FSHN1030- quizzes (Q\'s & A\'s) PDF

Title FSHN1030- quizzes (Q\'s & A\'s)
Author Hayley Marlborough
Course Introduction to the Nutritional, Physical and Psychological Aspects of Wellness
Institution University of Newcastle (Australia)
Pages 8
File Size 62.2 KB
File Type PDF
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weekly quizzes- questions and answers....


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FSHN1030 exam preparation 1. Illnesses that results from choice and behaviour are known as: Lifestyle diseases. 2. The term ‘wellness’ came into use from Dubos’ definition of Health and incorporated the concepts which were derived from it and the definition of ‘wellness’ evolved include: I. The quality or state of being healthy in body and mind, especially as the result of deliberate effort. II. An approach to healthcare that emphasises preventing illness and prolonging life, as opposed to emphasising treating diseases. Both statements I and II are correct. 3. The term ‘wellness’ differs from ‘health’ in that: Only answers A and C are correct. 4. Which of the following is a Federal health campaign? Girls make your move 5. Which of the following is a NSW health campaign? Make healthy normal. 6. Relevant to the long title of this course, the definition of ‘wellness’ by an online medical dictionary includes: All of the above answers are correct. 7. In the context of the unit 1 course learning materials, the WHO: Stands for World Health Organisation. 8. Three important aspects of ‘wellness’ which will be covered in this course are: Nutritional, physical activity and psycology. 9. The concept of wellness has been re-invigorated, work and school-based ‘wellness programs’ have been put in place on the education side, courses such as this one and even whole university programs have been started because? The current epidemic in obesity has led to the worry that obesity-related diseases such as diabetes, cardiovascular disease (heart disease and stroke) and some cancers will increase in the post baby boomer generations and cause life expectancy to go backwards. 10. The best food sources of vitamin B-6 are: Meats, fish, and poutry. 11. Ninety-nine percent of calcium in the body is found in: Bones and teeth 12. Most of our dietary sulphur is supplied by:

proteins 13. Most of our dietary chloride comes from: Table salt. 14. Vitamin E functions are: An antioxidant 15. The essential amino acid tryptophan: Can be converted to niacin in the body. 16. Bowed legs, an enlarged and misshapen head and enlarged knee joints in children are all symptoms of rickets due to a deficiency in: Vitamin D 17. A major role of folate (folic acid) and why it is important in pregnancy is in: Making DNA. 18. Which of the following does not describe fat-soluble vitamins Excesses excreted in the urine. 19. The best common food source of iron is: Red meat. 20. Which of the following does not describe vitamins: Synthesised in the body. 21. The nutrient essential for the synthesis of seven blood clotting factors of vitamin: K / Potassium. 22. Which of the following nutrients functions as a solvent, thermoregulator, lubricant, and medium for chemical reactions? Water /H2O. 23. Vitamin B-12 is supplied only in: None of the other three answers are correct. 24. Oleic is: A nonessential fatty acid 25. An essential fatty acid: Cannot be synthesised in sufficient quantities to meet the body needs. 26. In the early stages of pregnancy, a dietary deficiency of folate, vitamin B-12 or both, can cause: Spina bifida in the newborn.

27. The energy content of protein is __________ per gram. 4 kcal or 17kJ 28. To convert from kJ to kcal, you need to ____________ by the conversion factor. Divide. 29. Vitamin B-12 would be found in which of the following foods? Chicken. 30. Cretinism, a form of physical and mental retardation, is due to the deficiency of _______, which is low in Australian soils. Iodine. 31. The current Australian Guide to Healthy Eating covers: Different amounts of five food groups on a plate. 32. Beta-carotene is a pro-vitamin (precursor) because it: Can be converted to Vitamin A in the body. 33. The mineral found in the body is the most abundance is: Calcium. 34. The energy content of alcohol is _______ per gram. 7 kcal or 29 kJ. 35. Sodium: Acts as the principal positively charged ion in the extracellular fluid. 36. In a situation where there is an insufficient intake of dietary iodine, the thyroid-stimulating hormone promotes the enlargement of the thyroid gland in the neck. This condition is called: Goiter. 37. A mineral with a positively charged ion located in the extracellular fluid (outside cells) and involved in blood pressure is: Sodium. 38. The energy content of carbohydrate is ______ per gram. 4 kcal or 17 kJ 39. Dietary protein supply________ kcal and _______ kJ per gram. 4 and 17. 40. According to physical activity pyramid, exercise for strength and muscular endurance should be performed: 2-3 days per week.

41. With regards to anaerobic exercise, which statement is FALSE? Anaerobic exercise is performed for long distance or time periods. 42. Which is NOT a benefit of strength training? Decreases fat free mass. 43. Which of the following is NOT related to the increased interest and participation in alternative youth sports? Alternative sports are controlled by adults and parents. 44. Informal or alternative sports emphasise the following experience EXCEPT: Set positions. 45. Which of the following factors does NOT limit participation of Aboriginal or Torre Straight Islanders in physical activity and sport: Sporting ability. 46. Racial ideology refers to: The ideas and beliefs that people use to give meaning to skin colour. 47. How does physical activity reduce the risk of dementia? All other statements are correct 48. The following factors influence participation in sport EXCEPT: All of the listed factors influence participation in sport. 49. Which statement is FALSE with regards to core strength and core training? Pilates is a form of core training that is not recommended for athletes. 50. Moderate intensity activities: Require some effort but you should still be able to talk while doing them. 51. Hypertension is a chronic, persistent elevation of blood pressure. Relative to the following both statements: I. There is an inverse relationship between physical activity levels and resting blood pressure. II. Modest increases in blood pressure reduce the risk of cardiovascular disease. Only statement I is true. 52. Youth sports are growing in popularity and have undergone some recent changes. Which of the following trends have NOT occurred in youth sports? Greater focus on physical activity for development and decreased parental involvement. 53. The estimated maximum heart rate for a 32 year old would be: 188bpm.

54. People engage in sports: All three are reasons why people engage in sports. 55. Organised youth sports have an impact on the dynamics of family relationship. I. Close communication occurs between parents and children. II. Children may feel pressure from parents. Only statement II is true. 56. Gender ideology: All of the three other statements are correct. 57. In the FITT formula FITT stands for: Frequency, Intensity, Time and Type. 58. In the Australian Health Survey 2017-18, _______% of adults met the sufficiently active threshold. 55.4% 59. In 2011-12, who had the lowest participation in sports in Australia? Females from North Africa and the Middle East. 60. The privatisation of organised programs may lead to: Gender, ethnic and socioeconomic inequality. 61. Which type of exercise is recommended for bone health? Weight bearing endurance activities. 62. Australia’s physical activity and sedentary behaviour guidelines indicate that moving more and sitting less will: Reduce your risk of heart disease, T2D and weight gain. 63. Coronary heart disease is caused by a lack of blood supply to the heart muscle due to the formation of plaques in the arteries. Relative to the following two statements: I. Risk factors include age, obesity and physical inactivity. II. Regular physical activity lowers the risk by 4 times. Only statement I is true. 64. To reduce % body fat, one should perform: A combination of strength training and aerobic activities together with sensible dietary practices. 65. Jogging at a constant pace is an example of: Continuous training. 66. What is the recommended minimum amount of daily physical activity of healthy adults? 30 mins.

67. Physical inactivity is a global issue. Relative to the following statements: I. Physical inactivity is the fourth leading cause of global mortality. II. 31% of the global adult population is inactive. Both statements are true. 68. The dominant gender ideology in Australia has traditionally emphasised that men are naturally superior to women in activities that involve: I. Strength and physical activities. II. Flexibility and grace. Only statement I is true. 69. A waist circumference of _______cm for males, and ________cm for females indicates a substantially increased risk for developing T2D, heart disease, stroke, hypertension and some cancers. 102 and 88. 70. Mediators of the stress-illness response include: All of the other answers are correct. 71. If the stress-response is repeatedly turned on, after each stressful event, it is important to know how: To appropriately turn it off between events. 72. Which of the following is not a health behaviour change model? Theory of change management. 73. Mindful eating: All of the above are true. 74. Which of the following is not considered a risk factor for Alzheimer’s Disease? Long-term use of cholesterol-lowering drugs. 75. Stress can affect Wellness in the following ways except: Causing a lowering of your red blood cell count. 76. Which of the following is not a concept in mindfulness? Connecting with your higher self. 77. Which of the following is not an anxiety disorder? All are type of anxiety disorders. 78. Which of the following statements is not true? Mindfulness: Increases IQ 79. Strategies for coping positively with stress include: Give yourself some down time.

80. Anxiety is the most common mental health condition in Australia. On average, what proportion of people experience anxiety? 1 in 4 people. 81. In regards to alleviating stress: I. Knowing you have control over your attitude. II. Embracing an optimistic outlook on life. Both I and II are useful. 82. Many situations are not inherently stressful, but depend on appraisal: I. Primary appraisal is evaluation of one’s ability to meet the demands of a challenging event. II. Secondary appraisal is the determination of an events meaning. Both statements are false. 83. Which of the following is not and effect of increased cortisol? Increased abdominal muscle. 84. In regards to Psycho-Social-Behavioural issues affecting Wellness: None of the other statements are correct. 85. Select the incorrect answer. Stress directly impacts on immune function via: Lifestyle. 86. Which of the following is not an anxiety disorder? Hyper-anxiety disorder. 87. Except for_______, the physiological effects of optimism include: Lowering the sympathetic nervous system recovery. 88. Hardiness is likely to lead to: Positive reappraisal of stressful events and less illness at high stress levels. 89. Which of the following is not a result of optimism? All the other answers are results of optimism. 90. Stress is known to be an important casual factor for the following except: Ulcers. 91. The theory of reasoned action: Causes results from intentions to perform actions. 92. Which health behavioural change model has produced some of the most consistent results in predicting behaviour? Social cognitive theory.

93. Which of the following are not key barriers to behavioural change? Time barriers. 94. With respect to stress, hot reactors respond in the following ways: Getting nauseous and vomiting. 95. To alleviate stress: All of the answers are correct. 96. By 2020, depression will be second only to: CVD as the leading cause of death and disability. 97. Guidelines for Wellness Goal setting include focusing on: Moderately difficult goals. 98. Which benefit of mindfulness meditation would most benefit those with ADHD? Improved attention and self-control. 99. Across the lifetime: 15% of individuals will experience depression....


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