silt and clay. D) sand-covered surfaces. E) any rock shaped by eolian erosion. 65. An extensive area of sand and sand dunes is known as a(n) A) reg desert. B) erg desert, or sand sea. C) lag desert. D) desert pavement. E) gibber plain. 66. The term "eolian" refers to A) stream-related processes. B) glacial processes in areas outside the polar regions. C) erosion, transportation, and deposition by the wind. D) weathering and mass movement in humid regions. E) coastal erosion and deposition. 67. ________ are flat-topped landforms with steep slopes resulting from differential weathering. A) Mesas B) Inselbergs C) Badlands D) Arroyos E) Alluvial fans 68. Windblown dust that accumulates into homogeneous deposits is known as A) gobi. B) deflation hollows. C) yardangs. D) desert pavement. E) loess. 69. ) ________ are flat-topped landforms with steep slopes resulting from differential weathering. A) Mesas B) Inselbergs C) Badlands D) Arroyos E) Alluvial fans 70. A ________ is a dry bed of an ephemeral lake a dryland region. A) star dune

B) playa. C) yardang D) desert pavement E) bajada 71. ) Relative to dune movement and form, a dune's slipface forms on which side? A) leeward side B) windward side C) freedune side D) direction opposite of dune movement E) It is not associated with a particular side. 72. The sliding and rolling along the ground of particles larger than 0.5 mm is known as A) deflation. B) abrasion. C) saltation. D) surface creep. E) traction. 73.

The term used to describe rocks that are pitted, fluted, or polished from eolian erosion is A) desert pavement. B) pumice. C) ventifacts. D) deflation hollows. E) dunes.

74.

Elongated, streamlined ridges aligned parallel to the most effective wind direction are called A) ventifacts. B) yardangs. C) desert pavements. D) alluvial rock structures. E) terraces. 75. “Ancient city in an Arid Land” where tourism is deteriorating sandstone structures: A) Jordan B) Lima C) London D) Luxemburg E) Petra...


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