EXAM 19 January 2018, questions PDF

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Human Anatomy and Physiology ...

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Department of Biomedical Sciences

Module: Module Code:

Human Physiology 4HYM001W

Module Leader: Bradley Elliott Date: Start: Time allowed: 1.5 hours Instructions for Candidates: You are advised (but not required) to spend the first ten minutes of the examination reading the questions and planning how you will answer those you have selected Part A is worth 40 marks. It contains 40 multiple choice questions, each of which has only one correct answer and each of which is worth 1 mark. You must give your answer on the included multiple choice answer sheet. Part B is worth 60 marks. It contains three essay questions. You should answer one of these three. You must give your answer on the included answer booklet.

This is a PAST EXAM, from the 2016 / 2017 academic year. Some topics have changed, thus I’ve highlighted some MCQ’s below that are from outside this year’s material.

DO NOT TURN OVER THIS PAGE UNTIL THE INVIGILATOR INSTRUCTS YOU TO DO SO

© UNIVERSITY OF WESTMINSTER, 2016

FACULTY OF SCIENCE & TECHNOLOGY Module: Human Physiology Module Code: 4HYM001W Date: [Please Type Here]

Part 1 – Multiple Choice Questions Answer all of the following questions on the attached Multiple choice answer sheet. Each question has only one correct answer. 1) Which of the following is an example of a positive feedback cycle? a. An increase in blood pH results in increased ventilation which decreases blood pH b. A decrease in core body temperature results in a shivering response which increases core body temperature c. A decrease in blood oxygen pressure results in an increase in ventilation which increases blood oxygen pressure d. An increase in blood pressure results in vascular dilation to decrease blood pressure e. An increase in uterine contraction pushes a baby against the cervix, resulting in oxytocin release which increases uterine contraction

2) The living human is defined by all of the following except a. Metabolism b. Growth c. Responsiveness d. Clonal replication e. Movement

3) Which of the following is a plasma membrane most permeable to? a. Glucose b. Sodium c. Potassium d. Oxygen e. Lipid insoluble hormones

4) A trans-membrane protein whose primary role is to actively transport substances across a plasma membrane to which it is normally impermeable is a: a. Receptor protein b. Ion channel c. Carrier protein d. Linking protein e. Peripheral enzyme protein

5) A simple squamous epithelial cell type is best described as: a. Flattened cells which are arranged in multiple layers b. Tall, thin cells which are arranged in a single layer c. Box shaped cells which are arranged in multiple layers d. Flattened cells which are arrange in a single layer e. Tall, thin cells which are arranged in multiple layers

6) Which of the following statements is incorrect? a. Pseudostratified cells appear to have multiple layers, but are in fact single layered b. Transitional epithelium change shape to allow structures such as the urinary bladder to distend and collapse c. Keratinized stratified squamous epithelium is adapted for absorption d. Ciliated simple columnar epithelium moves mucus by ciliary action e. None of these statements is incorrect

7) Within an excitable tissue such as a neuron, which of the following statements is most correct? a. The concentration of sodium within a resting cell is higher inside relative to the outside of a cell b. The movement of sodium into a cell is governed by active transporters c. Ionic charge at rest is higher outside the cell relative to inside d. The repolarisation of EM after an action potential relies on facilitated diffusion of sodium and potassium e. Facilitated diffusion is necessary for movement of sodium, but not potassium, during the normal action potential

8) The relative refractory period during an action potential is caused by: a. Overshoot of voltage-gated sodium channels b. Overshoot of voltage-gated potassium channels c. Sodium channels which are temporary inactive due to a prior action potential d. Myelination of axonal diameter e. A sub-threshold stimulation

9) Which of the following is not a function of skeletal muscle? a. Excitable b. Contractile c. Autorhythmic d. Extensible e. Elastic

10) For a sarcomere to produce force via the cross-bridge cycle, what ion needs to bind troponin? a. Calcium b. Potassium c. Sodium d. Lithium e. Hydrogen

11) Autorhythmic fibres of the heart are: a. Self-excitable b. Capable of acting as pacemakers c. Form a conduction network of the heart d. Contain gap junctions e. All of the above are correct

12) Which of the following questions are incorrect? a. Cardiac muscle fibres are shorter in length than skeletal muscle fibres b. Skeletal muscle fibres are more branched than cardiac muscle fibres c. Cardiac muscle fibres are connected by intercalated disks d. Cardiac muscle cells contain desmosomes between cells e. Cardiac syncytium allows coordinated cardiac cell contraction

13) Blood plasma consists of: a. Approximately 80 % plasma proteins (primarily albumin) b. Approximately 90 % water c. Approximately 20 % solutes (nutrients and waste products) d. Approximately 45 % red blood cells e. None of the above is correct

14) Which of the following influences cardiac output? a. Force of contraction b. Venous return c. Heart rate d. Sympathetic drive e. All of the above

15) During isovolumetric contraction, which of the following statements is correct? a. Atrial-ventricular valves are open and blood flows from the atria to the ventricles b. Atrial-ventricular valves are closed and blood flows from the ventricles to the departing arteries c. Atrial-ventricular valves are closed but no blood leaves the ventricles d. Atrial-ventricular valves are open but no blood enters the ventricles e. Atrial-ventricular valves are open and blood flows from the ventricles to the atria

16) If alveolar pressure is 764 mmHg, intrapleural pressure is most likely what? a. 660 mmHg b. 758 mmHg c. 760 mmHg d. 764 mmHg e. 780 mmHg

17) The absorption of oxygen from alveolar air to pulmonary capillaries is best described by: a. Boyle’s law b. Charles’ law c. Henry’s law d. Dalton’s law e. Gay-Lussac’s Law

18) All of the following are examples of the actions of the sympathetic nervous system except: a. Increased heart rate b. Pupil constriction c. Elevated blood pressure d. Increased ventilation rate e. Reduced splanchnic blood flow

19) What type of receptors do postganglionic sympathetic neurons have? a. Adrenergic only b. Nicotinic cholinergic only c. Muscarinic cholinergic only d. Nicotinic and muscarinic only e. All of the above

20) Cardinal signs of inflammation include all of the following except: a. Heat - Calor b. Numbness - Torpor c. Redness - Rubor d. Swelling – Tumour e. Loss of function – Functio laesa

21) The innate immune system differs from acquired in that a. The innate contains physical barriers b. The innate system is more rapid in response c. The innate response is non-specific d. The innate response doesn’t necessarily rely on specific pathogen recognition e. All of the above is correct

22) How do antigens arrive at lymphatic tissue? a. Antigen presenting cells ingest exogenous antigens on the cell surface. They then migrate via lymphatic vessels to lymph nodes b. Antigen processing cells bind and carry antigens to lymph nodes to be processed c. Lymphocytes bind and carry antigens to lymph nodes for processing d. Antigen processing cells bind and destroy antigens before carrying them to lymph nodes e. Antigens migrate to the lymph nodes via chemotaxis where they are recognised by antigen presenting cells

23) Humoral mediated immunity is correctly described as: a. A T cell governed response b. Part of the adaptive immune system only c. Using neutrophils and antigen presenting cells d. Part of the innate and adaptive systems e. The collective term for barrier methods of immunity

24) Tubular reabsorption: a. Returns water, glucose, electrolytes and amino acids to the blood b. Uses both active and passive transport c. Is selective in the proximal convoluted tubule d. A., b., and c are correct e. A. and b. are correct only

25) Normal renal function includes all of the following except: a. Removal of metabolic waste products b. Regulation of blood plasma volume c. Regulation of blood salts concentration d. Removal of old red blood cells e. Regulation of blood pH

26) The greatest contributor to physiological buffering is the: a. Bicarbonate buffer mechanism b. Hydrogen phosphate buffer mechanism c. Protein and haemoglobin buffer mechanism d. Urine phosphate buffer mechanism e. Oxygen buffering mechanism

27) If arterial blood pH is 7.4, what is venous most likely? a. 6.5 b. 7.0 c. 7.35 d. 7.4 e. 7.45

28) Lipid soluble hormones are characterised by: a. The ability to diffuse through plasma membranes b. Being made of proteins or peptides c. Requiring transmembrane proteins on the exterior of a cell d. Relying on cyclic AMP to signal activity e. First and second messenger activity

29) Which of the following hormone interactions is mismatched? a. Effects of adrenaline in stimulating lipolysis is increased when small amounts of thyroid hormones are present – Permissive effect b. Two hormones acting together exert a greater effect than either acting alone – Synergistic effect c. Insulin promotes synthesis of glycogen by liver cells while glucagon stimulates glycogen breakdown in the liver – Antagonistic effect d. Development of oocytes in ovaries requires both follicle stimulating hormone and oestrogen – Permissive effect e. All the above are correctly matched

30) All of the following are an action of Insulin except: a. Promotion of GLUT4 translocation to the plasma membrane b. Acceleration of diffusion of glucose into cells c. Affecting speed of the conversion of glucose into glycogen d. Reducing the rate of protein synthesis within cells e. Affecting speed of the synthesis of fatty acids

31) The sensation of pain is transmitted via: a. Photoreceptors b. Chemoreceptors c. Osmoreceptors d. Mechanoreceptors e. Nociceptors

32) The role of a muscle spindle is to: a. Sense the heat of muscle b. Sense the oxygen content of a muscle c. Sense the tension of a muscle d. Sense the length of a muscle e. Sense the movement of a muscle

33) Mechanical deformation of stereocilia hair cells is necessary for which sensation? a. Vision b. Hearing c. Touch d. Heat e. Taste

34) The zone of highest visual acuity of the eye is the: a. Pupil b. Fovea c. Optic disk d. Cornea e. Zonule of Zinn

35) Gastric motility of the stomach is a function of the: a. Muscularis b. G cells c. Parietal cells d. Hydrochloric acid e. Serosa

36) Hydrochloric acid within the stomach is secreted by the: a. Surface mucus cells b. Chief cells c. Parietal cells d. Queen cells e. G-Cells

37) Functions of the liver include all of the following except: a. Bile secretion b. Breakdown of glycogen to glucose to maintain blood glucose levels c. Triglyceride storage and lipid metabolism d. Urea (CO(NH2)2) conversion to ammonia (NH3) e. Drug and hormone removal and excretion into bile

38) The largest proportion of blood supplied to the liver is via the: a. Hepatic artery proper b. Hepatic vein c. Hepatic portal vein d. Hepatic portal artery e. Renal vein

39) Sperm cell flagellae are necessary for motility a. Within the male reproductive system only b. Within the testes, but not spermatic cord c. Within the spermatic cord, but not testes d. Both pre- and post-ejaculation e. Post ejaculation only

40) Prenatal sex organ development (phenotypic sexual differentiation) occurs: a. On conception b. Day 3 – 5 post conception c. Week 7 (day 49 – 50) d. Week 10 (day 70 – 72) e. Week 14 (day 98 – 100)

Part 2 – Essay Question Choose one of the following three essay questions to answer in the attached answer booklet. Your answer must be in continuous prose, and may use small diagrams to further your point. If more than one question is answered, only one will be marked.

2.1 “The control of blood pH is maintained by multiple organ systems and mechanisms”. Give evidence in support of this statement, including a description of how blood pH is controlled.

2.2 “The neurological and endocrine systems are both important for extracellular communication”. Compare and contrast the mechanism and communication characteristics of each system, describing their similarities and differences.

2.3 “The structure of each of the four major tissue types (epithelial, connective, nervous and muscular) directly relates to its function”. Support this statement by comparing the structure and function of each of the four tissues types....