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SECTION A: MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS.

50 MARKS

ANSWER PART A ON THE ANSWER SHEET AT THE BACK OF THE PAPER !

1. Which of the following statements defines synchondroses? a) Amphiarthrotic joints designed for strength and flexibility b) Interphalangeal joints c) Joints that permit angular movements d) Cartilaginous joints where hyaline cartilage unites the ends of bones 2. What is moving a limb away from the median plane of the body along the frontal plane called? a) Abduction b) Adduction c) Inversion d) Dorsiflexion 3. Which of the following statements is TRUE? a) Cardiac muscle cells have many nuclei b) Smooth muscle cells have T tubules c) Striated muscle cells are long and cylindrical with many nuclei d) Cardiac muscle cells are found in the heart and large blood vessels 4. Which of the following surrounds the individual muscle cell? a) Perimysium b) Endomysium c) Epimysium d) Fascicle 5. What produces the striations of a skeletal muscle cell? a) A difference in the thickness of the sarcolemma b) The arrangement of myofilaments c) The sarcoplasmic reticulum d) The T tubules 6. During muscle contraction, myosin cross bridges attach to which active sites? a) Myosin filaments b) Actin filaments c) Z discs d) Thick filaments 7. The cell responsible for secreting the matrix of bone is the ________. a) Osteocyte b) Osteoclast c) Osteoblast d) Chondrocyte

8. A fracture in the shaft of a bone would be a break in the ________. a) Epiphysis b) Metaphysis c) Diaphysis d) Articular cartilage 9. What are the small spaces in bone tissue that are holes in which osteocytes live called? a) Lacunae b) Volkmann's canals c) Haversian canals d) Trabeculae 10. Which bone contains diaphysis and epiphysis areas, a tuberosity near its middle, and is proportionally more compact than spongy bone? a) Parietal bone b) Talus c) Humerus d) Cervical vertebra 11. The femoral nerve a) supplies adductor longus b) supplies muscles that arise below the knee c) is loosely wrapped together with the tibial nerve to form the sciatic nerve d) supplies Sartorius 12. Which forms the largest portion of the coxal bone? a) Ischium b) Pubis c) Ilium d) Pelvic 13. Which of these does NOT attach to the scapula? a) Triceps brachii b) Biceps brachii c) deltoid d) brachialis 14. The supraspinatus is named for its location on the posterior aspect of the scapula above the spine. What is its action? a) To help hold the head of the humerus in the glenoid cavity and rotate the humerus laterally b) To stabilize the shoulder joint and help prevent downward location of the humerus and to assist in abduction c) Extend and medially rotate the humerus and to act as a synergist of the latissimus dorsi d) Flex and adduct the humerus and to act as a synergist of the pectoralis major

15. When the term biceps, triceps, or quadriceps forms part of a muscle's name, what does it tell you about the muscle? a) The muscle has two, three, or four origins, respectively b) The muscle is able to change direction twice, three times, or four times faster than other muscles, respectively c) The muscle has two, three, or four functions, respectively d) The muscle has two, three, or four insertions, respectively 16. Adductor magnus, adductor longus, and adductor brevis are parts of a large muscle mass of the ________. a) Lateral rotators b) Anterior compartment of the thigh c) Posterior muscle group of the thigh d) Medial compartment of the thigh 17. Which of the following muscles inserts by the calcaneal tendon? a) The semitendinosus b) The tibialis anterior c) The sartorius d) The gastrocnemius 18. The axillary nerve innervates which muscle? a) Biceps brachii b) Deltoid c) Coracobrachialis d) Trapezius 19. Paralysis of which of the following muscles would make an individual unable to flex the knee? a) Hamstring muscles b) Gluteal muscles c) Brachioradialis d) Soleus 20. The cruciate ligaments of the knee ________. a) Tend to run parallel to one another b) Are also called collateral ligaments c) Prevent hyperextension of the knee d) Assist in defining the range of motion of the leg 21. The circulatory route that runs from the digestive tract to the liver is called ________. a) Hepatic portal circulation b) Pulmonary circulation c) Coronary circulation d) Cerebral circulation 22. The exchange of nutrients and gases between the blood and tissue cells is the primary function of ________. a) Arterioles b) Arteries c) Veins d) Capillaries

23. Which of the following is likely during vigorous exercise? a) Blood will be diverted to the digestive organs b) The skin will be cold and clammy c) Capillaries of the active muscles will be engorged with blood d) Blood flow to the kidneys increases 24. Normal heart sounds are caused by which of the following events? a) Excitation of the SA node b) Closure of the heart valves c) Friction of blood against the chamber walls d) Opening and closing of the heart valves 25. Which of the events below does NOT occur when the semilunar valves are open? a) Ventricles are in diastole b) Blood enters pulmonary arteries and the aorta c) AV valves are closed d) Ventricles are in systole 26. The term for pain associated with deficient blood delivery to the heart that may be caused by the transient spasm of coronary arteries is ________. a) Ischemia b) Pericarditis c) Myocardial infarct d) Angina pectoris 27. The source of blood carried to the capillaries in the myocardium would be the ________. a) Coronary sinus b) Fossa ovalis c) Coronary arteries d) Coronary veins 28. When viewing a dissected heart, it is easy to visually discern the right and left ventricles by ________. a) Tracing out where the auricles connect b) Noticing the thickness of the ventricle walls c) Locating the apex and PMI d) Finding the papillary muscles 29. Which of the following are NOT involved in the generation and transmission of the electric signal through your heart? a) Purkinje fibres b) Atrioventricular valves c) SA node d) AV node 30. What is the major function of the intervertebral discs? a) absorb shock b) string the vertebrae together c) prevent injuries d) prevent hyperextension

31. Which of the following is the abnormal curve often seen in pregnant women as they attempt to preserve their center of gravity toward the end of the pregnancy? a) Kyphosis b) Hunchback c) Lordosis d) Scoliosis 32. Which of the following phrases best describes the function of the vertebral curves? a) To provide resilience and flexibility b) To accommodate muscle attachment c) To improve cervical centre of gravity d) To accommodate the weight of the pelvic girdle 33. Which of the following statements regarding the C1 (Atlas) vertebrae, is INCORRECT? a) This vertebrae contains no body or spinous process b) Superior surfaces of lateral masses articulate with the parietal condyles c) Forms an articulation which allows the head to nod “Yes” d) This vertebrae has two arches 34. Which of the following statements regarding the vertebral column is INCORRECT? a) The nucleus pulposus is a gelatinous easily compressible structure b) The intervertebral foramen contains the vertebral canal containing the spinal cord c) The collagenous outer collar of an intervertebral disc is called the anulus fibrosus d) There are 12 thoracic vertebrae 35. Which of the following does NOT compress the abdomen? a) Internal oblique b) External oblique c) Transversus abdominis d) Coccygeus 36. Which muscle(s) is/are contracted to exhale forcibly? a) Diaphragm alone b) Internal intercostals and rectus abdominus c) External intercostals and diaphragm d) Rectus abdominis and diaphragm 37. The loudness of a person's voice depends on the ________. a) Thickness of vestibular folds b) The length of the vocal folds c) The strength of the intrinsic laryngeal muscles d) The force with which air rushes across the vocal folds 38. The walls of the alveoli are composed of two types of cells, type I and type II. The function of type II is to ________. a) secrete surfactant b) trap dust and other debris c) replace mucus in the alveoli d) protect the lungs from bacterial invasion

39. Which of the following statements are INCORRECT? a) Ribs 1 to 7 are attached directly to the sternum b) Transverse costal facets articulate with the tubercle of the rib c) Ribs 8-12 are indirectly attached to the sternum via joining to costal cartilage of the rib above d) Superior costal facets articulate with the head of the rib 40. Complete the following statement using the choices below. Air moves out of the lungs when the pressure inside the lungs is: a) Less than the pressure in the atmosphere b) Greater than the pressure in the atmosphere c) Equal to the pressure in the atmosphere d) Greater than the intra-alveolar pressure 41. For gas exchange to be efficient, the respiratory membrane must be ________. a) At least 3 micrometers thick b) Between 5 and 6 micrometers thick c) The thickness of the respiratory membrane is not important in the efficiency of gas exchange d) 0.5 to 1 micrometer thick 42. Most inspired particles such as dust fail to reach the lungs because of the ________. a) ciliated mucous lining in the nose b) abundant blood supply to nasal mucosa c) porous structure of turbinate bones d) action of the epiglottis 43. Which of the disorders below is characterized by destruction of the walls of the alveoli producing abnormally large air spaces that remain filled with air during exhalation? a) pneumonia b) tuberculosis c) emphysema d) coryza 44. The suture that connects the two parietal bones together is the ________. a) coronal b) sagittal c) lambdoid d) squamosals 45. Which of the following statements regarding the bones of the skull is incorrect? a) The cranial cavity houses the whole brain b) The mandible is the largest and strongest bone of the face c) Zygomatic bones form the upper jawbone d) The ethmoid bone is the deepest skull bone 46. The hyoid bone is unique because it ________. a) is the only bone of the body that does not articulate with any other bone b) is shaped like a plow c) is covered with mucosa d) has no specific function

47. Which of the following muscles are NOT involved in mastication and tongue movement? a) Medial pterygoid b) Masseter c) Lateral pterygoid d) Suprahyoid 48. The brain stem consists of the ________. a) cerebrum, pons, midbrain, and medulla b) midbrain, medulla, and pons c) pons, medulla, cerebellum, and midbrain d) midbrain only 49. The hypothalamus ________. a) Is the thermostat of the body because it regulates temperature b) Is an important auditory and visual relay centre c) has the Pulvinar body as part of its structure d) mediates sensations 50. The white matter of the spinal cord contains ________. a) myelinated nerve fibers only b) unmyelinated nerve fibers only c) myelinated and unmyelinated nerve fibers d) soma that have both myelinated and unmyelinated nerve fibers 51. Which of the following statements is a FALSE or INCORRECT statement? a) Damage to the primary motor cortex results only in the loss of voluntary muscle control b) Damage to the premotor cortex results in loss of motor skills programmed in that area but movement is still possible c) Damage to the visual association area results in blindness d) Damage to the primary auditory cortex results in the inability to interpret pitch, loudness, and location 52. Which of the following would you not find in normal cerebrospinal fluid? a) glucose b) red blood cells c) potassium d) protein 53. Which of the following is NOT a function of astrocytes? a) Support and brace neurons b) Control the chemical environment around neurons c) Guide the migration of young neurons, synapse formation, and helping to determine capillary permeability d) Provide the defence for the CNS 54. Schwann cells are functionally similar to ________. a) Ependymal b) Microglia c) Oligodendrocytes d) Astrocytes

55. Which of the choices below best describes the ANS? a) Motor fibers that conduct nerve impulses from the CNS to smooth muscle, cardiac muscle, and glands b) Motor fibers that conduct nerve impulses from the CNS to skeletal muscles c) Sensory neurons that convey information from somatic receptors in the head, body wall, and limbs and from receptors from the special senses of vision, hearing, taste, and smell to the CNS d) Sensory and motor neurons that supply the digestive tract

End of Section A

SECTION B: SHORT ANSWER.

15 MARKS

ANSWER THE FOLLOWING QUESTIONS IN THE ALLOCATED SPACE NEXT TO EACH QUESTION. For the following questions answer true (T) or false (F). 1. Cerebrospinal fluid circulates within the ventricles of the brain and in the subarachnoid space outside the brain.

2. The right cerebral hemisphere is usually dominant.

3. Meningitis is the most accurate term for inflammation of neurons.

4. The musculocutaneous nerve is a major nerve of the brachial plexus.

5. Irritation of the phrenic nerve may cause diaphragm spasms called hiccups.

6. The cerebellum and basal nuclei are involved in regulating motor activity, starting and stopping movements, and coordinating postural movements.

7. Thermoregulatory responses to increased heat are mediated by the sympathetic nervous division.

8. The ANS stimulates smooth and skeletal muscles and glands, whereas the somatic nervous system innervates cardiac muscles only.

9. The epiglottis is a smooth muscle that covers the glottis during swallowing.

10. Strong emotions and pain acting through the limbic system activate sympathetic centers in the hypothalamus, thus modulating respiratory rate and depth by sending signals to the respiratory centers.

11. The cerebral arterial circle (circle of Willis) is an arterial anastomosis.

12. An obstruction in the superior vena cava would decrease the flow of blood from the head and neck to the heart.

13. The thick-walled arteries close to the heart are called muscular arteries.

14. Fenestrated Capillaries are commonly seen in the kidney and small intestine.

15. The blood vessels of the skin are one of the few areas of the body where the vessels are innervated by both the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions.

SECTION C: EXTENDED ANSWER QUESTIONS.

50 MARKS

ANSWER FIVE QUESTIONS ANSWER IN THE SPACE PROVIDED UNDER EACH QUESTION

1. Describe the path of blood flow through the heart. Include all the main structures of the heart (Chambers, valves and muscles), the main vessels entering and exiting the heart, the two circulations, any main differences between the sides of the heart, and include when blood becomes oxygenated. (10 marks)

2. A. Describe the intrinsic cardiac conduction system. (5 marks)

B. Explain the electrocardiogram. Include what each of the segments mean and list an example of how the ECG can be used clinically to detect abnormalities. (5 marks)

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3. The brain is a very complex organ responsible for regulation and control of the entire body. In the space below, describe the four main regions of the brain. In your answer, include what is located within each region, and what the main functions of each of the regions are. (10 marks) ! ! ! ! ! ! ! ! ! ! ! ! ! ! ! ! ! ! ! ! ! ! ! ! !

4. Below are TWO images illustrating key muscles of the upper and lower body, answer the questions below relating to each of these muscles. (10 marks)

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A. Identify by letter and name, which of the following muscles is responsible for arm abduction and rotation? (1 mark)

B. Identify by letter and name, which of the following muscles is otherwise known as the boxer’s muscle? (1 mark)

C. What is the name and letter of the muscle that has its origin on the manubrium of the sternum and medial portion of the clavicle, and its insertion in the mastoid process of the temporal bone? (1 mark)

D. Which muscle is the Pectoralis minor? (0.5 mark)

E. What is the name of the (D)? Name the origin of this muscle and one function. (1.5 marks) Coracobrachialis.

F. What is labeled E? What bone articulates with this point of the pelvis, and what is the general name for this joint? (1.5 marks)

G. What is the name of A? (0.5 mark)

H. What bone is D? (0.5 mark)

I. What is labeled F? (0.5 mark)

J. Explain the significance of G, and what two structures it outlines? (2 marks)

5. A. Consider yourself a red blood cell (RBC). Describe the different TYPES of blood vessels you may encounter along the systemic circulation, and what main functional differences exist between them. (5 marks)

B. A surfer suffers a shark bite to the posterior compartment of the thigh. What muscles, vessels and nerves are likely to be affected? What movements of the lower limb are now restricted? (5 marks)

END OF EXAMINATION...