Chap008 Testbank PDF

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Psychological Testing and Assessment Testbank...

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Chapter 08 - Test Development

Chapter 08 Test Development

Multiple Choice Questions 1. Human asexuality is generally defined as A. the absence of sexual attraction to anything at all. B. a sexual attraction only to other asexual people. C. an unwillingness or inability to experience sexual arousal. D. the absence of sexual attraction to anyone at all.

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2. Estimates suggest that approximately __% of the population might be asexual. A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4

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3. The concept of asexuality was first introduced by A. William Masters. B. Alfred Kinsey. C. Virginia Johnson. D. William Masters and Virginia Johnson.

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Chapter 08 - Test Development

4. Asexuality A. is a sexual orientation. B. is not a sexual orientation. C. is considered by some to be a sexual orientation and by others not. D. was de-listed as a sexual orientation in DSM-5.

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5. It is an online community of asexual individuals which has become a source of recruitment of subjects for asexuality research. It is called the A. Asexuality and Visibility Education Network. B. Friends of Asexuality. C. League of Asexual and Non-Sexual Individuals. D. American Society of Affiliated Individuals for Asexuality.

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6. A disadvantage of recruiting asexual research subjects from a single online community is that A. the persons belonging to the online community may constitute a unique group within the asexual population. B. the persons belonging to the online community have already acknowledged their asexuality as an identity. C. asexual individuals who do not belong to the community will be systematically omitted. D. All of these.

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Chapter 08 - Test Development

7. In response to the need for an instrument to help identify individuals who have experienced a lifelong lack of sexual attraction, but who have never heard the term "asexual," Yule et al. (2015) developed a test called the A. Asexuality Evaluation Schedule. B. Asexuality Identification Scale. C. Asexual Research Subject Selector. D. None of these

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8. Many asexual individuals refer to themselves as A. "selfies". B. "ace". C. "lone rangers". D. "gender-neutral".

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9. The test of asexuality developed by Yule et al. (2015) contains ___ items. A. 12 B. 18 C. 36 D. 48

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10. Brotto and Yule reported that the development of their measure of asexuality was developed in four stages. Which best characterizes Stage 1? A. literature search for definitions of asexuality B. development of open-ended questions C. literature search for correlates of asexuality D. writing and submission of a research grant request

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Chapter 08 - Test Development

11. Brotto and Yule reported that the development of their measure of asexuality was developed in four stages. Which best characterizes what they did during Stages 2 and 3? A. analysis of variance B. regression analysis C. factor analysis D. meta-analysis

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12. In the course of developing their asexuality measure, Brotto and Yule were able to identify about ____% of self-identified asexual individuals. A. 88 B. 93 C. 94 D. 97

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13. In order to determine whether their new measure of asexuality was useful over and above already-available measures of sexual orientation, Brotto and Yule compared it to a previously established measure of sexual orientation called the A. Sexual Desire Inventory. B. Solitary Desire subscale of the Sexual Desire Inventory. C. Abernathy Measure of Sexual Orientation. D. Klein Scale.

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14. Brotto and Yule established the discriminant validity of their measure of asexuality by comparing scores on it with scores on A. the Childhood Trauma Questionnaire. B. the Short-Form Inventory of Interpersonal Problems-Circumplex scales. C. the Big-Five Inventory. D. All of these

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Chapter 08 - Test Development

15. According to Brotto and Yule, their new measure of asexuality performed satisfactorily on A. a measure of incremental validity. B. a measure of convergent validity. C. a measure of discriminant validity. D. All of these

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16. Brotto and Yule expressed their belief that their new measure of asexuality A. does not depend on one's self-identification as asexual. B. is not capable of identifying the individual who exhibits characteristics of a lifelong lack of sexual attraction in the absence of personal distress. C. should be used with caution as a tool of recruitment with members of the asexuality population. D. All of these

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17. An analysis of a test's item may take many forms. Thinking of the descriptions cited in your text, which is NOT one of those forms? A. item validity analysis B. item discrimination analysis C. item tryout analysis D. item reliability analysis

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18. As illustrated in the sample item-characteristic curve published in your textbook, the vertical axis on the graph lists the A. values of the score on the test ranging from 0 to 100. B. values of the characteristic of the items on a scale of 1 to 10. C. heteroscedasity of the item curve in values ranging from 0 to infinity. D. probability of correct response in values ranging from 0 to 1.

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Chapter 08 - Test Development

19. Which statement is TRUE regarding test development and testtaker guessing? A. Methods have been designed to detect guessing. B. Methods have been designed to statistically correct for guessing. C. Methods have been designed to minimize the effects of guessing. D. All of these

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20. Item banks A. were once a profit center for the Wells Fargo Company. B. originated as a result of investments made by Morgan-Stanley. C. originated as a result of investments made by Morgan Freeman. D. None of these

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21. An item bank is A. a computerized system whereby test items "pay dividends" only when used. B. the optimum combination of reliability and validity in an item. C. a set of items from which a test can be constructed. D. a statistical "IRA" for data relating to high and low scorers on a test.

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22. Item branching refers to A. administering certain test items on a test depending on the testtakers' responses to previous test items. B. the creation of alternate and parallel forms of tests based on a group of testtakers' responses to the original test. C. statistical efforts to ensure that items translated into foreign languages are of the same difficulty. D. re-using items in an original test that were originally developed for use in a parallel test.

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Chapter 08 - Test Development

23. An anchor protocol is A. a previously developed test with known validity that can be used as a comparison for newly developed tests. B. a statistical procedure in which weights are assigned to each item of a model test to maximize predictive validity. C. a list of guidelines for a standardized test used to ensure that all testtakers are similar in key ways to the population of the original standardization sample. D. a model for scoring and a mechanism for resolving scoring discrepancies.

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24. Scoring drift refers to A. the tendency of scorers to give higher scores to testtakers with certain characteristics (such as age and gender) that is similar to themselves. B. differences between the typical scoring of an item during standardization and subsequent, more authoritative scoring of an item. C. a gradual decline in inter-scorer reliability after 95% of the examinations have been scored due to scorer fatigue. D. a flexible method of scoring test items for populations other than that of the standardization sample.

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25. Item analysis is conducted to evaluate A. item reliability. B. item validity. C. item difficulty. D. All of these

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Chapter 08 - Test Development

26. The idea for a new test may come from A. social need. B. review of the available literature. C. common sense appeal. D. All of these

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27. According to the text, which statement is TRUE of scaling? A. There is only one best approach to scaling and only one best type of scale. B. Ratio scaling leads to the least scoring drift. C. Ratio scaling was first developed in the Republic of Samoa. D. None of these

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28. Guttman scales A. are typically used with nominal categories. B. typically are constructed so that agreement with one statement may predict agreement with another statement. C. typically are constructed so that agreement with one statement should not be correlated with agreement with any other statement. D. were originally developed by a Peace Corps task force.

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29. Sorting techniques can be employed to develop A. nominal scales. B. ordinal scales. C. interval scales. D. All of these

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Chapter 08 - Test Development

30. Test items that contain alternatives with five points ranging from "strongly agree" to "strongly disagree" are characterized as using this approach to scaling: A. Guttman scaling. B. Likert scaling. C. Nielson scaling. D. Opinion scaling.

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31. Ideally, the first draft of a test should include at least how many items as compared with the final version of the test? A. about twice the number of the final version B. about half the number of the final version C. about three times the number of the final version D. roughly the same number as the final version

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32. The elements of a multiple-choice item include A. a stem. B. a distractor. C. a foil. D. All of these

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33. Which is an example of the selected-response item format? A. a multiple-choice item B. a fill-in-the-blank item C. Both a multiple-choice item and a fill-in-the-blank item D. None of these

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Chapter 08 - Test Development

34. A well-written true-false item A. includes multiple ideas. B. has a correct response that is either true or false, and not subject to debate. C. typically contains irrelevant information as a distracter. D. Both includes multiple ideas and has a correct response that is either true or false, and not subject to debate.

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35. Multiple-choice items draw primarily on which testtaker ability? A. recognition. B. organization. C. planning. D. perceptual-motor skills.

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36. An example of a selected-response type of item is A. a multiple-choice item. B. an essay item. C. a matching item. D. Both a multiple-choice item and a matching item.

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37. With regard to the test tryout phase of test development, A. test conditions should be as similar to the actual administration as possible. B. at least 500 subjects should be included to ensure accurate results. C. the sample used must be nationally representative. D. All of these

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Chapter 08 - Test Development

38. According to your textbook, the minimum sample for a test tryout is A. one-half of the number of testtakers in the standardization sample. B. 25 testtakers. C. 50 testtakers. D. 500 testtakers.

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39. An ADVANTAGE of applying item response theory (IRT) in test development is that A. the principles underlying IRT make its application easy and appealing. B. sample sizes used to test the utility of test items can be relatively small. C. assumptions underlying IRT usage are weak. D. item statistics are independent of the samples administered the test.

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40. If 100 people take a test and 20 of those testtakers answer a particular item correctly, then the p value of the item is A. .25. B. .20. C. .40. D. .04.

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41. Which statement best describes the relationship between item difficulty and a "good" item? A. The difficulty level is not a factor in determining a "good" item. B. An item with a high difficulty level is likely to be "good." C. An item with a mid-range difficulty level is likely to be "good." D. An item with a low difficulty level is likely to be "good."

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Chapter 08 - Test Development

42. An item-difficulty index can range from A. 0 to 1. B. .10 to .99. C. .25 to .75. D. 0 to 100.

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43. An item-difficulty index of 1 occurs when A. all examinees answer the item incorrectly. B. all examinees answer the item correctly. C. examinees are evenly divided between correct and incorrect responses. D. None of these

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44. The higher the item-difficulty index, the ________ the item. A. easier B. harder C. more robust D. less robust

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45. An item-endorsement index is most likely to be used in which type of test? A. a cognitive test B. an achievement test C. a vocational aptitude test D. a personality test

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Chapter 08 - Test Development

46. In item analysis, the term item endorsement refers to the percent of testtakers who A. responded correctly to a particular item. B. indicate that they agree with a particular item. C. passed the item on a pass/fail test of ability. D. consented to answer an optional item.

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47. The item-validity index is key in determining A. construct validity. B. criterion-related validity. C. content validity. D. All of these

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48. It is needed to calculate the item-validity index. It is A. the point-biserial correlation between the item score and the criterion score. B. the mean of the item-score distribution. C. the item-score standard deviation. D. All of these

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49. An item-reliability index provides a measure of a test's A. test-retest reliability. B. internal consistency. C. stability. D. All of these

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Chapter 08 - Test Development

50. To calculate an item-reliability index, one must have previously calculated A. the correlation between the item score and the criterion. B. the correlation between the item score and the total score. C. the item-score standard deviation. D. All of these

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51. What is the optimal item-difficulty level for a true-false item? A. .500 B. .625 C. .755 D. 1.000

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52. An item-discrimination index typically compares A. high scorers' performances with low scorers' performances on a particular item. B. medium scorers' performances with low and high scorers' performances on a particular item. C. low scorers' performances with lower scorers' performances on a particular item. D. one group of scorers' performances on the item with any other groups of scorers' performances on the same item.

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53. Which statement is TRUE regarding an item-discrimination index? A. It has been used by e-Harmony.com and other dating sites for matchmaking. B. There is more than one formula for calculating an item-discrimination index. C. Tetrachoric correlation is most frequently used in any formula for an item-discrimination index. D. All of these.

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Chapter 08 - Test Development

54. As a distribution of scores gets flatter, what happens to the optimal boundary line for determining higher- and lower-scoring groups for item-discrimination indices? A. the optimal boundary line gets smaller B. the optimal boundary line gets larger C. the optimal boundary line does not change D. the optimal boundary line ceases to be optimal

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55. The greater the magnitude of the item-discrimination index, the more testtakers in the higher-scoring group answered the item correctly, as compared to testtakers A. who served as the non-test-taking control group. B. in the lower-scoring group. C. who pa...