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1. Immediate post birth management of the neonate involves: a) Drying, stimulation and placing on the mother for warmth b) Placing the baby under/near a radiant heat source c) Routine suctioning of the airway d) Positive pressure ventilation to start it breathing 2. A side effect of too-rapid administration of magnesium sulphate is: a) Hypotension b) Cardiac arrest c) Respiratory depression d) All of these selections 3. The most effective management for eclamptic seizures is: a) Administration of calcium gluconate b) Administration of normal saline c) Administration of magnesium sulphate d) Administration of midazolam 4. You are managing a 20myear old female patient, 36/40 gestation with severe PV bleeding, haemodynamically unstable but with no abdominal pain. She is most likely suffering from: a) Placental abruption b) Vasa previa c) Placenta accreta d) Placenta previa 5. Which of the following is NOT a complication of multiple pregnancies? a) Cord prolapse or entanglement b) Polyhydramnios c) Macrosomiab (multiple pregnancies causes low birth rate) d) Increased risk of post-partum haemorrhage 6. Which of the following most significantly increases the risk of ectopic pregnancy? a) Pelvic inflammatory disease b) Diabetes c) Pre-eclampsia d) Hypertension 7. Eclampsia is defined as: a) Severe hypertension during pregnancy b) Seizure activity superimposed on pre-eclampsia c) Hypertensive crisis resulting in cerebral haemorrhage in pregnancy d) None of these selections 8. Which of the following is not a form of haemorrhage control for post-partum haemorrhage? a) Bimanual compression b) Administer IV fluids to maintain perfusion c) Encouraging the neonate to suckle d) Massaging the fundus

9. Causative factors of ovarian torsion may include: a) Pregnancy b) Ovarian cysts c) Uterine/ovarian tumours d) All of these selections 10. Which of the following is not a common complication of Pelvic Inflammatory Disease? a) Chronic pelvic pain b) Endometriosis c) Infertility d) Increased risk of ectopic pregnancy 11. Which of the following statements is true regarding cultural considerations when conducting obstetric history taking and physical examination? a) Paramedics should gain consent from the patient and or their family in some circumstances to conduct an assessment. Where possible a female paramedic may need to perform this. b) Paramedic gender considerations should not have to be taken into consideration when treating patients from diverse backgrounds as we have limited resources. c) Only female paramedics should conduct obstetric and gynaecological physical examination and history taking to preserve the patient’s dignity. d) Paramedics can routinely conduct internal/invasive examinations provided consent is given 12. Which of the following layers of the uterus is contractile during pregnancy? a) Perimetrium b) None of these selections c) Myometrium d) Endometrium o the uterus consists of the following 3 tissue layers: o The inner layer, called the endometrium, is the most active layer and responds to cyclic ovarian hormone changes; the endometrium is highly specialized and is essential to menstrual and reproductive function o The middle layer, or myometrium, makes up most of the uterine volume and is the muscular layer, composed primarily of smooth muscle cells o The outer layer of the uterus, the serosa or perimetrium, is a thin layer of tissue made of epithelial cells that envelop the uterus 13. Which procedure is appropriate for managing delivery of the neonate’s shoulders during a breech delivery? a) Loveset manoeuvre b) Mariceau-Smellie-Viet manoeuvre c) Gaskins manoeuvre d) Rubins II manoeuvre 14. Which of the following is the definition of pre-eclampsia? a) Seizure activity during pregnancy b) Gestational hypertension + proteinuria c) HELLP syndrome

d) Hypertension during pregnancy higher than 160/110 15. Which of the following conditions does NOT normally present with abdominal pain localised to a specific side (lateralised pain)? a) Pelvic Inflammatory Disease b) Ruptured tubal ectopic pregnancy c) Ovarian torsion d) Ruptured ovarian cyst 16. Which of the following is NOT a type of breech presentation? a) Frank/ incomplete b) Transverse c) Complete d) Footling o Frank breech (50-70%) - Hips flexed, knees extended (pike position) o Complete breech (5-10%) - Hips flexed, knees flexed (cannonball position) o Footling or incomplete (10-30%) - One or both hips extended, foot presenting 17. What is the appropriate management of cord prolapse? a) Clamp and cut the cord to facilitate delivery b) Ask the mother to replace the cord back into her vagina and position her to prevent cord compression c) Position the mother supine and instigate early transport d) Wrap the cord in plastic wrap and continuously palpate for the foetal pulse 18. Which of the following is a sign of an inevitable miscarriage? a) Lower back pain and abdominal cramping b) Vaginal bleeding prior to 20 weeks c) Rupture of the foetal membranes d) Prolonged abdominal pain 19. Which of the following is an external manoeuvre for the management of shoulder dystocia? a) McRoberts b) Reverse Woods Screw c) Loveset manoeuvre d) Rubins II 20. Which of the following is NOT a sign of imminent delivery? a) Contractions lasting 30-60 seconds b) The mother having an urge to push c) Bulging of the perineum d) Crowning of the foetal head (that is delivery) 21. Which of the following is NOT a location for ectopic implantation? a) Peritoneal cavity b) Vagina c) Cervix

d) Fallopian tubes 22. When managing a heavily pregnant woman in cardiac arrest you should: a) Manage the patient in the left lateral position b) Manually or with padding displace the uterus to the patient’s right c) Manually or with padding displace the uterus to the patient’s left d) Manage exactly the same as any other patient 23. The most important intervention in neonatal resuscitation is: a) Ensuring good quality chest compressions during CPR b) Effective ventilation of the lungs c) Appropriate airway management d) Administration of sufficient oxygen to prevent hypoxia 24. The hormone that stimulates growth of the Graafian follicles in the ovaries is: a) Follicle stimulating hormone b) Progesterone c) Gonadotropin releasing hormone d) Luteinising hormone 25. The hormone that stimulates uterine tissue growth during the proliferative stage of the menstrual cycle (prior to ovulation is): a) Gonadotropin releasing hormone b) Luteinising hormone c) Progesterone d) Oestrogen 26. Which of the following would be the most indicative of Pelvic Inflammatory Disease? a) Fever b) Hx of STI or risky sexual behaviour c) Pain that coincides with the menstrual cycle d) Diffuse abdominal pain 27. When suctioning a neonate, what is the correct procedure as outlined below? a) Suctioning should occur upon presentation of the head during delivery b) Suction the mouth then nose c) Suction the nose then mouth d) Suctioning via endotracheal tube for all babies 28. Which of the following is NOT a specific cause of primary post-partum haemorrhage? a) Pregnancy induced hypertension b) Recto-Perineal tears c) An atonic uterus d) Delivery of an incomplete placenta

29. Which of the findings below is most indicative of a ruptured ovarian cyst? a) Abrupt moderate to severe lateralising pain that may radiate to the rectum b) Diffuse abdominal pain with rebound tenderness c) Haemodynamic compromise in a woman of child bearing age d) Fever 30. What is the Apgar score for a baby who at 1 minute is crying, has regular respirations, good tone with spontaneous movement, a heart rate of 140, and is peripherally cyanosed? a) 6 b) 7 c) 8 d) 9

1. Immediate post birth management of the neonate involves: e) Drying, stimulation and placing on the mother for warmth f) Placing the baby under/near a radiant heat source g) Routine suctioning of the airway h) Positive pressure ventilation to start it breathing 2. A side effect of too-rapid administration of magnesium sulphate is: e) Hypotension f) Cardiac arrest g) Respiratory depression h) All of these selections 3. The most effective management for eclamptic seizures is: e) Administration of calcium gluconate f) Administration of normal saline g) Administration of magnesium sulphate h) Administration of midazolam 4. You are managing a 20myear old female patient, 36/40 gestation with severe PV bleeding, haemodynamically unstable but with no abdominal pain. She is most likely suffering from: e) Placental abruption f) Vasa previa g) Placenta accreta h) Placenta previa 5. Which of the following is NOT a complication of multiple pregnancies? e) Cord prolapse or entanglement f) Polyhydramnios g) Macrosomiab (multiple pregnancies causes low birth rate) h) Increased risk of post-partum haemorrhage 6. Which of the following most significantly increases the risk of ectopic pregnancy? e) Pelvic inflammatory disease f) Diabetes g) Pre-eclampsia h) Hypertension 7. Eclampsia is defined as: e) Severe hypertension during pregnancy f) Seizure activity superimposed on pre-eclampsia g) Hypertensive crisis resulting in cerebral haemorrhage in pregnancy h) None of these selections 8. Which of the following is not a form of haemorrhage control for post-partum haemorrhage? e) Bimanual compression f) Administer IV fluids to maintain perfusion g) Encouraging the neonate to suckle h) Massaging the fundus

9. Causative factors of ovarian torsion may include: e) Pregnancy f) Ovarian cysts g) Uterine/ovarian tumours h) All of these selections 10. Which of the following is not a common complication of Pelvic Inflammatory Disease? e) Chronic pelvic pain f) Endometriosis g) Infertility h) Increased risk of ectopic pregnancy 11. Which of the following statements is true regarding cultural considerations when conducting obstetric history taking and physical examination? e) Paramedics should gain consent from the patient and or their family in some circumstances to conduct an assessment. Where possible a female paramedic may need to perform this. f) Paramedic gender considerations should not have to be taken into consideration when treating patients from diverse backgrounds as we have limited resources. g) Only female paramedics should conduct obstetric and gynaecological physical examination and history taking to preserve the patient’s dignity. h) Paramedics can routinely conduct internal/invasive examinations provided consent is given 12. Which of the following layers of the uterus is contractile during pregnancy? e) Perimetrium f) None of these selections g) Myometrium h) Endometrium o the uterus consists of the following 3 tissue layers: o The inner layer, called the endometrium, is the most active layer and responds to cyclic ovarian hormone changes; the endometrium is highly specialized and is essential to menstrual and reproductive function o The middle layer, or myometrium, makes up most of the uterine volume and is the muscular layer, composed primarily of smooth muscle cells o The outer layer of the uterus, the serosa or perimetrium, is a thin layer of tissue made of epithelial cells that envelop the uterus 13. Which procedure is appropriate for managing delivery of the neonate’s shoulders during a breech delivery? e) Loveset manoeuvre f) Mariceau-Smellie-Viet manoeuvre g) Gaskins manoeuvre h) Rubins II manoeuvre 14. Which of the following is the definition of pre-eclampsia? e) Seizure activity during pregnancy f) Gestational hypertension + proteinuria g) HELLP syndrome

h) Hypertension during pregnancy higher than 160/110 15. Which of the following conditions does NOT normally present with abdominal pain localised to a specific side (lateralised pain)? e) Pelvic Inflammatory Disease f) Ruptured tubal ectopic pregnancy g) Ovarian torsion h) Ruptured ovarian cyst 16. Which of the following is NOT a type of breech presentation? e) Frank/ incomplete f) Transverse g) Complete h) Footling o Frank breech (50-70%) - Hips flexed, knees extended (pike position) o Complete breech (5-10%) - Hips flexed, knees flexed (cannonball position) o Footling or incomplete (10-30%) - One or both hips extended, foot presenting 17. What is the appropriate management of cord prolapse? e) Clamp and cut the cord to facilitate delivery f) Ask the mother to replace the cord back into her vagina and position her to prevent cord compression g) Position the mother supine and instigate early transport h) Wrap the cord in plastic wrap and continuously palpate for the foetal pulse 18. Which of the following is a sign of an inevitable miscarriage? e) Lower back pain and abdominal cramping f) Vaginal bleeding prior to 20 weeks g) Rupture of the foetal membranes h) Prolonged abdominal pain 19. Which of the following is an external manoeuvre for the management of shoulder dystocia? e) McRoberts f) Reverse Woods Screw g) Loveset manoeuvre h) Rubins II 20. Which of the following is NOT a sign of imminent delivery? e) Contractions lasting 30-60 seconds f) The mother having an urge to push g) Bulging of the perineum h) Crowning of the foetal head (that is delivery) 21. Which of the following is NOT a location for ectopic implantation? e) Peritoneal cavity f) Vagina g) Cervix

h) Fallopian tubes 22. When managing a heavily pregnant woman in cardiac arrest you should: e) Manage the patient in the left lateral position f) Manually or with padding displace the uterus to the patient’s right g) Manually or with padding displace the uterus to the patient’s left h) Manage exactly the same as any other patient 23. The most important intervention in neonatal resuscitation is: e) Ensuring good quality chest compressions during CPR f) Effective ventilation of the lungs g) Appropriate airway management h) Administration of sufficient oxygen to prevent hypoxia 24. The hormone that stimulates growth of the Graafian follicles in the ovaries is: e) Follicle stimulating hormone f) Progesterone g) Gonadotropin releasing hormone h) Luteinising hormone 25. The hormone that stimulates uterine tissue growth during the proliferative stage of the menstrual cycle (prior to ovulation is): e) Gonadotropin releasing hormone f) Luteinising hormone g) Progesterone h) Oestrogen 26. Which of the following would be the most indicative of Pelvic Inflammatory Disease? e) Fever f) Hx of STI or risky sexual behaviour g) Pain that coincides with the menstrual cycle h) Diffuse abdominal pain 27. When suctioning a neonate, what is the correct procedure as outlined below? e) Suctioning should occur upon presentation of the head during delivery f) Suction the mouth then nose g) Suction the nose then mouth h) Suctioning via endotracheal tube for all babies 28. Which of the following is NOT a specific cause of primary post-partum haemorrhage? e) Pregnancy induced hypertension f) Recto-Perineal tears g) An atonic uterus h) Delivery of an incomplete placenta

29. Which of the findings below is most indicative of a ruptured ovarian cyst? e) Abrupt moderate to severe lateralising pain that may radiate to the rectum f) Diffuse abdominal pain with rebound tenderness g) Haemodynamic compromise in a woman of child bearing age h) Fever 30. What is the Apgar score for a baby who at 1 minute is crying, has regular respirations, good tone with spontaneous movement, a heart rate of 140, and is peripherally cyanosed? e) 6 f) 7 g) 8 h) 9...