Ch3 Review - Lecture notes 3 PDF

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Chapter 3: Assessment and Diagnosis Quiz 1 1. To compare the quality of different assessment tools, you compare their A) standardization B) reliability C) validity D) all of the above 2. When graduate schools choose students based on test scores, college grades, and relevant experience, they are engaging in: A) assessment. B) diagnosis. C) treatment. D) classification. 3. Another term for developing norms for an assessment tool is: A) reliability. B) face validity. C) predictive validity. D) standardization. 4. A new test for anxiety shows consistent levels of anxiety across time for people, but very few people have taken the test, and accurate norms don't exist. The test has: A) high reliability, but inadequate standardization. B) high reliability, and adequate standardization. C) low reliability, and inadequate standardization. D) low reliability, but adequate standardization. 5. A clinician has developed a new assessment tool. Clients write stories about their problems, then two different judges independently evaluate the stories in terms of how logically they are written. For this assessment technique to be useful, there must be: A) high interrater reliability. B) low observer reliability. C) high split-half reliability. D) low test-retest reliability. 6. Because people who are manic have very elevated moods, a new test for mania includes questions about how happy the person feels and how often he or she laughs. This test has: A) face validity. B) content validity. C) construct validity. D) concurrent validity. 7. A test is constructed to identify people who will develop schizophrenia. Of the 100 people the test identifies, 93 show signs of schizophrenia within five years. The test may be said to have high: A) internal reliability. B) predictive validity. C) concurrent validity. D) test-retest reliability.

8. If a new test for assessing anorectic tendencies produces scores comparable to those of other tests for assessing anorectic tendencies, then the new test has high: A) predictive validity. B) standardization criteria. C) concurrent validity. D) performance criteria. 9. A patient complains of a phobia. Two lines of questioning by the clinician concern the specific object of the phobia and what the person does when he or she confronts that object. This interview is probably: A) unstructured B) structured C) semi-structured D) observational 10. Dr. Martin has just asked a potential client to talk about herself. After she responds, the doctor's next question is based on some interesting point she brought up. There are few constraints on the conversation. Dr. Martin has just: A) used free association. B) conducted an unstructured interview. C) used a behavioral assessment technique. D) employed (Rogers's) nondirective therapy. 11. An interviewer who asks a client questions concerning their orientation, such as “Where are you now?” “Why do you think you're here?” or even “Who are you?” is probably conducting a(n): A) mental status exam. B) behavioral interview. C) sociocultural interview. D) intelligence test. 12. Which of the following is a reason to question the validity of clinical interviews? A) People respond differently to different interviewers. B) People may respond differently to clinicians who are not of their race. C) On different days, people might describe themselves differently. D) Clinicians might overemphasize pathology. 13. One limit of the clinical interview as an assessment tool is that: A) each client is different. B) the approach is too rigid. C) the client may give an overly positive picture. D) the clinician sees the client too infrequently. Quiz 2 14. Personality assessment using projective tests is designed to: A) perform a functional analysis of the client. B) learn about unconscious conflicts in the client. C) obtain detailed information about specific dysfunctional behaviors. D) obtain detailed information about specific dysfunctional cognitions.

15. The only test among the following that is not a projective test is the: A) Rorschach Test. B) Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory. C) Draw-a-Person Test. D) Thematic Apperception Test. 16. A patient looks at a series of black-and-white pictures, making up a dramatic story about each. The patient is taking: A) the Rorschach Test. B) the Thematic Apperception Test. C) the Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory. D) an affective inventory. 17. Use of projective tests has decreased in the past few decades because projective tests often have: A) interrater reliability that is too high. B) poor concurrent validity. C) rigid scoring standards. D) bias in favor of minority groups. 18. Which of the following tests is a personality inventory? A) Draw-a-Person B) MMPI-2 C) Rorschach Test D) Thematic perception 19. Youssef is the kind of person who breaks laws and rules with no feeling of guilt and is emotionally shallow. He would probably score high on the MMPI-2 scale called: A) paranoia. B) schizophrenia. C) psychasthenia. D) psychopathic deviate. 20. The test that reports one's results on clinical scales such as “hypochondriasis” (HS) and “Psychopathic deviate” (PD) is the: A) Sentence-Completion Test. B) Thematic Apperception Test. C) Bender Visual-Motor Gestalt Test. D) Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory. 21. Jack produces a score of 55 on the MMPI-2's depression scale. This means A) Jack is experiencing severe symptoms of depression B) His depression is in the abnormal range but how severe is unkown C) His score is in the average range D) Jack's score is unusually low - well below average. 22. The MMPI-2 provides three validity scales (L,F,K) and ten clinical scales such as "Depression" "Hypochondriasis" (HS) and "Psychopathic deviate" (PD) . If the "K" validy scale was 75 this would mean the MMPI-2 results are: A) minimally defensive. B) valid. C) being faked to make a good impression and are invalid. D) very defensive and invalid.

23. The MMPI-2 is considered by many to be superior to the original MMPI because the MMPI-2: A) was tested on a more diverse group of people. B) produces results that are not comparable to the results of the original MMPI. C) has fewer items. D) produces only one score. 24. George is consumed with concern that his house will burn down. Before he leaves, he makes sure that all his appliances are unplugged. He often has to go back home and check to make sure he did not leave any plugged in. Which MMPI-2 scale would he most likely score high on? A) schizophrenia B) psychasthenia C) social introversion D) psychopathic deviate 25. Compared to projective tests, personality inventories generally have: A) greater reliability and greater validity. B) greater reliability and poorer validity. C) poorer reliability but greater validity. D) poorer reliability and poorer validity. 26. The test with the highest validity in identifying psychological disturbances is the: A) Thematic Apperception Test. B) Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Test. C) Rorschach Test. D) Draw-a-Person Test. Quiz 3 27. If a clinician wanted to know more detailed information about a person's functioning in a specific area, the clinician would use: A) a response inventory. B) a validity assessment. C) a measure of reliability. D) standardization. 28. An example of a reasonably reliable, valid response inventory is the: A) Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory. B) Rorschach Inkblot Test. C) Beck Depression Inventory. D) Draw-a-Person Test. 29. If your friend had her brain waves recorded in order to measure electrical activity, she most likely had a(n): A) PET scan. B) MRI. C) CAT scan. D) EEG. 30. The assessment instrument most likely to be used to detect subtle brain abnormalities is the: A) neuropsychological test. B) intelligence test. C) psychophysiological test. D) projective test.

31. The technique that uses X-rays of the brain taken at different angles to create a static picture of the structure of the brain is called: A) electroencephalography. B) magnetic resonance imaging. C) position emission tomography. D) computerized axial tomography. 32. If it were necessary to get the clearest and most accurate picture of the physical anatomy of the brain in order to aid in the diagnosis of a psychological disorder, the method of choice would be: A) MMPI-2. B) MRI. C) DAP. D) PET. 33. Which of the following is not a form of neuroimaging? A) MRI B) CAT scan C) GSR D) PET 34. Which of the following is most likely to be used to assess psychological impairment following neurological damage? A) the MMPI-2 B) Bender-Gestalt C) magnetic resonance imagery (MRI) D) the response inventory 35. Joan has a diagnosis of major depression. If we wanted to use an neurological test to get the most detailed measure of brain activity when Joan experiences severe symptoms we would use: A) EEG B) MRI C) PET scan D) URI scan 36. An 18-year-old completing a neuropsychological test has difficulty remembering and drawing some designs. This person is performing at: A) an average level on the Bender-Gestalt. B) a poorer-than-average level on the Bender-Gestalt. C) an average level on the Halstead-Reitan Neuropsychology Battery. D) a poorer-than-average level on the Halstead-Reitan Neuropsychology Battery. 37. A clinical diagnostician is dissatisfied with tests that cannot specify the type of brain damage or brain impairment clients have. Your best suggestion for that diagnostician would be to use: A) the Bender-Gestalt test. B) the Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale. C) the Beck Inventory. D) a battery of neuropsychological tests.

38. If 100 people produce abnormal scores on the Bender Visual Motor Gesalt Test, what percent will actually be shown to have brain damage? A) 25 B) 50 C) 75 D) 100 39. Binet and Simon are know for their work in creating a(n): A) projective test. B) personality inventory. C) intelligence test. D) brain scan. 40. Which category of clinical tests tends to have the best standardization, reliability, and validity? A) projective tests B) intelligence tests C) response inventories D) neuropsychological tests 41. The most legitimate criticism of intelligence tests concerns their: A) validity. B) cultural fairness. C) reliability. D) standardization. 42. The WAIS provides an IQ for overall functioning, an IQ for nonverbal (performance) functioning, and A) a memory IQ B) a verbal IQ C) a reasoning IQ D) a speed of processing IQ Quiz 4 43. A therapist's preferred method of assessing abnormal behavior is to watch clients in their everyday environments and record their activities and behaviors. This approach is known as: A) self-monitoring. B) battery observation. C) structured observation. D) naturalistic observation. 44. A clinician who is using naturalistic observation would be most likely to do which of the following? A) observe parent-child interactions in an office setting B) observe parent child interactions in the family's home C) have a parent self-monitor family interactions in an office setting D) have a parent self-monitor family interactions at home 45. One way a clinician might try to reduce observer drift would be to: A) increase the number of different behaviors being monitored. B) try to focus on different aspects of one behavior being monitored. C) decrease the lengths of the observation periods. D) try not to learn too much about a client before making observations.

46. A client reports having infrequent, but extremely disturbing, tactile hallucinations. The most useful of the following ways to gather information about this person would involve: A) self-monitoring. B) naturalistic observations. C) structured observations. D) a neuropsychological battery. 47. While someone is watching, Jennifer actually eats fewer sweets than usual. This tendency to decrease a behavior while being observed is an example of: A) reactivity. B) observer bias. C) observer drift. D) poor reliability. 48. An adult frequently displays symptoms of depression at home, but seldom does so at work. In this case, clinical observations of this person at home would lack: A) observer bias. B) observer drift. C) structure. D) cross-situational validity. 49. The term used to refer to a psychologist's comprehensive view of the causes and stimuli sustaining a person's abnormal behavior is: A) a model. B) a diagnosis. C) an interpretation. D) the clinical picture. 50. Deciding that a client's psychological problems represent a particular disorder is called: A) psychotherapy. B) assessment. C) diagnosis. D) triage. 51. Symptoms such as sadness, loss of appetite, and low energy cluster together to form a: A) treatment. B) classification system. C) syndrome. D) medical condition. 52. The Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (presently DSM-5) was developed by: A) the American Psychoanalytic Association. B) the American Psychiatric Association. C) the American Psychological Association. D) the American Phrenological Association. 53. DSM-5 is the classification system for abnormal behaviors that is: A) used by the World Health Organization. B) most widely used in the United States. C) used for medical disorders. D) used exclusively for children.

54. The biggest social threat to the use of comprehensive assessment techniques today is: A) concern about the cultural bias in tests. B) concern about the gender bias in tests. C) concern about low reliability and validity. D) concern about cost—expressed by managed care companies.

Answer Key - Ch3 Review Quiz Abn 2019 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20. 21. 22. 23. 24. 25. 26. 27. 28. 29. 30. 31. 32. 33. 34. 35. 36. 37. 38. 39. 40. 41. 42. 43. 44. 45. 46.

D A D A A A B C B B A D C B B B B B D D C D A B A B A C D A D B C B C B D C C B B B D B C A

47. 48. 49. 50. 51. 52. 53. 54.

A D D C C B B D...