Ch 3- Psychosocial Theories and Therapy-Test-Bank-Tank PDF

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Page 1 The nurse understands that crises are self-limiting. This implies that upon evaluation of crisis intervention, the nurse should assess for which outcome? A) The patient will identify possible causes for the crisis. B) The patient will discover a new sense of self-sufficiency in coping. C) The...

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1. The nurse understands that crises are self-limiting. This implies that upon evaluation of crisis intervention, the nurse should assess for which outcome? A) The patient will identify possible causes for the crisis. B) The patient will discover a new sense of self-sufficiency in coping. C) The patient will resume the precrisis level of functioning. D) The patient will express anger regarding the crisis event. Ans: C Feedback: Crises usually exist for 4 to 6 weeks. At the end of that time, the crisis is resolved in one of three ways. In the first two, the person either returns to his or her precrisis level of functioning or begins to function at a higher level; both are positive outcomes for the individual. The third resolution is that the person's functioning stabilizes at a level lower than precrisis functioning, which is a negative outcome for the individual. Assisting the person to use existing supports or helping the individual find new sources of support can decrease the feelings of being alone or overwhelmed. The patient may develop guilt if he or she examines possible causes for the crisis. Expression of anger at 4 to 6 weeks indicates a less than favorable outcome of crisis intervention.

2. A patient who has been working on controlling impulsive behavior shows a strengthening ego through which of the following behaviors? A) Going to therapy only when there is nothing more desirable to do B) Weighing the advantages and disadvantages before making a decision C) Telling others in the group the right way to act D) Reporting having fun at a recent social event Ans: B Feedback: The id is the part of one's nature that reflects basic or innate desires such as pleasureseeking behavior, aggression, and sexual impulses. The id seeks instant gratification, causes impulsive unthinking behavior, and has no regard for rules or social convention. The superego is the part of a person's nature that reflects moral and ethical concepts, values, and parental and social expectations; therefore, it is in direct opposition to the id. The third component, the ego, is the balancing or mediating force between the id and the superego. The ego represents mature and adaptive behavior that allows a person to function successfully in the world.

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3. A patient has just been told she has cervical cancer. When asked about how this is impacting her, she states, ìIt's just an infection; it will clear up.î The statement indicates that this patient A) needs education on cervical cancer. B) is unable to express her true emotions. C) should be immediately referred to a cancer support group. D) is using denial to protect herself from an emotionally painful thought. Ans: D Feedback: Ego defense mechanisms are methods of attempting to protect the self and cope with basic drives or emotionally painful thoughts, feelings, or events. Most defense mechanisms operate at the unconscious level of awareness, so people are not aware of what they are doing and often need help to see the reality. Education and referrals are premature at this point in the patient's ability to cope.

4. A teenage patient defies the nurse's repeated requests to turn off the video game and go to sleep. The teen says angrily, ìYou sound just like my mother at home!î and continues to play the video game. The nurse understands that this statement likely indicates A) the need of stricter discipline at home. B) early signs of oppositional defiant disorder. C) viewing the nurse as her mother. D) expression of developing autonomy. Ans: C Feedback: Transference occurs when the client displaces onto the therapist attitudes and feelings that the client originally experienced in other relationships. Transference patterns are automatic and unconscious in the therapeutic relationship. The occurrence of transference does not indicate ineffective parenting or disciplinary practices, nor is it indicative of a disorder. Autonomy is developed much earlier in the toddler years.

5. A patient reports a pattern of being suspicious and mistrusting of others, causing difficulty in sustaining lasting relationships. Which stage according to Erikson's psychosocial development was not successfully completed? A) Trust B) Autonomy C) Initiative D) Industry Ans: A Feedback: The formation of trust is essential: mistrust, the negative outcome of this stage, will impair the person's development throughout his or her life.

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6. The nurse has established a therapeutic relationship with a patient. The patient is beginning to share feelings openly with the nurse. The relationship has entered which phase according to Peplau's theory? A) Orientation B) Identification C) Exploitation D) Resolution Ans: B Feedback: The orientation phase is directed by the nurse and involves engaging the client in treatment, providing explanations and information, and answering questions. The identification phase begins when the client works interdependently with the nurse, expresses feelings, and begins to feel stronger. In the exploitation phase, the client makes full use of the services offered. In the resolution phase, the client no longer needs professional services and gives up dependent behavior and the relationship ends.

7. A nurse is meeting with a crisis support group. In efforts to help patients identify with one another, the nurse explains which of the following about the crisis experience? A) ìEven happy events can cause a crisis if the stress is overwhelming.î B) ìOnly people who have unfortunate life events will experience a crisis.î C) ìA person has no control over how a crisis will affect him or her.î D) ìPeople can prevent all crises if they develop good coping skills early.î Ans: A Feedback: Not all events that result in crisis are ìnegativeî in nature. Events like marriage, retirement, and childbirth are often desirable for the individual but may still present overwhelming challenges. All individuals can experience a crisis when they confront some life circumstance or stressor that they cannot effectively manage through use of their customary coping skills. A number of factors can influence how a person experiences a crisis.

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8. Which of the following theories could be classified as humanistic theories? Select all that apply. A) Cognitive therapy B) Maslow's hierarchy of needs C) Gestalt therapy D) Rogers' client-centered therapy E) Rational emotive therapy F) Piaget's cognitive stages of development Ans: B, D Feedback: Humanism represents a significant shift away from the psychoanalytic view of the individual as a neurotic, impulse-driven person with repressed psychic problems and away from the focus on and examination of the client's past experiences. Humanistic theories include Maslow's hierarchy of needs and Rogers' client-centered therapy. Cognitive therapy is an existential therapy that focuses on immediate thought processingóhow a person perceives or interprets his or her experience and determines how he or she feels and behaves. Gestalt therapy is an existential therapy that emphasizes the person's feelings and thoughts in the here and now. Rational emotive therapy is an existential theory that looks at irrational beliefs and automatic thoughts that make people unhappy. Piaget's cognitive stages of development is a developmental theory.

9. Which of the following are examples of adventitious crises? Select all that apply. A) Death of a loved one B) Natural disasters C) Violent crimes D) War E) Leaving home for the first time Ans: B, C, D Feedback: Adventitious crises include natural disasters like floods, earthquakes, or hurricanes; war, terrorist attacks; riots; and violent crimes such as rape or murder. Maturational or developmental crises are predictable events in the normal course of life, such as leaving home for the first time, getting married, having a baby, and beginning a career. Situational crises are unanticipated or sudden events that threaten the individual's integrity, such as the death of a loved one, loss of a job, and physical or emotional illness in the individual or family member.

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10. A nursing supervisor reprimands an employee for being chronically late for work. If the employee handles the reprimand using the defense mechanism of displacement, he would most likely do which of the following? A) Argue with the supervisor that he is usually on time B) Make a special effort to be on time tomorrow C) Tell fellow employees that the supervisor is picking on him D) Tell the unit housekeeper that his work is sloppy Ans: D Feedback: Displacement involves venting feelings toward another, less threatening person. Arguing is denial. Making a special effort is compensation. Telling fellow employees that the supervisor is picking on him is projection.

11. The nurse is assessing a client who is talking about her son's recent death but who shows no emotion of any kind. The nurse recognizes this behavior as which of the following defense mechanisms? A) Dissociation B) Displacement C) Intellectualization D) Suppression Ans: C Feedback: The client is aware of the facts of the situation but does not show the emotions associated with the situation. Dissociation involves dealing with emotional conflict by a temporary alteration in consciousness or identity. Displacement is the ventilation of intense feelings toward a person less threatening than the one who aroused those feelings. Suppression is replacing the desired gratification with one that is more readily available.

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12. A college student decides to go to a party the night before a major exam instead of studying. After receiving a low score on the exam, the student tells a fellow student, ìI have to work too much and don't have time to study. It wouldn't matter anyway because the teacher is so unreasonable.î The defense mechanisms the student is using are A) denial and displacement B) rationalization and projection C) reaction formation and resistance D) regression and compensation Ans: B Feedback: When stating that it wouldn't matter if the student studied, the student is using rationalization, which is excusing own behavior to avoid guilt, responsibility, conflict, anxiety, or loss of self-respect. When stating that the teacher is unreasonable, the student is using projection or the unconscious blaming of unacceptable inclinations or thoughts as an external object. Denial is the failure to acknowledge an unbearable condition. Displacement is the ventilation of intense feelings toward persons less threatening than the one who aroused those feelings. Reaction formation is acting the opposite of what one thinks or feels. Resistance is overt or covert antagonism toward remembering or processing anxiety-producing information. Regression is moving back to a previous developmental stage to feel safe or have needs met. Compensation is overachievement in one area to offset real or perceived deficiencies in another area.

13. A client is supposed to be ambulating ad lib. Instead, he refuses to get out of bed, asks for a bed bath, and makes many demands of the nurses. He also yells that they are lazy and incompetent. The client's behavior is an example of which of the following defense mechanisms? A) Introjection B) Projection C) Rationalization D) Reaction formation Ans: B Feedback: Projection is blaming unacceptable thoughts on others; the client cannot accept the fact that he may be lazy or incompetent to care for himself. Introjection is accepting another person's attitudes, beliefs, and values as one's own. Rationalization is excusing one's own behavior to avoid guilt, responsibility, conflict, anxiety, or loss of self-concept. Reaction formation is acting the opposite of what one thinks or feels.

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14. A client begins to take stock of his life and look into the future. The nurse assesses that this client is in which of Erikson's developmental stages? A) Identity versus role confusion B) Industry versus inferiority C) Integrity versus despair D) Generativity versus stagnation Ans: C Feedback: Erikson's stage of integrity versus despair is when an adult begins to reflect on his or her life. Identity versus role confusion occurs in adolescence when the person is forming a sense of self and belonging. Integrity versus despair occurs in maturity; accepting responsibility for oneself and life is the corresponding task. Generativity versus stagnation occurs in middle adulthood, which includes the tasks of being creative and productive and establishing the next generation.

15. A basic assumption of Freud's psychoanalytic theory is that A) all human behavior can be caused and can be explained. B) human behavior is entirely unconscious. C) free association is the key to understanding. D) sexuality does not relate to behavior. Ans: A Feedback: Freud believed that everything we do has meaning, whether it is conscious or unconscious. Freud believed that human behavior can be motivated by subconscious thoughts and feelings but could also be in the preconscious or unconscious. Freud based his theory of childhood development on the belief that sexual energy, termed libido, was the driving force of human behavior.

16. Which of the following is a major developmental task of middle adulthood? A) Developing intimacy B) Learning to manage conflict C) Reexamining life goals D) Resolving the past Ans: C Feedback: An important task for middle-aged adults is to examine life goals, ideally with some satisfaction. Developing intimacy occurs in young adulthood. Learning to manage conflict occurs in preschool. Resolving the past and accepting responsibility for oneself and life occur in maturity.

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17. Which cognitive mode, according to Harry Stack Sullivan, begins in early childhood as the child begins to connect experiences in sequence? A) Prototaxic mode B) Parataxic mode C) Bitaxic mode D) Syntaxic mode Ans: B Feedback: The parataxic mode begins in early childhood as the child begins to connect experiences in sequence. The child may not make logical sense of the experiences, although he or she may not understand what he or she is doing. The prototaxic mode involves brief, unconnected experiences that have no relationship to one another. In the syntaxic mode, the person begins to perceive himself or herself and the world within the context of the environment and can analyze experiences in a variety of settings. There is not a bitaxic mode.

18. Group members are actively discussing a common topic. Members are sharing that they identify with what others are saying. The nurse leader recognizes that the group is in which stage of group development? A) Planning B) Initial C) Working D) Termination Ans: C Feedback: The working stage of group development begins as members begin to focus their attention on the purpose or task the group is trying to accomplish. The beginning stage of group development, or the initial stage, commences as soon as the group begins to meet. Members introduce themselves, a leader can be selected, the group purpose is discussed, and rules and expectations for group participation are reviewed. The final stage, or termination, of the group occurs before the group disbands. The work of the group is reviewed, with the focus on group accomplishments or growth of group members.

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19. The family members of a patient with bipolar disorder express frustration with the unpredictable behaviors of their loved one. Which group should the nurse suggest as most helpful to this family? A) Family therapy group B) Family education group C) Psychotherapy group D) Self-help support group Ans: B Feedback: Family education discusses the clinical treatment of mental illnesses and teaches the knowledge and skills that family members need to cope more effectively. The goals of family therapy groups include understanding how family dynamics contribute to the client's psychopathology, mobilizing the family's inherent strengths and functional resources, restructuring maladaptive family behavioral styles, and strengthening family problem-solving behaviors. The goal of a psychotherapy group is for members to learn about their behavior and to make positive changes in their behavior by interacting and communicating with others. In a self-help group, members share a common experience, but the group is not a formal or structured therapy group.

20. A student nurse attends a self-help group as part of a class assignment. While there the student recognizes a family friend. Upon returning home, the student talks about the experience with the family. The student's actions can be described as A) appropriate; persons familiar with group members are allowed self-help group membership. B) appropriate; self-help groups are not professional and therefore are open to public knowledge. C) inappropriate; most self-help groups have a rule of confidentiality. D) inappropriate; the student should not have been allowed to attend the group. Ans: C Feedback: Most self-help groups have a rule of confidentiality: whoever is seen and whatever is said at the meetings cannot be divulged to others or discussed outside the group. In many 12-step programs, such as Alcoholics Anonymous and Gamblers Anonymous, people use only their first names, so their identities are not divulged (although in some settings, group members do know one another's names).

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21. The nurse would recommend individual therapy for the patient who expresses a desire to A) bring about personal changes. B) gain a sense of belonging. C) develop leadership skills. D) learn more about treatment. Ans: A Feedback: People generally seek individual psychotherapy based on their desire to understand themselves and their behavior, to make personal changes, to improve interpersonal relationships, or to get relief from emotional pain or unhappiness. Groups are recommended for persons to accomplish tasks that require cooperation, collaboration, or working together.

22. Which one of the following statements is most accurate regarding the cohesiveness of a group in group therapy? A) It is commonly present in the first meeting of the group. B) It is necessary for the group to have maximum cohesiveness, the more the better. C) Group cohesiveness is the degree to which members think alike and many things are left unspoken. D) Cohesiveness is a desirable group characteristic that is associated with positive group outcomes. Ans: D Feedback: Cohesiveness is a desirable group characteristic that is associated with positive group outcomes. It is not common for the group to be cohesive during the first meeting of the group. During the first meeting, or the initial stage, members introduce themselves and the parameters of the group are established. Group members begin to ìcheck outî one another and the leaders as they determine their levels of comfort in the group setting. Cohesiveness is associated with the working stage of a group that may take two or three sessions in a therapy group because members must develop some level of trust before sharing personal feelings or difficult situations. If a group is ìoverly cohesive,î in that uniformity and agreement become the group's implicit goals, there may be a negative effect on the group outcome as members may not offer needed feedback and this may thwart critical thinking and creative problem solving. Group cohesiveness is the degree to which members work together cooperatively to accomplish the purpose.

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23. Which one of the following is an important characteristic of an effective therapistñclient relationship in individual psychotherapy? A) Homogeneity between the client and the therapist. B) Mutual benefit for the client and the therapist. C) The client must adapt to the therapist's style of therapy...